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WorksheetsQ3 review
Total questions: 216
Worksheet time: 5hrs 13mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Carmen conducted an experiment to determine if listening to different types of music would affect a person’s pulse. Her hypothesis was that pulse rate would change with different types of music. Each person listened to seven different selections of music for 30 seconds each. Each person’s pulse was taken before the music and then after each 30-second interval of music. The pulses were taken again after the music selections were completed. Based on her experiment, Carmen concluded that a person’s pulse rate changed when the person listened to different types of music. What is Carmen missing from her experiment?
a)
a question
b)
a hypothesis
c)
a control group
d)
a description of the experiement
2.
If a company claims that its product has been proven scientifically, which of the following should have taken place if the results are to be considered?
a)
The company should have held discussions with leading industry scientists.
b)
Technology should have been used in both the gathering of data and data analysis.
c)
Results should have been peer reviewed and repeated producing the same findings
d)
The results of the investigation should have been published in popular magazines
3.
A student conducting an investigation to determine the effect of temperature on the metabolism of yeast. Yeast and sugar are added to water, the gas produced is captured, and its volume is recorded. Which variables should be held constant during this investigation?
a)
Mass of sugar and water temperature
b)
Mass of yeast and mass of sugar
c)
Volume of gas and water temperature
d)
Volume of gas and mass of yeast
4.
Michael wants to test the effect that different concentrations of stomach acid will have on the dissolution of a particular kind of oral medication. As he sets up and completes his experiment, which of the following experimental designs would be most likely to help him answer his question?
a)
Allow several pills to soak in different amounts of acid of a single concentration and then measure the amount of dissolution on each.
b)
Prepare solutions of different acid concentrations, measure 50 mililiters of each into different beakers, and place the same type of pill of the same mass into the beakers.
c)
After allowing a pill to be exposed to one acid concentration, place it in different acid concentrations, and then measure the surface area that is dissolved.
d)
Prepare solutions of different acid concentrations, measure 50 milliliters of each into different beakers, and place different types of pills of the same mass into the beakers.
5.
A scientist wanted to find out if the height of a shrub would make it more prone to frost damage. He found a hillside covered with shrubs and trimmed all the shrubs located at the bottom to one meter tall. He left the shrubs growing at the top of the hill untrimmed. They ranged from one to three meters tall. After a heavy frost, he found that 90% of the shorter shrubs had frost damage while only 10% of the tall shrubs did. He concluded that short shrubs were more likely to suffer frost damage than tall shrubs. When he submits his research report for review by other scientists, which of the following are they likely to criticize about his experiment?
a)
His hypothesis that shrub height might influence frost damage is not a question worth testing.
b)
His conclusion is inaccurate because the location of the shrubs on the hillside might also have contributed to where frost damage occurred.
c)
His methods of recording frost damage must have been biased toward tall shrubs since there was such a large difference in frost damage.
d)
His results are not valid because he had some shrubs in the tall group that were close to each other.
6.
When experimenting with the growth of a plant, a scientist uses three (of the same type of) plants, two different fertilizers, equal light, and equal water. What type of variable is the fertilizer?
a)
Dependent
b)
Independent
c)
Control
d)
Constant
7.
After concluding the results of a test, a scientist might next:
a)
Make an observation
b)
Share information by publishing in a scientific journal
c)
Retest
d)
Analyze more data
8.
Should experiments be repeated over and over to see if the results are the same each time?
a)
yes
b)
no
9.
In an investigation into the uptake of a protein by cells, scientists immersed two cell types in solutions of this protein. The investigation was carried out at two different temperatures and the percentage of the protein taken up by the two cell types was recorded over 10 minutes. The data was presented in a table, as shown above. Which one of the following conclusions is supported by the data?
a)
The rate of uptake of this protein at 25 °C is not affected by cell type.
b)
The percentage of this protein taken up by Cell type 1 is not affected by temperature.
c)
The rate of uptake of this protein by Cell type 2 is faster at 37 °C than at 25 °C.
d)
If the experiment continued for another 10 minutes, the percentage of this protein taken up by Cell type 1 would increase.
10.
What is the general order of the steps of the scientific methods:
a)
question, experiment, hypothesis, analyze, results, conclusion, communicate results.
b)
question, hypothesis, experiment, analyze results, conclusion, communicate results
c)
question, hypothesis, experiment, analyze results, communicate results, conclusion
d)
all of the above
11.
Members of a species in a defined area
a)
Ecosystem
b)
community
c)
biodiversity
d)
population
12.
