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3DX5X Important UREs Vol 1&2

Total questions: 56

Worksheet time: 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

(002) Which enlisted training element is assigned by the supervisor in accordance with (IAW) AFI36−2201, Air Force Training Program?

a)

Core task

b)

Duty competency.

c)

Core competency.

d)

Duty position task.

2.

(004) Who is responsible for scheduling the Specialty Training Requirements Team (STRT)?

a)

Major Command Functional Manager (MFM) in conjunction with the Training PipelineManager (TPM).

b)

Air Force Career Field Manager (AFCFM) in conjunction with the SME

c)

MFM in conjunction with the subject matter expert (SME).

d)

AFCFM in conjunction with the TPM.

3.

(005) What program provides training for personnel to attain knowledge and skill qualifications required to perform duty in their specialty?

a)

Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP).

b)

Weighted Airman Promotion System (WAPS).

c)

On-the-Job Training (OJT) program.

d)

Occupational Analysis Program.

4.

(006) Which one of these is NOT an essential element in a Quality Assurance (QA) program?

a)

Quality Assessments

b)

Quality Assurance

c)

Quality System

d)

Trend Analysis.

5.

(006) Which Quality Assurance (QA) essential element collects, compiles, analyzes, and records data on the processes sampled by QA personnel?

a)

Trend analysis

b)

Quality System

c)

Quality Assessments

d)

Managerial Assessments

6.

(008) What automated information system manages the entire lifecycle of information technology(IT) assets from procurement through retirement?

a)

Remedy

b)

Training Business Area

c)

Telephone Management System

d)

Integrated Maintenance Data System

7.

(010) When Air National Guard personnel in Title 32 status train for cyber operations, what titlestatus must they be in to execute those missions?

a)

Title 10

b)

Title 30

c)

Title 50

d)

Title 52

8.

(010) An employee or employer relationship that leads to the appearance of impartiality or favoritism is an unethical situation known as

a)

Misuse of position

b)

Covered relationships

c)

Con-public information

d)

Personal conflict of interest

9.

(011) What cyberspace weapon system resulted from an operational initiative to consolidate numerous major command (MAJCOM) specific stove-piped networks into a centrally managed and controlled network under three Integrated Network Operations and Security Centers (I-NOSC)?

a)

Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System

b)

Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System

c)

Air Force Cyber Security and Control System

d)

Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System

10.

(011) What cyberspace weapon system is the top-level boundary and entry point into the AirForce Information Network (AFIN)?

a)

Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System

b)

Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System

c)

Air Force Cyber Security and Control System

d)

Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System

11.

(011) Proactive defense is one of the four integrated sub-disciplines of what cyberspace defense weapon system?

a)

Air Force Intranet Control Weapon System

b)

Air Force Cyber Security and Control System

c)

Air Force Cyberspace Defense Weapon System

d)

Air Force Cyber Command and Control Mission System

12.

(012) Since Military Information Support Operations (MISO) and Public Affairs (PA) share a common specific audience, which activities are designed to mislead?

a)

Counterintelligence (CI)

b)

Operation Security (OPSEC)

c)

Military deception (MILDEC)

d)

Intelligence Surveillance and Reconnaissance (ISR)

13.

(014) What unit installs, reconstitute, and test critical C4 systems for combatant commanders anywhere at any time?

a)

644th Combat Communication Squadron

b)

85th Engineering Installation Squadron

c)

83rd Network Operations Squadron

d)

4th Expeditionary Fighter Wing

14.

(024) What Air Force publications are informational and suggest guidance that you can modify to fit the circumstances?

a)

Directive

b)

Non-directive

c)

Air Force Pamphlet (AFPAM)

d)

Air Force Policy Directive (AFPD)

15.

(024) What publications are orders issued by the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) that contain directive policy statements to initiate, govern, and/or regulate actions within specified areas of responsibility by Air Force activities?

a)

Air Force Instructions (AFI)

b)

Air Force Policy Directives (AFPD)

c)

Air Force Mission Directives (AFMD)

d)

Air Force Policy Memorandums (AFPM)

16.

(025) Which of the following does NOT describe information outlined in technical order (TO) 00–5–1?

a)

Time Compliance Technical Order (TCTO) procedures

b)

Resources required to manage and use TOs

c)

Infrastructure to manage and use TOs

d)

Training to manage and use TOs

17.

