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ISDS final prep

Total questions: 115

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Google is the worlds strongest brand

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Market Capitalization (market cap) is

a)

the value of the firm based on the NASDAQ

b)

the value of the firm calculated by multiplying its share price by the number of shares

c)

refers to entering the public market

d)

the value of each share based on the firms decision-making

3.

Google employees 20% time refers to

a)

employees can work from home 20% of time

b)

employees get an additional 20% bonus for not using sick time

c)

the ability to work the equivalent of one day a week on projects that interest them

d)

the ability to bank time up to 20% for extended vacation

4.

Organic or natural search refers to

a)

results via a search engine that are not influenced by influencers

b)

requesting a search via search engine, the results you’ll see are referred to by industry professionals

c)

results of sponsored ads

d)

advertisements for items that are related to your requested search

5.

PageRank is the method used by Google to return search results

a)

True

b)

False

6.

SEO refers to:

a)

Search Engine Order

b)

Search Engine Optimization

c)

Several Engines Onboard

d)

Software Engine Optimization

7.

The process of improving a page's organic search results is referred to as

a)

Search Engine Order Increase

b)

Indexed Results Improvement

c)

Influential Results

d)

Search Engine Optimization

8.

Which of the following are deemed influential in search results from Google

a)

.com

b)

.gov

c)

.edu

d)

.org

9.

Spiders ___

a)

search engines that complete searches via 8 techniques

b)

start at the first page on every public server and follow every available link until all pages are uncovered

c)

searches private pages and follow links until all pages are uncovered

d)

Eight continuous searches that run simultaneously to return optimum results

10.

What code is used to let search engines know to stop searching

a)

HTML

b)

HMTL

c)

HTTPS

d)

HDMI

11.

Which is not one of the 3 factors driving online ad growth

a)

improved measurement and accountability

b)

teenage internet use

c)

targeting

d)

increased user time online

12.

SEM is the practice of running and optimizing search engine add campaigns

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Pay per click (PPC)/Cost per click (CPC) refers to

a)

advertisers don't spend any money unless someone clicks on their ad

b)

the negotiated amount that will be charged to the consumer for clicking on the ad

c)

the return on investment that is generated per click

d)

the average cost for customer acquisition

14.

One of the factors used to determine ad quality by Google

a)

Promotional improvement plan (PIP)

b)

Pay per click (PPC)

c)

Cost per add (CPA)

d)

Click through rate (CTR)

15.

Geotargeting occurs when

a)

physical location is released for advertising

b)

physical location of computer user is identified

c)

GPS system is targetted for driving directions

d)

a computer is tracked by a special chip inserted at the time of purchase

16.

IP addresses change based on location of where you are connected to the internet

a)

True

b)

False

17.

AdSense was developed to target ads based on keywords within a website

a)

True

b)

False

18.

contextual advertising based on keywords has what limitation

a)

content duplication

b)

content adjacency problem

c)

content application systems

d)

content disruption

19.

Google has network effects

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Internet Advertising Bureau sets __

a)

common standards for content that can be displayed across networks and websites

b)

common standards for display ads so that a single creative ad can run unmodified across networks and websites

c)

common standards regarding ad size that can be run across networks and websites

d)

common standards for banner ads to run across networks and websites

21.

CPM refers to

a)

Clicks per monetary unit

b)

Cost per thousand impressions

c)

Computer page monitoring

d)

Cost per millions

22.

Cost-per-action (CPA) refers to when a user clicks and performs a specified action

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Cookies are responsible for the greatest degee of ad targeting and personalization

a)

True

b)

False

24.

A cookie is

a)

a great treat that comes in many flavors

b)

a line of identifying text assigned and retrieved by a given webserver and stored by your computer

c)

software that is installed by visiting certain websites

d)

a line of identifying text that can be read by an website that is stored by your computer

25.