Consumer that eats plants
a)
heterotroph
b)
herbivore
c)
producer
d)
community
13.
Series of steps in which organisms transfer energy by eating and being eaten
a)
foodweb
b)
consumer
c)
food chain
d)
omnivore
14.
Organisms that relies on other organisms for food; consumer
a)
herbivore
b)
decomposer
c)
heterotroph
d)
species
15.
All the organisms in a particular location, including their nonliving environment
a)
ecosystem
b)
carnivore
c)
niche
d)
population
16.
What does fungi do to dead plants and animals?
a)
Leave them there
b)
Decompose them
c)
Wait for other animals to eat them
d)
Move away
17.
What may happen if the snowshoe hare was removed from the food web pictured?
a)
The insects in the habitat would increase.
b)
The shrew population would decrease due to being only hawk food source.
c)
The willow tree population would decrease.
d)
Foxes would dies due to no food source.
18.
In the energy pyramid here, how much of the energy in the producers gets passed to the herbivores?
a)
10%
b)
20%
c)
80%
d)
90%
19.
Which of the following leads to a decrease in biodiversity?
a)
protection of ecosystems
b)
pollution control
c)
selective cutting
d)
introduction of exotic or invasive species
20.
A carbon "sink" is best described as:
a)
a reservoir that readily releases carbon to another reservoir
b)
a carbon reservoir that stores more carbon that it is releasing
c)
something that causes carbon to leak out to the atmosphere
d)
a carbon reservoir that is releasing more carbon than it is taking in
21.
Nitrogen fixation processes nitrogen from which of the following sources?
a)
lightning
b)
fertilizers
c)
dead plants
d)
atmosphere
22.
What is it called when water is changed from a liquid to a gas?
a)
EVAPORATION
b)
PRECIPITATION
c)
TRANSPIRATION
23.
In the food web shown, the snail would be considered...
a)
primary consumer
b)
secondary consumer
c)
tertiary consumer
d)
producer
24.
Which biome, because of its climate and amount of rainfall, has the largest number of species of plants and animals?
a)
Tundra
b)
Rainforest
c)
Desert
d)
Pineforest
25.
Select the correct functions of the cardio-vascular system
a)
Transport of nutrients
b)
Regulation of temperature
c)
Regulation of breathing
d)
Clotting of wounds
26.
Identify the incorrect element of the cardio-vascular system
a)
Heart
b)
Lungs
c)
Blood
d)
Blood Vessels
27.
How many blood vessel types are there
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
28.
Identify the vessel which enables diffusion of oxygen in to the working muscle
a)
Artery
b)
Capillary
c)
Vein
d)
Alveoli
29.
Arteries carry blood to the heart
a)
True
b)
False
30.
The pulmonary artery takes blood away from the heart to the lungs, the blood in this artery is...
a)
...oxygenated
b)
...deoxygenated
31.
During exercise _______________ blood travels to the working muscles
a)
Oxygenated
b)
Deoxygenated
c)
Red
d)
Blue
32.
Select the vessel which has a thick muscular wall and small lumen
a)
Artery
b)
Vein
c)
Capillary
d)
Alveoli
33.
The internal diameter of a blood vessel is called...
a)
...the blood passage way
b)
...the inside of the vessel
c)
...the measurement of a vessel
d)
...the lumen
34.
Vascular shunting involves the process of...
a)
Vaso-constriction which directs blood to resting muscles
b)
Vaso-dilation thus reducing the lumen diameter
c)
Vaso-constrction that reduces blood flow to working muscles
d)
Vaso-dilation which increases the blood flow to working muscles
35.
The heart has how many chambers
a)
2
b)
4
c)
5
d)
6
36.
The right atrium contains deoxygenated blood from the body
a)
True
b)
False
37.
Select the correct name for the structure which separates the right and left side of the heart
a)
Septum
b)
Ventricle
c)
Valve
d)
Aorta
38.
There are three valves located in the heart, what is the function of each valve
a)
To prevent oxygenated and deoxygenated blood from mixing
b)
To stop oxygenated blood from becoming cold
c)
To stop air entering the heart
d)
To prevent the back-flow of blood
39.
Select the correct parts of the heart
a)
Aorta
b)
Tricuspid Valve
c)
Bicuspid Valve
d)
Superior Vena Cava
e)
Semi-lunar Valve
40.
Which number is the vena cava?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
8
41.
Which number is the pulmonary artery?
a)
4
b)
5
c)
6
d)
8
42.