(025) What personnel oversees technical order requirements and distribution within an organization?

a)

Library custodian

b)

Technical Order Distribution Office (TODO)

c)

Technical Order Distribution Account (TODA)

d)

Non-Commissioned Officer in Charge (NCOIC)

18.

(025) Which type of technical order (TO) has a numerical designator beginning with “31” and covers topics such as basic electronics technology and testing practices?

a)

Standard Installation Practices TO (SIPTO)

b)

Operation and Maintenance TO

c)

Methods and Procedures TO

d)

General TO

19.

(201) Which publication implements the Mishap Prevention Program?

a)

Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–200

b)

AFI 91–202

c)

Air Force Manual (AFMAN) 91–200

d)

AFMAN 91–202

20.

(202) What three sub-categories make up human factors?

a)

Physiological, physical, stress

b)

Physiological, Physical, social

c)

Stress, organizational, physical

d)

Physical, physiological, organizational

21.

(202) What method is considered the least preferred when controlling hazards and should not be relied upon alone to protect against hazards.

a)

Isolating operations

b)

Providing administrative controls

c)

Use of personal protective equipment (PPE)

d)

Substitution a less hazardous material or process

22.

(203) What hazard is the greatest in the typical office?

a)

Falls

b)

Poor lighting

c)

Horseplay

d)

Poor ergonomics

23.

(203) What chapter in Air Force Instruction (AFI) 91–203, Air Force Consolidated Occupational Safety Instruction provides specific guidance on office safety?

a)

8

b)

9

c)

10

d)

11

24.

(204) Which action is not a part of risk management (RM)?

a)

Accept no unnecessary risk

b)

Make risk decisions at the appropriate level

c)

Apply the process irregularly and continuously

d)

Integrate RM into operations and planning at all levels

25.

(205) How many volumes make up the Department of Defense Architecture Framework (DODAF) specification?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

26.

(205) What requirements mandate to develop of Air Force architectures?

a)

State level

b)

Federal level

c)

Congressional level

d)

Department of Defense level

27.

(206) What three parts make up Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR)?

a)

Administrative record, historical statics, and maintenance record

b)

Administrative record, drawing record, and purchase record

c)

Administrative record, drawing record, and maintenance record

d)

Administrative record, drawing record, and outage record

28.

(206) Which part of the Communications and Information Systems Installation Record (CSIR) depicts physical layout of communications and information systems and provide engineering data?

a)

Administrative record

b)

Maintenance record

c)

Drawing record

d)

Outage record

29.

(207) What layers make up the two categories of the seven layer of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) reference model?

a)

Data Transport and Application

b)

Session and Data Transport

c)

Network and Presentation

d)

Application and Session

30.

(208) What network topology is another name for a bus topology?

a)

Star

b)

Ring

c)

Loop

d)

Linear

31.

(210) What action is the purpose of a sliding window in Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)?

a)

Request network services and pass arguments between layers

b)

Reference a location of a particular application or process on each machine

c)

Prevent network congestion by ensuring that transmitting devices do not overwhelm receiving devices data

d)

Regulate how much information passes over a TCP connection before the receiving host must send an acknowledgement

32.

(213) What action is the main purpose of system cache?

a)

Speed up system Read Only Memory (ROM)

b)

Reduce hard drive (HDD) access time to stored data

c)

Reduce central processing unit (CPU) access time to stored data

d)

Reduce Random Access Memory (RAM) access time to stored data

33.

(215) What is a peripheral device?

a)

A main internal component of a computer

b)

Not a main internal component of a computer

c)

A main component of a computer and can be either internal or external

d)

Not a main component of a computer and can be either internal or external

34.

(216) Which network is a group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line and typically share the resources of a single processor or server within a small geographic area?

a)

Local area network (LAN)

b)

Wide area network (WAN)

c)

Virtual private network (VPN)

d)

Metropolitan area network (MAN)

35.

(216) Which network uses Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA) to avoid collisions while transmitting data?

a)

Local area network (LAN)

b)

Wide area network (WAN)

c)

Metropolitan area network (MAN)

d)

Wireless local area network (WLAN)

36.

(216) Which network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?

a)

Local area network (LAN)

b)

Wide area network (WAN)

c)

Virtual private network (VPN)

d)

Metropolitan area network (MAN)

37.

