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Patho Exam 2

Total questions: 69

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A 54-year-old male complains that he has been vomiting blood. Tests reveal portal hypertension. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his condition?

a)

Thrombosis in the spleen

b)

Cirrhosis of the liver

c)

Left ventricular failure

d)

Renal stenosis

2.

Acute pancreatitis often manifests with pain to which of the following regions?

a)

Right lower quadrant

b)

Right upper quadrant

c)

Epigastric

d)

Suprapubic

3.

A public health nurse is teaching the community about health promotion. Which information should the nurse include for innate immunity? Innate immunity is gained:

a)

Following an illness

b)

At birth

c)

Via injection of specific antibodies

d)

In adulthood

4.

Biochemical secretions that trap and kill microorganisms include:

a)

Hormones

b)

Neurotransmitters

c)

Earwax

d)

Gastric acid

5.

A 25-year-old female presents to her primary care provider reporting vaginal discharge of a white, viscous, and foul-smelling substance. She reports that she has been taking antibiotics for the past 6 months. Which finding will the nurse most likely see on the microorganism report?

a)

Clostridium difficile overgrowth

b)

Decreased Lactobacillus

c)

Streptococcus overgrowth

d)

Decreased Candida albicans

6.

A 20-year-old male received a knife wound to the arm during an altercation. Which of the following types of immunity was compromised?

a)

Inflammatory response

b)

Adaptive immunity

c)

Specific immunity

d)

Innate immunity

7.

A nurse recalls the mast cell, a major activator of inflammation, initiates the inflammatory response through the process of:

a)

Chemotaxis

b)

Endocytosis

c)

Degranulation

d)

Opsonization

8.

The predominant phagocyte of early inflammation is the:

a)

Eosinophil

b)

Neutrophil

c)

Lymphocyte

d)

Macrophage

9.

A 29-year-old male takes a NSAID for a tension headache. The nurse recalls that NSAIDs relieve pain from headache by:

a)

decreasing leukotriene production.

b)

increasing platelet-activating factor

c)

increasing histamine release

d)

decreasing prostaglandin production

10.

What is the primary function of bradykinin regarding inflammation?

a)

Bradykinin is involved in stimulating the clotting system.

b)

Bradykinin is involved in vasoconstriction of blood vessels.

c)

Bradykinin is involved in increasing vascular permeability.

d)

Bradykinin is involved in increasing degradation of prostaglandins.

11.

A 10-year-old female is diagnosed with a parasitic infection. Which lab result would the nurse expect to be elevated in response to the parasite?

a)

Neutrophils

b)

Eosinophils

c)

Basophils

d)

Monocytes

e)

Lymphocytes

12.

A patient comes in with strep throat. Which is the most active against the infection?

a)

neutrophil

b)

eosinophil

c)

lymphocyte

d)

monocyte

13.

A patient comes in and is diagnosed with Influenza A. What is the most active in fighting against her infection?

a)

neutrophil

b)

lymphocyte

c)

macrophage

d)

eosinophil

14.

An infant develops a fever secondary to a bacterial infection. Which of the following most likely triggered the fever?

a)

Plasmin

b)

Histamine

c)

Interferons (IFNs)

d)

Interleukin-1

15.

A 35-year-old male is diagnosed with lobar pneumonia (lung infection). Which of the following exudates would be present in highest concentration at the site of this advanced inflammatory response?

a)

Fibrinous

b)

Hemorrhagic

c)

Serous

d)

Purulent

16.

A 7 year old patient comes in with a heat rash. How would you describe the clear, fluid in the blisters and papules?

a)

fibrinous

b)

serous

c)

purulent

d)

hemorrhagic

17.

A teenager goes into a dermatology office due to their severe acne. How can the nurse describe the exudate from the acne?

a)

fibrinous

b)

serous

c)

purulent

d)

hemorrhagic

18.