Where is the blood in 3 coming from?
a)
All over the body
b)
The upper half of the body, head and arms
c)
The lower half of the body, legs and abdomen
d)
The lungs
43.
The two chambers of the heart which receive blood are known as the _________
a)
atria
b)
ventricles
c)
systemics
d)
pulmonic
44.
Blood leaves the right ventricle through the ___________.
a)
pulmonary artery
b)
aorta
c)
superior vena cava
d)
right atrium
45.
What does letter D represent?
a)
aorta
b)
left atrium
c)
left ventricle
d)
right atrium
46.
What does letter B represent?
a)
aorta
b)
superior vena cava
c)
inferior vena cava
d)
right pulmonary artery
47.
Which valve is letter X?
a)
aortic
b)
bicuspid
c)
tricuspid
d)
pulmonary
48.
Freshly oxygenated blood is delivered to the _____________ and then it passes into the __________ to be pumped to the entire body.
a)
right ventricle; right atrium
b)
left ventricle; left atrium
c)
left atrium; left ventricle
d)
right atrium; right ventricle
49.
Your body responds to pathogens by generating a fever. This is used to fight off the bacteria and is an example of what kind of feedback?
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
c)
Neutral
d)
Constructive
50.
Which of the following is not apart of your body’s first line of defense?
a)
Skin
b)
Mucus
c)
Stomach Acid
d)
Antibodies
51.
Example of 3rd line of defense.
a)
T cells and B cells reacting to pathogens
b)
Phagocytes white blood cells engulfing pathogens
c)
Stomach acid killing pathogens
d)
Mucus catching pathogens
52.
The part of foreign materials that cause a response from the immune system are called _____________________.
a)
Antigens
b)
Active Immunity
c)
Antibodies
d)
Antibiotics
53.
Antigens are part of...
a)
Your own immune system.
b)
The pathogen.
54.
The body detects pathogens by their...
a)
Antigens
b)
Antibodies
c)
Histamines
d)
DNA
55.
A nonspecific defensive response of the body to tissue injury characterized by dilation of blood vessels and swelling.
a)
immunity
b)
interferon
c)
immunization
d)
inflammation
56.
The diagram below shows a cell in the human body engulfing a bacterial cell.
The cell labeled X is most likely a
a)
red blood cell
b)
white blood cell
c)
liver cell
d)
nerve cell
57.
Which pathogen is only one cell big?
a)
virus
b)
bacteria
c)
fungus
d)
parasite/protist
58.
Disease-causing microorganism, such as a bacterium or virus.
a)
pathogen
b)
allergen
c)
prion
d)
antigen
59.
what does HIV do to our immune system?
a)
It makes our immune system more stronger
b)
It attacks red blood cells
c)
It attacks our brain to stop working
d)
It attacks our white blood cells and weakens our immune system to the point where our body cannot fight pathogens
60.
What is the body's first line of defense against infection by foreign organisms?
a)
antibodies
b)
lymph nodes
c)
white blood cells
d)
the skin
61.
Antibiotics work against most
a)
Bacteria
b)
Bacteria & Viruses
c)
Vaccines
d)
Viruses
62.
What type of microbe is used in a vaccine?
a)
it doesn't really matter
b)
a damaged one
c)
a weakened or inactivated one
d)
a normal one
63.
Some examples of external defenses are...
a)
Skin
b)
Mucus
c)
Inflammation
d)
Saliva
e)
Sweat
64.
Viruses are not considered living organisms even though they have several characteristics of living things. What is the reason viruses are not considered alive?
a)
They are too small.
b)
A virus is a living organism.
c)
They need a host to reproduce.
d)
Viruses do not have DNA/genetic material.
65.
What is the role of a B cell?
a)
Kills pathogens
b)
Helps activate other immune cells
c)
Produces antibodies
d)
Binds to antigens
66.
Like all other body systems, the immune system helps the body maintain homeostasis. Which statement best describes how the immune system does this?
a)
it protects other organs and tissues from infection and disease
b)
it breaks down food to provide cells with nutrients
c)
it gathers information through the senses and controls all other body systems
d)
it transports oxygen and carbon dioxide
67.
Two __________ make up a gene.
a)
chromosomes
b)
alleles
c)
eggs
d)
sperm
68.
This type of reproduction involves two parents.
a)
Asexual reproduction
b)
Sexual reproduction
69.