Ad networks can create browsing profiles by serving and tracking cookies in ads shown on partner sites

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Depleting click fraud is

a)

clicking a rivals ads to exhause PPC advertising budget

b)

clicking ones own adds to increase PPC income

c)

packing a website with unrelated keywords to increase visitors

d)

generating bogus impressions to exhause rivals CPM ad budget

27.

zombie networks (bot nets) are hordes of surreptitiously infiltrated computers, linked and controlled by rogue software

a)

True

b)

False

28.

While Google's brand is strong, switching costs are incredibily low

a)

True

b)

False

29.

System Analysts need the following skills: Technical, Business, Financial, Analytical, Communications, Interpersonal, and Ethics

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Change Management Analyst refers to

a)

focuses on managing constantly changing personnel

b)

focuses on people and management issues

c)

focuses on hiring and firing management process

d)

focuses on business issues surrounding a system

31.

Which of the following is not a part of System Development Life Cycle (SDLC)

a)

planning

b)

integration

c)

analysis

d)

design

e)

implementation

32.

Each phase of SDLC is composed of a series of steps, which ______ on techniques that ________ deliverables

a)

follow up on, increase

b)

rely, produce

c)

build, increase

d)

work, produce

33.

Put the phases of SDLC in the correct order

a)

analysis, planning, implementation, design

b)

planning, analysis, implementation, design

c)

planning, analysis, design, implementation

d)

planning, design, analysis, implementation

34.

Planning phase has 2 steps; initiation and design

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Project Management begins in which phase of SDLC

a)

Implementation

b)

Analysis

c)

Planning

d)

Design

36.

Analysis phase is who will do it and what should the system be able to do

a)

True

b)

False

37.

which is not a step in the analysis phase

a)

develop a system protocol

b)

gather requirements

c)

develop a strategy

d)

determine the value it provides

38.

Architecture and interface are steps within the Design phase

a)

True

b)

False

39.

Step by Step design methodologies

a)

waterfall, parallel

b)

agile, waterfall

c)

agile, parallel

d)

scrum, eXtreme programming

40.

Rapid Action Development repeats all but the planning phase and creates multiple system versions

a)

True

b)

False

41.

eXtreme programming emphasizes feedback, communication and simplicity

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Scrum utilizes a backlog wish list and utilize the top chunk as a sprint backlog

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Infrastructure Analysts focus on

a)

business issues

b)

technical issues

c)

information system issues

d)

people and management issues

44.

Which is phase is the fundamental process of understanding

a)

Design

b)

Planning

c)

Implementation

d)

Analysis

45.

Which phase investigates the current system and identifies improvement opportunities

a)

Implementation

b)

Design

c)

Analysis

d)

Planning

46.

A system proposal is

a)

a document that combines concepts of implementation to be presented to the core team

b)

a document that combines the analysis and concepts to be presented to the project sponsor

c)

a document that reports the analysis and proposes cost related to the project

d)

a document that plans our the implementation process of the project

47.

Which is the deliverable of the design phase?

a)

design review of the current system

b)

initaition of project proposal

c)

analysis of current system

d)

system specification

48.

Primary deliverable of the planning phase is what?

a)

Project plan

b)

Analysis plan

c)

Project management

d)

Design Plan

49.

3 legs of the project triangle

a)

Cost, Scope, Time

b)

Cost, Scope, Resources

c)

Cost, Resources, Time

d)

Cost, Resources, Quality

50.

Which is not an activity of project managers

a)

Project Planning

b)

Project Monitoring

c)

Project Analyzing

d)

Project Reporting

51.

WBS is

a)

Working Benchmark Status

b)

Work Breakdown Structure

c)

Work Breakdown Status

d)

Work Balance Structure

52.

Limitations of a Gantt Chart

a)

not a great report of high level tasks

b)

doesn't display timeline across horizontal axis

c)

doesn't simplify complex tasks

d)

not enough details to manage project

53.

PERT stands for

a)

Programs Equation Review Technique

b)

Program Evaluation Review Technique

c)

Process Evaluation Review Technique

d)

Process Equation Reassess Technique

54.

PERT and CPM are interchangeable terms

a)

True

b)

False

55.

