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AP Biology Unit 6 2021

Total questions: 44

Worksheet time: 39mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Group of structural and regulating genes that functions as a single unit

a)

Operon

b)

Plasmid

c)

DNA

d)

Oncogene

2.

In an operon, a sequence of DNA where RNA polymerase begins transcription

a)

Repressor

b)

Inducer

c)

Structurel Gene

d)

Promoter

3.

In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of DNA, which of the following will be found

a)

A=C

b)

A+G = C + T

c)

G + C = A + T

d)

A = G and C = T

4.

An amino acid deficiency in an organism is most likely to affect

a)

post translation

b)

translation

c)

post transcription

d)

transcription

5.

Amino acid tryptophan is added to the agar the E.coli are growing on, the trp operon will be

a)

not affected

b)

increased in function

c)

repressed

d)

induced

6.

DNA wrapped around histone proteins

a)

nucleosome

b)

Barr body

c)

helicase

d)

primase

7.

The pink ribbon-like structure is

a)

tRNA

b)

DNA

c)

mRNA

d)

rRNA

8.

Small, circular DNA molecules from bacteria are called...

a)

Chromosomes

b)

Chromatin

c)

Transcripts

d)

Plasmids

9.

In the diagram, what is structure #1?

a)

Topisomerase

b)

Primase

c)

Helicase

d)

ssBP

10.

In the diagram what is #4?

a)

Topisomerase

b)

Nucleotide

c)

Helicase

d)

Primase

11.

In DNA replication, what enzyme unzips the double helix?

a)

Primase

b)

Topisomerase

c)

DNA Polymerase I

d)

Helicase

12.

In DNA replication, which occurs first?

a)

DNA polymerase adds new nucleotides

b)

DNA polymerase replaces RNA with DNA

c)

DNA ligase binds segments together

d)

Primase creates a primer

13.

What is the orientation of DNA strands?

a)

Single strand, 5'-3'

b)

Double strand, both 5'-3'

c)

Double strand, antiparallel

d)

Double strand, semiconservative

14.

Which strand of these DNA molecule would be the lagging strand?

a)

Top

b)

Bottom

15.

If a polypeptide chain has 100 amino acids, then how many nucleotides does the mRNA contain?

a)

99

b)

100

c)

299

d)

300

16.

What is the correct order of function in replication?

a)

helicase, ssbp, topoisomerase, DNA primer

b)

helicase, topoisomerase, ssbp, RNA primer

c)

ssbp, helicase, topoisomerase, DNA primer

d)

helicase, ssbp, topoisomerase, RNA primer

17.

A ribosome has three binding sites for tRNA. Match the site with the correct function.

a)

P site holds tRNA that carries next amino acid added to chain

b)

A site is where discharged tRNAs leave the ribosome

c)

A site holds tRNA that carries next amino acid added to chain

d)

E site holds tRNA that carries the growing amino acid chain

18.

Base substitutions of the 3rd base of codon rarely result in an error in polypeptide because...

a)

substitutions are corrected before transcription begins

b)

substitutions are restricted to introns

c)

transcribed errors attract snRNP’s,stimulating splicing

d)

base pair rule less strict for the 3rd base codon/anticodons

19.

The anticodon of a particular tRNA molecule is...

a)

complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon

b)

complementary to the rRNA triplet

c)

part of tRNA that bonds to a specific amino acid

d)

changeable, depends on the amino acid that bonds to the tRNA

20.

Using the picture what polypeptide does CAA-CGG-GUA code for?

a)

His, Arg, Stop

b)

Gln, Arg, Val

c)

Gln, His, Met

d)

Met, Gln, Arg

21.

Which of the following mutations would be most likely to have a harmful effect on an organism?

a)

a base pair substitution

b)

a deletion of three nucleotides near the middle of a gene

c)

a nucleotide deletion at the end of the gene

d)

single nucleotide inserted close to start of coding sequence

22.

Identify which of the following best describes purines and pyrimidines

a)

Purines (C, T, & U) have single ring, Pyrimidines (A & G) have double ring

b)

Purines (A & G) have single ring, Pyrimidines (C, T, & U) have double ring

c)

Purines (C, T, & U) have double ring, Pyrimidines (A & G) have single ring

d)

Purines (A & G) have double ring, Pyrimidines (C, T, & U) have single ring

23.