Which answer choice is NOT a type of asexual reproduction?
a)
budding
b)
fragmentation
c)
fertilization
d)
binary fission
70.
Which organisms reproduce by binary fission where one single cell splits into two identical cells?
a)
starfish and flatworm
b)
giraffe and zebra
c)
bacteria and amoeba
d)
spider plant and strawberry plant
71.
Which type of reproduction produces an identical copy of the parent?
a)
Sexual reproduction
b)
Asexual reproduction
72.
What is the purpose of MITOSIS?
a)
to create sex cells
b)
to kill off body cells
c)
to repair or replace body cells
73.
Which statement does NOT describe asexual reproduction?
a)
takes a short amount of time
b)
provides genetic variation - all offspring are different
c)
no mate required in order to reproduce
d)
provides no genetic variation - all offspring are the same
74.
Which statement describes meiosis?
a)
creates 4 unique cells from a parent cell
b)
used for healing and growing
c)
creates 2 identical daughter cells
75.
In sexual reproduction, how much DNA is given by each parent?
a)
10%
b)
30%
c)
100%
d)
50%
76.
Environmental conditions determine the reproductive success of a species because they possess...
a)
an extra chromosome that allows them to survive
b)
a trait that allows them an advantage in that environment
77.
What part of the microscope is 3?
a)
revolving nosepiece
b)
body tube
c)
objective lens
78.
What part of the microscope is 7?
a)
diaphragm
b)
stage
c)
base
79.
What part of the microscope is 8?
a)
diaphragm
b)
base
c)
light source
80.
What part of the microscope is 9?
a)
stage
b)
body tube
c)
ocular lens (eyepiece)
81.
What part of the microscope is 10?
a)
arm
b)
stage
c)
base
82.
What part of the microscope is 11?
a)
arm
b)
stage
c)
base
83.
What part of the microscope is 12?
a)
coarse adjustment knob
b)
fine adjustment knob
c)
revolving nosepiece
84.
What part of the microscope is 13?
a)
coarse adjustment knob
b)
fine adjustment know
c)
revolving nosepiece
85.
What part of the microscope moves the stage up and down?
a)
fine adjustment knob
b)
coarse adjustment know
c)
arm
86.
What keeps a specimen slide in place?
a)
arm
b)
body tube
c)
stage clips
87.
Which invention from the 17th century allowed for the development of modern cell theory?
a)
x-rays
b)
computers
c)
the light microscope
d)
the scanning electron microscope
88.
Cell theory was first proposed in 1838. Evidence obtained through additional scientific investigations resulted in the current cell theory. Which statement describes a component of the original cell theory that was removed because of the new scientific knowledge?
a)
All living things are made of cells.
b)
All cells come from other preexisting cells.
c)
Cells form through spontaneous generation.
d)
Cells are the basic structural and functional units of life.
89.
Cells are the basic structural and functional units of life.
a)
Plants have cells but animals do not.
b)
They are both made of one or more cells.
c)
They both come from the same kind of cell.
d)
They both come from a non-living organism.
90.
The combined observations of Mattias Schleiden, Theodor Schwann and Rudolph Virchow resulted in the formation of the cell theory. Which of the following is not part of the cell theory?
a)
All cells contain a nucleus.
b)
All cells come from other living cells.
c)
All living organisms are made of one or more cells
d)
Cells are the basic unit of structure and function of all living things.
91.
A plant and an animal are both living things. According to the Cell Theory, what can you conclude about these two very different organisms?
a)
Plants have cells but animals do not.
b)
They are both made of one or more cells.
c)
They both come from the same kind of cell.
d)
They both come from a non-living organism.
92.
Rudolph Virchow's observations helped to disprove was commonly held belief of the time?
a)
evolution
b)
the existence of molecules
c)
spontaneous generation
d)
atomic models
93.
Which of the following is NOT one of the main components of the cell theory?
a)
cells must contain DNA
b)
all living things are made of cells
c)
cells can only come from other cells
d)
cells are the basic unit of life
94.
Unlike eukaryotes, prokaryotes do not have:
a)
DNA
b)
cytoplasm
c)
cell walls
d)
a membrane bound nucleus
95.
The smallest unit that can perform the basic activities of life is
a)
a cell
b)
a tissue
c)
an organ
d)
an organism
96.
All living things are made of...
a)
atoms
b)
cells
c)
bacteria
d)
plants
97.
Where is the DNA found in a prokaryotic cell?
a)
floating around in the cytoplasm
b)
in the nucleus
98.