A 30-year-old male was involved in a motor vehicle accident (MVC). The glass from the shattered window cut his face and neck. The scar, however, was raised and extended beyond the original boundaries of the wound. This pattern of scarring is caused by impaired:

a)

contracture

b)

epithelialization

c)

collagen synthesis

d)

nutritional status

19.

Which is the most abundant class of antibody in the serum?

a)

IgM

b)

IgD

c)

IgG

d)

IgA

20.

The predominant antibody of a typical primary immune response is:

a)

IgD

b)

IgE

c)

IgA

d)

IgM

21.

A patient has a disease state that results from the secretion of toxins by bacteria. Which medical diagnosis will the nurse see documented on the chart?

a)

Hepatitis

b)

Malaria

c)

Smallpox

d)

Tetanus

22.

A 25-year-old female has sexual relations with her boyfriend. Later she is told that her boyfriend is infected with Neisseria gonorrhoeae. Testing reveals that she does not have the disease. How is it possible that she did not contract the disease?

a)

Platelets provided protection.

b)

Antibodies covered sites of attachment

c)

She was vaccinated against it.

d)

IgE was released.

23.

When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what type of immune reaction occurs?

a)

Allergic

b)

Autoimmune

c)

Anaphylaxis

d)

Alloimmune

24.

A patient present with poison ivy on the extremities, face, and buttock after an initial exposure 48 hours ago. This condition is an example of:

a)

anaphylaxis

b)

viral disease

c)

delayed hypersensitivity

d)

serum sickness

25.

A 23-year-old patient with a nut allergy begins to complain about itching, pain, swelling, redness, and respiratory difficulties immediately after he begins to eat his hospital lunch. He is suffering from:

a)

immunodeficiency

b)

tissue-specific hypersensitivity

c)

autoimmunity

d)

anaphylaxis

26.

A 45-year-old male complains of heartburn after eating and difficulty swallowing. He probably has:

a)

Pyloric stenosis

b)

Gastric cancer

c)

Achalasia

d)

Hiatal hernia

27.

The cardinal sign of pyloric stenosis caused by ulceration or tumors is:

a)

Constipation

b)

Diarrhea

c)

Vomiting

d)

Heartburn

28.

A mother brings her 2-week-old infant to the pediatrician because he vomits forcefully for no apparent reason and food sometimes is regurgitated as though undigested. The infant is most likely suffering from:

a)

Pyloric stenosis

b)

Meconium ileus

c)

Esophageal atresia

d)

Galactosemia

29.

The most common disorder associated with upper GI bleeding is:

a)

Diverticulosis

b)

Hemorrhoids

c)

Esophageal varices

d)

Cancer

30.

A 54-year-old male is diagnosed with peptic ulcer disease. This condition is most likely caused by:

a)

Hereditary hormonal imbalances with high gastrin levels

b)

Breaks in the mucosa and presence of corrosive secretions

c)

Decreased vagal activity and vascular engorgement

d)

Gastric erosions related to high ammonia levels and bile reflux

31.

A 22-year-old male underwent brain surgery to remove a tumor. Following surgery, he experienced a peptic ulcer. His ulcer is referred to as a(n) _____ ulcer.

a)

Infectious

b)

Cushing

c)

Ischemic

d)

Curling

32.

Which of the following is the most common peptic ulcer and is caused by H. pylori infection? It can be intermittent pain but relieved by eating food or antacids

a)

Duodenal ulcers

b)

Gastric ulcers

33.

A nurse is giving an example of inflammation as an etiology for cancer development. What is the best example the nurse should give?

a)

Pneumonia and lung cancer

b)

Ulcerative colitis and colon cancer

c)

Prostatic hypertrophy and prostate cancer

d)

Hypercholesteremia and leukemia

34.

A 50-year-old male complains of frequently recurring abdominal pain, diarrhea, and bloody stools. A possible diagnosis would be:

a)

Ulcerative colitis

b)

Hiatal hernia

c)

Pyloric obstruction

d)

Achalasia

35.

Which of the following symptoms would help a health care provider distinguish between ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease?

a)

Abdominal pain

b)

Pattern of remission/exacerbations

c)

Diarrhea

d)

Malabsorption

36.