Which of the following demonstrates base pairing rules to 5' - CAGGT - 3'

a)

3' - TGGAC - 5

b)

5' - GTCCA - 3'

c)

3' - GTCCA - 5'

d)

5' - CAGGT - 3'

24.

Describe the difference between the synthesis of the leading and lagging strands.

a)

directionality: leading = 3' -> 5', lagging = 5' -> 3'

b)

directionality: leading = 5' -> 3', lagging = 3' -> 5'

c)

synthesis continuity: leading = discontinuous & lagging = continuous

d)

synthesis continuity: leading = continuous & lagging = discontinuous

25.

How do the three types of RNA work together?

a)

mRNA carries message, tRNA carries amino acids, and rRNA makes ribosome

b)

mRNA carries amino acids, tRNA transfer message, and rRNA makes ribosome

c)

mRNA makes ribosomes, tRNA carries amino acids, and rRNA relays information

d)

mRNA is made, tRNA holds the DNA in place, and rRNA removes the deoxyribose

26.

Which of the following are NOT post-transcriptional modifications?

a)

5' cap

b)

TATA box

c)

poly-A tail

d)

intron removal

27.

Which of the following describes epigenetic changes that affect gene expression?

a)

alternative RNA splicing

b)

post-transcriptional modification

c)

DNA methylation or histone acetylation

d)

operon inhibition

28.

Which of the following genetic engineering techniques is incorrectly described?

a)

Electrophoresis separates molecules based on size & charge

b)

PCR allows for DNA fragments to be stabilized for engineering processes

c)

Bacterial transformation introduces DNA to bacterial cells

d)

DNA sequencing determines the order of nucleotides in a DNA molecule

29.

What is transcribed from DNA to produce a protein and is a good indication of whether or not a particular gene is expressed?

a)

mRNA

b)

cDNA

c)

tRNA

d)

trRNA

30.

From microarray data, what can we conclude?

a)

genes that cause cancer

b)

which genes may be affected in cancer

c)

genes that stop cancer

d)

which cells have genes

31.

This is the practice of inserting the DNA of another species into an organism's DNA so that the organism gains a new trait.

a)

Cloning

b)

Gel Electrophoresis

c)

Genetic Engineering

d)

DNA Fingerprinting

32.

Which kitten is most likely the offspring of this cat?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

33.

What is the process in which an unspecialized stem cell turns into a specialized body cell?

a)

DNA Replication

b)

Differentiation

c)

Respiration

d)

Genetic Modification

34.

During gel electrophoresis, the _______ pieces of DNA move farthest down the gel

a)

lightest

b)

heaviest

c)

ugliest

d)

deadliest

35.

What does transgenic mean?

a)

An organism that can change its genes at will

b)

A stem cell that can differentiate into anything

c)

An organism that has had another species' DNA put in it

d)

A bacteria that reproduces asexually

36.

Another name for a point mutation is:

a)

Substitution

b)

Frameshift

c)

Insertion

d)

Deletion

37.

ATTTGAGCC- Original

ATTGAGCC - Mutated

The example above is an example of a

a)

Insertion

b)

Point mutation

c)

Deletion

d)

Substitution

38.

What type of Mutation is this to the sentence "THE CAT WAS FUN":

THE BAT WAS FUN

a)

Substitution Mutation

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Insertion Mutation

39.

What type of Mutation is this to the sentence "THE CAT WAS FUN":

THE CAT AWA SFU N...

a)

Substitution Mutation

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Insertion Mutation

40.
what is an operon?
a)
a part of a ribsome
b)
a part of a Rna
c)
a unit made up of linked genes that code for proteins needed to do a specific task
d)
needed for dna replication
41.
A protein that binds to the operator and blocks the RNA polymerase
a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
42.
What is the role of operons in prokaryote gene expression?
a)
It makes the genes prokaryotes be turned on
b)
It accounts for the regulation of gene activity in response to the needs of the cells
c)
To make DNA for the gene
d)
To make the gene turn of and off
43.
Inducible negative control is when when the gene is transcribed by the ____ of a specific molecule
a)
presence
b)
absence
44.
What type of operon is the trp (tryptophan) operon?
a)
inducible
b)
repressible
c)
positive control
d)
promoible