What type of cell has a nucleus?
a)
eukaryotic
b)
prokaryotic
99.
Under a microscope, what kind of cells lack membrane-bound internal organelles?
a)
Prokaryotes
b)
Eukaryotes
c)
Plants
d)
Animals
100.
The picture illustrates a
a)
Prokaryotic Plant Cell
b)
Prokaryotic Animal Cell
c)
Eukaryotic Plant Cell
d)
Eukaryotic Animal Cell
101.
control, read, and direct the cell using DNA instructions
a)
nucleus
b)
mitochondria
c)
endoplasmic reticulum
d)
lysosome
102.
Controls what enters/leaves a cell
a)
cell membrane
b)
Nuclear membrane
c)
cell wall
d)
cytoplasm
103.
stiff, protective outer layer of plant cells
a)
cell membrane
b)
nuclear membrane
c)
cell wall
d)
cytoplasm
104.
releases energy for cells to use, most common in animal cells
a)
mitochondria
b)
ribosomes
c)
lysosomes
d)
nucleolus
105.
Amino acids link together to form proteins. In which organelle would this process occur?
a)
Lysosome
b)
Ribosome
c)
Centriole
d)
Mitochondria
106.
collect sunlight which it converts to sugars
a)
chloroplasts
b)
cytoplasm
c)
cell wall
d)
mitochondria
107.
hold/store water, mainly found in plant cells
a)
nuclolus
b)
ribosomes
c)
golgi bodies
d)
vacuoles
108.
break down (digest) worn out cell parts, mostly in animal cells
a)
cytoplasm
b)
lysosomes
c)
mitochondria
d)
vacuoles
109.
jello-like material, fills the space between cell organelles, is where many chemical reactions occur
a)
cytoplasm
b)
chromatin
c)
chloroplast
d)
cell membrane
110.
Transportation network for the cell, moves materials around in the cell
a)
Lysosome
b)
Nuclear Membrane
c)
Endoplasmic Reticulum
d)
Centriole
111.
What am I?
a)
vacuole
b)
ribosome
c)
endoplasmic reticulum
d)
golgi apparatus
112.
What am I?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Golgi Body
c)
Mitochondrion
d)
Plasma Membrane
113.
What is the cell cycle?
a)
The gradual development of something, especially from a simple to a more complex form.
b)
The study of heredity and the variation of inherited characteristics.
c)
The branch of biology that deals with the relations of organisms to one another and to their physical surroundings.
d)
The series of events that take place in a cell leading to its division and duplication of its DNA to produce two daughter cells.
114.
Which part of the Cell Cycle takes the longest?
a)
Interphase
b)
Mitosis
c)
Prophase
d)
Cytokinesis
115.
What happens in the first part of Interphase?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Cell Growth
c)
DNA Replication
d)
Anaphase
116.
What does DNA Replication mean?
a)
DNA is made.
b)
DNA makes new cells.
c)
DNA copies itself.
d)
DNA starts the cell cycle.
117.
True or False.
After a cell goes through cytokinesis, it starts mitosis all over again.
After a cell goes through cytokinesis, it starts mitosis all over again.
a)
True
b)
False
118.
True or False.
Mitosis is a continuous process.
Mitosis is a continuous process.
a)
True
b)
False
119.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Mitosis
c)
Prophase
d)
Metaphase
120.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
121.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
Prophase
d)
Telophase
122.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Prophase
d)
Telophase
123.
What part of the cell cycle is this cell in?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Cytokinesis
124.
True or False.
Mitosis is made up of 5 phases.
Mitosis is made up of 5 phases.
a)
True
b)
False
125.
What is the longest phase in MITOSIS?
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Interphase
d)
Anaphase
126.
In what phase do the chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell?
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Metaphase
c)
Prophase
d)
Telophase
127.
In what phase does chromatin condense to form chromosomes?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Prophase
d)
Anaphase
128.
In what phase do the chromosomes get pulled apart into sister chromatid to opposite sides of the cell?
a)
Prophase
b)
Interphase
c)
Metaphase
d)
Anaphase
129.
In what phase do the organelles disperse out into the daughter cells, and the cell prepares for cytokinesis?
a)
Prophase
b)
Interphase
c)
Mitosis
d)
Telophase
130.
What can the cell cycle also be called?
a)
Cell growth
b)
DNA Replication
c)
Preparation for Mitosis
d)
Cell Divison
131.
What two elements make up water?
a)
Helium and oxygen
b)
Hydrogen and oxygen
c)
helium and carbon
d)
oxygen and carbon
132.