PERT is a bottom up method because

a)

individual tasks that are built from the bottom up as pyramid

b)

timeline is stacked from bottom to top

c)

individual tasks are ranked and listed in order

d)

timeline is assembled from and displayed vertically

56.

PERT charts are better for

a)

snapshot overview of project

b)

scheduling, monitoring and controlling work

c)

scheduling and monitoring only

d)

Controlling the scope of the project

57.

Gantt charts display complex task patterns and relationships

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Any work that has a beginning and end and uses company resources (people, time or money)

a)

Budget

b)

Task

c)

Project management

d)

Project

59.

Reference point to monitor progress

a)

Progressive chart

b)

Milestones

c)

Tasks

d)

WBS

60.

Beginning and end of tasks are a recognizable event

a)

True

b)

False

61.

Predecessor tasks

a)

must start in parallel with another task

b)

monitor task status

c)

must be completed before another task

d)

are also a milestone

62.

4 factors that affect duration

a)

project size, human resources, experience, constraints

b)

project size, budget, time, human resources

c)

human resources, experience, budget, time

d)

project size, budget, experience, constraints

63.

A series of tasks that would affect the completion date of the overall project if delayed.

a)

critical point

b)

critical path

c)

critical task

d)

critical talking point

64.

Slack time is the amount of time that the task could be late without pushing back the completion date of the entire project

a)

True

b)

False

65.

All tasks in the WBS need to be the primary concern of the Project Manager

a)

True

b)

False

66.

An event that could affect the project negatively

a)

issue

b)

risk

c)

probability

d)

compliance issue

67.

The purpose of ____ is to understand the actual impact in terms of dollars, scope or quality.

a)

Quantitative risk analysis

b)

Qualitative risk analysis

68.

What is Brooks Law?

a)

adding more people to a project to decrease risks

b)

adding more people to a project and increases time

c)

adding more people to a project and increases cost

d)

adding more people to the project to decrease deliverables

69.

OSS

a)

open source service

b)

open source software

c)

open service software

d)

open software scale

70.

SaaS, you need to own the program and install it on your computer

a)

True

b)

False

71.

Linux is an example of OSS

a)

True

b)

False

72.

Most firms work together to fund foundations that set standards and coordinate the release of product revisions and improvements

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Which is not a reason why OSS is selected over commercial alternatives

a)

Cost

b)

Reliability

c)

Security

d)

Ease of use

74.

Many commercial products do not have an OSS equivalent

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Vendors make money off OSS how?

a)

consultative services

b)

debugging code

c)

database offering

d)

SQL language updates

76.

Linux is a popular selection of operating systems for desktops and laptops

a)

True

b)

False

77.

Most common database language

a)

SEL

b)

SQL

c)

DB2

d)

C++

78.

A risk of OSS is the difficult installation and maintenance

a)

True

b)

False

79.

This product analyzes the composition of software source code and reports any areas of concern so the firms can honor legal obligations

a)

Black Swan

b)

Black Duck

c)

Blue Goose

d)

Blue Sky

80.

Cloud computing is where an organization's hardware or software is replaced by services provided over the internet.

a)

True

b)

False

81.

Most iconic SaaS firm is

a)

Google

b)

Salesforce.com

c)

Zara

d)

Harrah's

82.

SaaS is also available for desktop applications

a)

True

b)

False

83.

Which is not a benefits of SaaS?

a)

Decreased software cost

b)

Highly scalable

c)

High quality of customer service

d)

Data Governance

84.

SaaS systems are more flexible than their installed software counterpart.

a)

True

b)

False

85.

Cloud computing efforts focus on providing a virtual replacement for operational____

a)

software

b)

hardware

c)

ERP

d)

CRM

86.

Firms with __ systems should enter the cloud cautiously

a)

mission-critical

b)

expendable

c)

replaceable

d)

data mining

87.

Cloud computing can accelerate innovation and change the desired skills for IS workers

a)

True

b)

False

88.

Lowering costs to powerful systems and software decreases

a)

Profits

b)

ROI

c)

Barrier to entry

d)

Cache flow ;)

89.