(217) What year did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) ratifies the use of gigabit Ethernet (GbE)?

a)

1988

b)

1999

c)

2005

d)

2009

38.

(225) In general, how many operating system task categories are there?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

39.

(226) What Microsoft application is a software program that allows users to create a desktop database?

a)

Word

b)

Access

c)

Outlook

d)

PowerPoint

40.

(227) What information system (IS) threat is the greatest threat to an organization’s mission critical information via its communications and ISs?

a)

Malware

b)

Denial of service attacks

c)

Inadvertent employee activity

d)

Hostile information operations

41.

(228) Which computer system vulnerability is not one in a computer system?

a)

Attacker’s capability to exploit the flaw

b)

System’s susceptibility to a flaw

c)

Attacker’s access to the flaw

d)

Attacker’s lack of ability

42.

(228) Which computer software is designed to collect personal information about users without their informed consent?

a)

Malware

b)

Spyware

c)

Adware

d)

Trojans

43.

(228) Which incidents occur when a higher classification level of data transfers to a lower classification level system via a messaging system?

a)

Classified message incident

b)

Eavesdropping

c)

Data Spillage

d)

Backdoor

44.

(229) Which classified document markings identifies the highest level of classification?

a)

Banner Lines

b)

Portion Marks

c)

Component and office

d)

Classification authority

45.

(229) Which classified document marking appears on the face of each classified United States document and shall indicate the authority for the classification determination and the duration of the classification?

a)

Banner Lines

b)

Portion Marks

c)

Component and office

d)

Classification authority

46.

(230) How would you determine if an intrusion detection system is required or another supplemental control is sufficient?

a)

General Service Administration (GSA) makes that determination

b)

Office of Special Investigation (OSI) makes that determination

c)

Wing information office makes that determination

d)

By competing a risk assessment

47.

(231) Who should you seek out if you need information on transporting Top Secret information?

a)

Classified Information Program Manager

b)

Information Assurance Officer

c)

Security Manager

d)

Supervisor

48.

(231) Who has the authority a grant permission to ship classified materials on Friday - Sunday?

a)

Classified Information Program Manager

b)

Information Assurance Officer

c)

Security Manager

d)

Supervisor

49.

(232) What system includes all owned and leased communications and computing systems and services, software, data, security services, and other associated services necessary to achieve information superiority?

a)

Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN)

b)

Defense Information Systems Network (DISN)

c)

Air Force Information Network (AFIN)

d)

Defense Intelligence Network (DIN)

50.

(232) Which of the following services provides additional communications capacity by using manned and unmanned systems to host communications packages for continuous communications coverage of large geographic areas?

a)

Transport

b)

Application

c)

Aerial layer

d)

Satellite communication (SATCOM)

51.

(236) What major program does the Global Combat Support System-Air Force (GCSS-AF) provides as a single point of reference for services and information for Air Force personnel?

a)

Air Force Portal

b)

IMDS

c)

Advanced Distributed Learning Service (ADLS)

d)

Electronic-publications (E-pub)

52.

(237) Which system is the Air Forces’ primary intelligence, surveillance and reconnaissance (ISR) collection, processing, exploitation, analysis and dissemination system?

a)

Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F)

b)

Global Combat Support System (GCSS)

c)

Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS)

d)

Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS)

53.

(238) Which system is a radar Tracker/Correlator software program hosted on a powerful server-based computer system that takes inputs from long range and short-range radars and displays it all on a scope?

a)

Battle Control System-Fixed (BCS-F)

b)

Global Combat Support System (GCSS)

c)

Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS)

d)

Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS)

54.

(240) What system is the priority component of the Department of Defense Information Network (DODIN) that directly supports the president, secretary of defense, and the Joint Chiefs of Staff in the exercise of their responsibilities?

a)

Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS)

b)

Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS)

c)

National Military Command Center (NMCC)

d)

Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS)

55.

(241) What system provides a secure communications path for command and control information in support of the Air Force’s strategic aircraft and missile functions?

a)

Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS)

b)

Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS)

c)

Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS)

d)

Global Combat Support System (GCSS)

56.

(242) What system mission is to provide reliable, rapid, two-way communications between air-, land-, and sea-based users?

a)

Strategic Automated Command and Control System (SACCS)

b)

Distributed Common Ground Station (DCGS)

c)

Global High Frequency Network (HF-GCS)

d)

Global Combat Support System (GCSS)