A insect like a water strider can skate along the top of a pond because:
a)
covalent bonds result in water cohesion
b)
hydrogen bonds result in water cohesion (surface tension)
c)
low surface tension of water
133.
What word describes when water is attracted to other substances?
a)
cohesion
b)
adhesion
c)
capillary action
d)
surface tension
134.
Attractions between the negative Oxygen atom of one water molecule and the positive Hydrogen atom of another water molecule are called
a)
Covalent bonds
b)
Ionic bonds
c)
Polar bonds
d)
Hydrogen bonds
135.
Why does ice float?
a)
As water freezes, it expands and its density decreases.
b)
As water freezes, it takes up more hydrogen from the atmosphere, causing it to have a greater buoyancy.
c)
As water freezes, air becomes trapped between the hydrogen bonds of water molecules.
d)
As water freezes, it takes up more oxygen from the atmosphere, causing it to have a greater buoyancy.
136.
Water travels up from the roots of a tree to the top because of
a)
adhesion and cohesion
b)
surface tension
c)
specific heat capacity
d)
density of water compared to ice
137.
Water droplets take a spherical shape (as pictured) because of ____________
a)
adhesion
b)
cohesion
c)
capillary action
d)
solubility
138.
A molecule with electrically charged areas is called a _______________.
a)
magnet
b)
polar molecule
c)
solution
d)
electrical molecule
139.
As you add drops of water to the surface of a coin, each drop sticks to the other water droplet because of ________________, and sticks to the penny because of ______________.
a)
adhesion, cohesion
b)
cohesion, adhesion
c)
capillary action, specific heat
d)
specific heat, capillary action
140.
Which end of the water molecule has a slightly positive charge?
a)
the oxygen end
b)
the hydrogen end
c)
both ends are slightly positive
d)
neither end is positive
141.
Water is a universal solvent because it...
a)
It can be found anywhere
b)
It freezes when it gets cold
c)
floats when frozen
d)
Dissolves most substances
142.
Ice floats when placed in a liquid water because:
a)
ice is less dense than the liquid
b)
ice is more dense than the liquid
c)
ice is soluble
d)
water is adhesive
143.
Which of the following is LEAST likely to dissolve in water?
a)
nonpolar fats and oils
b)
polar sugar molecules
c)
salt made of a positive sodium ion and a negative chloride ion
d)
all of the substances will dissolve easily in water
144.
Which statement best describes an effect of the low density of frozen water in a lake?
a)
When water freezes, it contracts,
decreasing the water level in a lake.
b)
Water in a lake freezes from the bottom up, killing most aquatic organisms.
c)
When water in a lake freezes, it floats, providing insulation for organisms below.
d)
Water removes thermal energy from the land around a lake, causing the lake to freeze.
145.
Which major macromolecule is being represented in this image?
a)
carbohydrate
b)
lipid
c)
protein
d)
nucleic acid
146.
Which of the following contains the genetic code for protein synthesis?
a)
carbohydrate
b)
lipid
c)
protein
d)
nucleic acid
147.
What type of macromolecule is being represented in this image?
a)
carbohydrate
b)
lipid
c)
protein
d)
nucleic acid
148.
Which of the following decreases the activation energy necessary to initiate the chemical change within the body?
a)
nucleotides
b)
enzymes
c)
amino acids
d)
fatty acids
149.
What are the building blocks of proteins?
a)
amino acid
b)
fatty acid
c)
nucleotide
d)
lipid
150.
What are the single sugars that are the building blocks of carbohydrates?
a)
monosaccharides
b)
disaccharides
c)
polysaccharides
d)
amino acid
151.
Why are lipids insoluble in water?
a)
lipids are polar
b)
lipids are non-polar
c)
lipids have a negative charge
d)
lipids are building blocks of protiens
152.
REVIEW: Which of the following represents a formula for a chemical compound?
a)
H2O
b)
P2
c)
C6
d)
H
153.
REVIEW: Why will salt form a solution with water but sand will not?
a)
Salt is polar, while sand is non-polar
b)
Salt is non-polar, while sand is polar
c)
Salt and sand are polar
d)
Sand is more coarse than salt
154.
Which of the four major biological macromolecules can be easily identified by the nitrogen base and phosphate found in its structure?
a)
carbohydrate
b)
lipid
c)
protein
d)
nucleic acid
155.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
156.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
157.