______ is being a kind of operating system for an operating system

a)

Virtualization

b)

Artificial Intelligence

c)

SaaS

d)

Coopetition

90.

Virtualization can live on your desktop

a)

True

b)

False

91.

The extensive use of data, statistical and quantitative analysis, explanatory and predictive models and fact-based management to drive decisions and actions is____

a)

Artificial Intelligence (AI)

b)

Business Intelligence (BI)

c)

Business Impact Analytics (BIA)

d)

Data Analysis & Reporting (DAR)

92.

Which is not true about Data

a)

It is raw facts and figures

b)

Firms utilize loyalty cards to collect it

c)

In raw form can give great details on trends

d)

can be gathered from transaction processing systems

93.

Which is not a concept related to a database

a)

key

b)

field

c)

prompt

d)

file

94.

Firms that trawl for data and package them up for resale are known as

a)

data aggregator

b)

data miners

c)

data sales reps

d)

data bankers

95.

Transactional databases aren't set up to be simultaneously accessed for reporting and analysis

a)

True

b)

False

96.

set of databases designed to support decision making in an organization

a)

data warehouse

b)

data mart

c)

data computing

d)

data silo

97.

OLAP (online) analytical processing is data sourced from a relational database but calculated and summarized in advance, across multiple dimensions and stored in a data warehouse

a)

True

b)

False

98.

Firms use data mining in which area below

a)

market basket analysis

b)

system organization

c)

financial analysis

d)

employee retention

99.

For data mining to work both conditions must be present; clean consistent data and

a)

data that reflects financial growth

b)

events that reflect current and future trends

c)

events that reflect historical markers

d)

data that reflects collaborative filtering

100.

which is not a perils presented by data mining

a)

over-engineered model

b)

random but meaningless data

c)

black swans

d)

organizational process

101.

CLV represents the present value of the likely future income stream generated by an individual purchaser

a)

Customer lasting value

b)

Consumer lifetime value

c)

Customer lifetime value

d)

Consumer lasting value

102.

loyalty programs represents a

a)

switching costs

b)

competitive advantage

c)

data mining

d)

CLV

103.

Corporate espionage can be performed by insiders, rivals or foreign governments

a)

True

b)

False

104.

Hackers that probe for weaknesses and share knowledge in hopes of security improvements are called

a)

white coats

b)

white hats

c)

black coats

d)

black hats

105.

Law enforcement agencies are out skilled and out numbered, but receive proper funding

a)

True

b)

False

106.

social engineering is

a)

con games that trick employees into revealing information or performing tasks that compromise a firm

b)

cookies from social networks that maintain employee data

c)

cons executed through technology

d)

malware that is transmitted via social networks

107.

spear phishing attacks target a given organization or group of users

a)

True

b)

False

108.

Which is not a method of infection

a)

Virus

b)

Worms

c)

Trojans

d)

Botnets

109.

Keylogger is a type of spyware that

a)

records key strokes

b)

records login information

c)

save login keys

d)

none of the above

110.

Cardinal rule of programming

a)

not to trust user input

b)

create code for only good

c)

debugging code only when necessary

d)

code to operational software is utmost important

111.

Encryption scrambles data making unreadable unless you have the key

a)

True

b)

False

112.

which is not a downside of encrytption

a)

key management is costly

b)

additional processing for scrambling and unscrambling

c)

the threat of laws and compliance mandates

d)

password management for users

113.

what is the weakest link in security

a)

careless user

b)

single sign on process

c)

software that is not updated

d)

lack of firewall

114.

Name of Organization responsible for evolving a set of standards that provides a model for establishing, implementing, operating, monitoring, reviewing, maintaining, and improving an Information Security Management System

a)

International Operational Systems Standards (IOS)

b)

International Organization for Standards (ISO)

c)

International Organization for Systems (ISO)

d)

International System of Standards (ISS)

115.

Which company has the world's strongest brand?

a)

Microsoft

b)

Google

c)

Harrah's

d)

IBM