The nurse is reviewing the lab data of a newly admitted patient. The nurse notes the patient had an erythrocyte sedimendation rate (ESR) done, and the results are quite elevated. The nurse would focus the care plan on which of the following conditions

a)

inflammation

b)

infection

c)

Electrolyte imbalance

d)

Anemia

37.

Complete the statement. Fungi causing deep or systemic infections:

a)

are extremely rare.

b)

are easily treated with penicillin.

c)

are commonly opportunistic.

d)

never occur with other infections.

38.

The nurse is teaching the parents of a patient about vaccination. The nurse explains that most viral vaccines contain:

a)

attenuated viruses.

b)

viral toxins.

c)

killed viruses.

d)

active viruses.

39.

A nurse recalls bacteria become resistant to antimicrobials by:

a)

specialization.

b)

attenuation.

c)

proliferation.

d)

mutation.

40.

A 22-year-old was recently diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which decreased lab finding would be expected to accompany this diagnosis?

a)

CDC cells

b)

CD8+ T-helper

c)

CD4+ T-helper

d)

CDC 10 cells

41.

An infant is experiencing hemolytic disease of the newborn. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in the infant's history and physical?

a)

The father was exposed to Agent Orange.

b)

The baby is Rh positive.

c)

The mother was exposed to measles.

d)

The baby was born 6 weeks or more prematurely.

42.

Exhaustion occurs if stress continues and __________ is not successful.

a)

adaptation

b)

flight or fight response

c)

alarm

d)

arousal

43.

The nursing student walks into lab and finds out that there is an unannounced exam. Which physiological response would be expected?

a)

Bronchoconstriction

b)

Decrease lipolysis

c)

Increased glucagon release

d)

Decreased cortisol release

44.

A 35-year-old male is diagnosed with hormone secreting tumor of the adrenal medulla. He experiences elevated blood pressure and increased anxiety. Which of the following hormones is the predominant one released by the tumor?

a)

Cortisol

b)

Antiduretic hormone

c)

Acetylcholine

d)

Norepinephrine

45.

A nurse recalls that stress-induced stimulation of the adrenal cortex causes it to secrete:

a)

parathyroid hormone.

b)

cortisol.

c)

estrogen.

d)

adrenocorticotropin hormone (ACTH)

46.

When a patient is diagnosed with a hormone-secreting tumor of the adrenal cortex, which physiological response would be expected?

a)

increased lipogenesis of extremities

b)

Decreased blood pressure

c)

Decreased gastric secretions

d)

increased incidence of gastric ulcers

47.

A 23-year-old male reports a rash and pruritus. An increase in _____ is associated with pruritus?

a)

Substance P

b)

Norepinephrine

c)

Dopamine

d)

Acetylcholine

48.

What are the pathway is most commonly used to transmit impulses of chronic pain?

a)

efferent fibers

b)

nociceptors

c)

unmyelinated C fibers

d)

myelinated A delta fibers

49.

To promote efficient wound healing, which dressing should be applied to a superficial ulcer?

a)

bulky and dry

b)

Thick and dry

c)

Flat and moist

d)

thick and moist

50.

A 50-year-old male recently underwent a liver transplant and is taking immunosuppressive drugs. He no has painful vesicular eruptions on the face and trunk. He reports that he had chickenpox as a child. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a)

Poliomyelitis

b)

Herpes zoster

c)

Erysipelas

d)

Warts

51.

A 20-year-old female presents with vaginal pruritus and thin-walled pustular lesions and is diagnosed with candidiasis. This condition is caused by a:

a)

parasite

b)

bacteria

c)

virus

d)

yeast-like fungus

52.

The nurse is caring for a patient with burns through all of the dermis with only a few epidermal appendages intact. What is this burn classified as?

a)

first degree

b)

third degree

c)

superficial partial-thickness

d)

deep partial-thickness

53.