Which 2 molecules form the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose sugar and adenine
b)
deoxyribose sugar and a hydrogen bond
c)
deoxyribose sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose sugar and phosphate
158.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
159.
What does DNA stand for?
a)
Deoxyribonucleic acid
b)
Denitrogenous acid
c)
Deribonucleic acid
d)
Diribonucleic acid
160.
Which two scientists are accredited with correctly deducing the double helix model of DNA?
a)
Watson and Crick
b)
Wilkins and Franklin
c)
Wilkins and Crick
d)
Watson and Franklin
161.
Which 2 molecules forms the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose and adenine
b)
deoxyribose and a hydrogen bond
c)
sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose (sugar) and phosphate
162.
Cytosine always pairs with
a)
Adenine
b)
Thymine
c)
Uracil
d)
Guanine
163.
Name this structure
a)
double helix
b)
nucelotide
c)
twisted ladder
d)
hydrogen bond
164.
Which organelle is DNA usually found in?
a)
cell membrane
b)
vacuole
c)
ribosome
d)
nucleus
165.
Nucleotides are made up of a sugar, phosphate, and..?
a)
nitrogenous base
b)
nucleic acid
c)
cholesterol
d)
fatty acid
166.
The two strands of DNA are held together by:
a)
Hydrogen Bonds
b)
Phosphodiester Bonds
c)
Glycolsyl Bonds
d)
Glycosidic Linkages
167.
What is the complement to the DNA strand below:
5'-ATGCCAT-3'
5'-ATGCCAT-3'
a)
5'-TACGGTA-3'
b)
3'-TACGGTA-5'
c)
3'-ATGGCAT-5'
d)
5'-ATGGCAT-3'
168.
What is a substance called if it speeds up a chemical reaction?
a)
reusable
b)
catalyst
c)
specific
d)
fragile
169.
The graph shows how enzymes affect reactions in cells. Which statement best summarizes the information shown in the graph?
a)
Enzymes increase the energy of the reactants.
b)
Enzymes decrease the energy level of the products.
c)
Enzyme decrease the activation energy of the reaction.
d)
Enzymes reverse the direction of the reaction.
170.
Based on the graph, what is the optimal temperature for this enzyme?
a)
15oC
b)
40oC
c)
30oC
d)
35oC
171.
In the diagram, what is letter A?
a)
product
b)
substrate
c)
enzyme-substrate complex
d)
active site
172.
Enzymes are...
a)
nucleic acids
b)
proteins
c)
lipids
d)
carbohydrates
173.
Letter B...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
174.
Letter D...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
175.
Letter C...
a)
active site
b)
enzymes
c)
substrate
d)
products
176.
Letter E...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
177.
Enzymes will make a reaction go _______ and use ______ energy.
a)
faster, less
b)
faster, more
c)
slower, less
d)
slower, more
178.
What happens to an enzyme when it is denatured?
a)
Activation energy is lowered.
b)
It becomes stronger.
c)
It loses its shape.
d)
Activation energy is raised.
179.
What is it called when a sperm and egg meet?
a)
meiosis
b)
fertilization
c)
cell division
d)
mitosis
180.
Which process and type of resulting cells are represented?
a)
mitosis, gametes
b)
mitosis, body cells
c)
meiosis, gametes
d)
meiosis, body cells
181.
The chromosomes that pair up during meiosis, are called __________ chromosomes.
a)
homozygous
b)
asexual
c)
homologous
d)
genes
182.
A male shark has 40 chromosomes in each of its sex cells. How many would be present in its body cells?
a)
20
b)
40
c)
80
d)
160
183.
Which letter(s) in the diagram correspond to cells that are haploid?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
A and B
184.
Compared to the number of chromosomes contained in a body cell, how many chromosomes would normally be contained in a gamete?
a)
The same number
b)
One-fourth as many
c)
Twice as many
d)
Half as many
185.
What causes genetic variation in meiosis?
a)
chromosomes lining up
b)
crossing over of chromosomes
c)
separation of chromosomes
d)
chromosomes pulling apart
186.
What is one of the advantages, why is it better to reproduce sexually versus asexually?
a)
survival of the fittest
b)
overproduction
c)
genetic variation
d)
cloning
187.
Females have ____ and males have _____ chromosomes.
a)
XX, XY
b)
XY, XX
c)
XX, XX
d)
XY, XY
188.
A human zygote should have _____ chromosomes inside.
a)
46
b)
23
c)
92
d)
64
189.
Chromosomes exchange genetic material during
a)
crossing over
b)
replication
c)
synthesis
d)
translation
190.
Crossing over helps promote
a)
male genotype
b)
genetic variation
c)
DNA replication
d)
mitosis
191.
The steps of crossing over during meiosis are shown in the diagram. What is the significance of crossing over in Meiosis I?
a)
Crossing over ensures that the four daughter cells produced at the end of Meiosis II have the original number of chromosomes in each cell.
b)
Crossing over ensures that the two daughter cells produced at the end of Meiosis I have half the original number of chromosomes in each cell.
c)
Crossing over ensures that the same combination of alleles remains in each of the four daughter cells at the end of Meiosis II.
d)
Crossing over ensures that the chromosomes in the four daughter cells produced at the end of Meiosis II will have a different assortment of genes than the corresponding chromosomes in the original cell.
192.
There are a total of _______ chromosomes in human sperm or egg cells.
a)
2
b)
23
c)
46
d)
92
193.
There are _______ cells produced in meiosis.
a)
2
b)
4
c)
1
194.
What kind of cells are made in MEIOSIS?
a)
Haploid cells
b)
Diploid Cells
c)
Skin Cells
d)
Liver Cells
195.
The process of crossing over occurs in what phase of meiosis?
a)
anaphase 1
b)
prophase 1
c)
prophase 2
d)
telophase 1
196.
What phase is represented?
a)
metaphase 1
b)
metaphase 2
c)
anaphase 1
d)
anaphase 2
197.
products of meiosis are genetically
a)
different
b)
identical
198.
Meiosis makes sperm and egg cells. In humans, sperm and egg cells each have _____ chromosomes. Therefore a fertilized human egg cell (sperm and egg cell combined) would create a cell with _____ chromosomes.
a)
23, 46
b)
46, 23
c)
2, 4
d)
50, 100
199.
Who is considered the "father" of modern genetics?
a)
Einstein
b)
Mendel
c)
Disney
d)
Washington
200.
A single cross such as flower color.
a)
mono hybrid
b)
dihybrid
c)
crossing over
d)
homozygous
201.
What type of "square" helps us solve genetic problems?
a)
carpenter square
b)
Mendel square
c)
Punnett square
d)
genetic square
202.
The exact genetic makeup of an organism, such as RR, Tt, PP is its?
a)
phenotype
b)
dominance
c)
genotype
d)
trait
203.
TT,tt,PP,pp,SS,ss are examples of alleles that are?
a)
homozygous
b)
heterozygous
c)
different
d)
homologous
204.
Y for yellow body is dominant over y for blue body. What alleles would produce yellow bodies?
a)
YY,yy
b)
Yy,yy
c)
YY only
d)
YY,Yy
205.
"The Great White Shark was 20 feet in length. Phenotype or Genotype?
a)
phenotype
b)
genotype
206.
Females-XX; MalesXY. A couple has 4 girls. What is the chance the next child will be a boy?
a)
75%
b)
100%
c)
25%
d)
50%
207.
If "T" is the allele for tall and "t" is the allele for short, then Tt would produce?
a)
tall
b)
short
c)
medium
d)
not enough info
208.
A physical characteristic that can be passed from parent to offspring.
a)
behavior
b)
trait
c)
strong muscles
d)
ability to fly a plane.
209.
Genotype refers to the ...
a)
physical expression of the genes
b)
the possible combination of alleles in a gene
c)
whether an allele is dominant or recessive
d)
how an organism will appear
210.
What is a phenotype
a)
The genetic make up (code)
b)
The physical trait
211.
An offspring will receive how many alleles from each parent to determine a specific trait?
a)
one
b)
two
c)
three
d)
five
212.
Snapdragon flowers come in red, pink and white. What type of inheritance is this?
a)
Complete Dominance
b)
Incomplete Dominance
c)
Codominance
d)
Polygenic Inheritance
213.
An allele whose trait only shows up when no dominant allele is present.
a)
hidden allele
b)
dominant allele
c)
recessive allele
d)
present allele
214.
Incomplete dominance means that the traits are
a)
expressed equally
b)
dominant
c)
recessive
d)
blended
215.
Brown fur color is dominant over black fur color. Which of the following is the actual genotype of ALL of the offspring in the next generation of this cross for fur color?
AA x aa
AA x aa
a)
AA
b)
Aa
c)
aa
d)
brown fur
216.
Tt is-
a)
homozygous dominant
b)
homozygous recessive
c)
heterozygous
d)
none of these
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