Which process would be expected in the first 24 hours following a serious burn?

a)

Increased capillary permeability

b)

Diuresis

c)

Decreased levels of stress hormones

d)

Fluid overload

54.

A 14-year-old male presents with severe acne. Which of the following promotes acne development?

a)

Estrogens

b)

Androgens

c)

Glucocorticoids

d)

Gonadotropins

55.

What is the medical term for ringworm?

a)

impetigo

b)

psoriasis

c)

thrush

d)

tinea corporis

56.

A 10-year-old presents with vesicles and is diagnosed with vesicular impetigo. What is the most likely cause of the patient's condition?

a)

Human papillomavirus (HPV)

b)

Herpes virus

c)

Streptococcus pyogenes

d)

Candida albicans

57.

The nurse is caring for a patient hospitalized with a bacterial infection. The patient has a fever of 102.4. What mediator was responsible for releasing pyrogens into the circulation causing the fever?

a)

Interleukin-1

b)

Interferons

c)

Neutrophils

d)

B-Cells

58.

A 3-year-old boy who attends daycare regularly presents to his primary care provider with a rash. He is diagnosed with scabies infection. His mother wants to know why how he got this infection. The nurse identifies what as a major risk factor for infection with scabies?

a)

The patient is a boy.

b)

He got the infection from animals he cam into contact with.

c)

He attends daycare regularly.

d)

He must live in unsanitary conditions.

59.

What is the most common disorder associated with upper GI bleeding?

a)

esophageal varices

b)

hemorrhoids

c)

stomach cancer

d)

diverticulosis

60.

A 50-year-old is diagnosed with gastroesophageal reflux. What is the most likely cause of this condition?

a)

reverse peristalsis of the stomach

b)

sympathetic nerve stimulation

c)

fibrosis of the lower third of the esophagus

d)

loss of muscle tone at the lower esophageal sphincter

61.

What is the cause of peptic ulcer disease?

a)

Breaks in the mucosa and presence of corrosive secretions

b)

Hereditary hormonal imbalance with high gastrin levels

c)

gastric erosion related to high ammonia levels and bile reflux

d)

Decreased vagal activity and vacular engorgement

62.

A 19-year-old presents with abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant. Physical examination reveals rebound tenderness and a low-grade fever. What would the nurse suspect the most likely diagnosis to be

a)

appendicitis

b)

pancreatitis

c)

Colon cancer

d)

diverticulitis

63.

_________ is manifested by abdominal pain that is dull, boring, and steady and may radiate directly through the abdomen to the back and nausea and vomiting, anorexia, and diarrhea.

a)

Appendicitis

b)

Pancreatitis

c)

Colon cancer

d)

diverticulitis

64.

Manifestations associated with hepatic encepalopathy from chronic liver disease are the result of:

a)

hyperbilirubinemia and jaundice.

b)

impaired ammonia metabolism.

c)

fluid and electrolyte imbalances.

d)

decreased cerebral blood flow.

65.

In alcoholic cirrhosis, hepatocellular damage is caused by:

a)

acidosis.

b)

acetaldehyde accumulation.

c)

fatty infiltrations.

d)

bile toxicity.

66.

Cholecystitis is inflammation of the gallbladder wall usually caused by:

a)

viral infection of the gallbladder.

b)

accumulation of fat in the wall of the gallbladder.

c)

obstruction of the cystic duct by a gallstone.

d)

accumulation of bile in the hepatic duct.

67.

Acute pancreatitis often manifests with pain to which of the following regions?

a)

Right upper quadrant

b)

Suprapubic

c)

Right lower quadrant

d)

Epigastric

68.

When a newborn has a lack of bilirubin uptake, what does the nurse suspect is occurring in the patient?

a)

Physiologic jaundice

b)

Biliary hypertrophy

c)

Hepatitis A

d)

Infantile cirrhosis

69.

Outbreaks of hepatitis _______ often occur in young children attending daycare centers and can be attributed to poor handwashing.

a)

D

b)

B

c)

C

d)

A