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Worksheets

OMAE

Total questions: 66

Worksheet time: 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Acini that is mainly mucous and some mucoserous

a)

Submandibular gland

b)

Parotid gland

c)

Sublingual gland

d)

submaxillary gland

2.

65% of the salivary volume comes from this gland

a)

Parotid gland

b)

Submandibular gland

c)

Von ebner's gland

d)

Sublingual gland

3.

Component of saliva that makes it a buffering solution

a)

More of the bicarbonate and less of phosphate ions

b)

Basic salivary proteins

c)

More of the phosphate and less of bicarbonate ions

d)

Bicarbonate ions only

4.

Integrity of the tooth is maintained because of

a)

Calcium ions only

b)

bicarbonate ions only

c)

bicarbonate and calcium ions

d)

phosphate ions only

5.

The sequence of ducts leading from the secretory endpiece to the oral cavity

a)

Intercalated, Striated, Excretory

b)

Striated, intercalated, excretory

c)

Excretory, Striated, intercalated

d)

Intercalated, Excretory, Striated

6.

The epithelial cell type in intercalated duct is:

a)

Simple squamous

b)

simple columnar

c)

pseudostratified squamous

d)

simple cuboidal

7.

Salivary proteins are synthesized in the RER, modified in the golgi complex and stored for secretion in the:

a)

SER

b)

Nucleus

c)

secretory granules

d)

mitochondria

8.

Function of the striated ducts of the salivary glands is modification of saliva by reabsorption of:

A.

a)

Secretion of Sodium and chloride

b)

Reabsorption of Organic components

c)

Reabsorption of sodium and chloride

d)

Secretion of Organic components

9.

Submucosa is found most commonly in which type of oral mucosa

a)

Specialized and masticatory

b)

Lining

c)

Specialized

d)

Masticatory

10.

Specialized oral mucosa

a)

Contains taste buds

b)

Has both keratinized and non keratinized epithelium

c)

Found in the dorsum of the tongue

d)

all choices

11.

A dentist performed a biopsy on clusters of tan to light yellow spots on the buccal mucosa of a 37-year old man. The biopsy is diagnosed as Fordyce granules. This granules are composed of:

a)

sebaceous glands

b)

hair follicles

c)

eccrine sweat glands

d)

Salivary glands

12.

Which cell in the oral stratified squamous epithelium is most important in immune response

a)

Langerhan's cells

b)

Merkel cell

c)

Melanocyte

d)

Keratinocyte

13.

Cancer chemotherapeutic drugs are usually most toxic to normal tissue that is replaced most rapidly. Which location would be the most susceptible to tissue breakdown due to cancer chemotherapeutic drugs?

a)

Gingiva

b)

Cheek

c)

Hard palate

d)

Skin

14.

Which lingual papillae have/has taste buds

a)

Circumvallate papilla only

b)

Circumvallate papilla and filiform papilla

c)

Fungiform, Circumvallate and foliate papilla

d)

Filiform, fungiform and foliate papilla

15.

In keratinized epithelium

a)

Cells of the prickle layer contain dispersed tonofilaments

b)

When pyknotic nuclei are retained, orthokeratinization occurs

c)

Cells of the granular layer are cuboidal or columnar

d)

Cells of the keratinized layer have lost all their organelles

16.

The lamina propia contains the following

a)

Langerhans cells

b)

fibrolasts

c)

C. Merkel cells

d)

D. melanocytes

17.

Regarding buildup of keratin, in which type of papillae causes a hairlike appearance of the tongue?

a)

Foliate

b)

Fungiform

c)

Circumvallate

d)

filliform

18.

The articular disk

a)

Is made up of fibrous tissue

b)

Does not contain blood vessels at its periphery

c)

contains no elastic fibers

d)

Synovial cells cover its surface

19.

The following occurs during tooth eruption except:

a)

Root elongation

b)

Mucosal penetration

c)

Bone remodeling

d)

none among choices

20.

Which of the following is true:

a)

Prefunctional eruption is a relative slow process

b)

Tooth eruption continues throughout the life of the tooth

c)

Supra osseous and supra gingival eruption is always associated teeth in occlusion

d)

All choices are true

21.

During an experiment at the prefunctional intra-osseous stage, which of the following is/are true

a)

The apical portion of the tooth is removed while keeping the dental follicle intact – the tooth will erupt

b)

The forming tooth is replaced by titanium implant, while keeping the dental follicle intact – the tooth will erupt

c)

both are true

d)

none is true

22.

The dental follicle is completely removed – the tooth will erupt

a)

The statement is true for deciduous teeth only

b)

The statement is true for succedaneous teeth only

c)

The statement is true for accessional teeth only

d)

The statement is not true

23.

Monocytes are the precursors of the following EXCEPT

a)

Odontoclasts

b)

Osteoclasts

c)

Odontoblasts

d)

none from the choices

24.

Posteruptive movements include the following EXCEPT

a)

Root formation

b)

Accommodation of the growing jaw

c)

Compensation of occlusal wear

d)

Accommodation of interproximal wear

25.

Odontoclasts EXCEPT:

a)

Resemble osteoclasts.

b)

Derived from lymphocytes

c)

Are multinucleated cells

d)

Can resorb dentin.

26.

Gubernacular canals EXCEPT

a)

Containing remnants of dental lamina and connective tissue.

b)

Present in both deciduous and succedaneous teeth

c)

Present only in succedaneous teeth

d)

Located between the permanent tooth germ and the apex of the deciduous tooth

27.

Exfoliated deciduous molar EXCEPT

a)

Considerable portion of root remaining on the facial aspect

b)

Enamel and coronal dentin are eroded

c)

Roots have been lost completely

d)

all are true

28.

Exfoliated deciduous canine

a)

Enamel and coronal dentin are eroded

b)

Roots have been lost completely

c)

Considerable portion of root remaining on the facial aspect

d)

all choices are true

29.

Non immune defense of the saliva

a)

mucins

b)

IgG

c)

IgA

d)

all choices

30.

von ebners EXCEPT

a)

mucus

b)

serous

c)

located in the tongue

d)

open into the troughs surrounding the circumvallate

31.

In the embryo, the lower part of the lip is formed by:

a)

A. Merging mandibular process

b)

B. Frontonasal process

c)

C. Medial nasal and frontonasal processes

d)

D. None of the choices

32.

In facial development, the mandibular arch divides into

a)

A. Frontonasal process, mandibular process and maxillary process

b)

B. Mandibular arch and maxillary arch only

c)

C. Mandibular process and maxillary process only

d)

all choices

33.

The following is true about Olfactory placode EXCEPT

a)

A. Thickening of the ectoderm

b)

B. Situated at the lower border of the frontal prominence

c)

C. Above the stomatodeum

d)

D. Proliferation of the mesenchyme

34.

Frontal prominence will divide into

a)

Frontonasal process, Medial nasal process only

b)

Frontonasal process, Medial nasal process, Lateral nasal process

c)

Medial nasal process, Lateral nasal process only

d)

none of the choices

35.

Which of the following is true about the development of the maxillary process:

a)

Medial growth of the maxillary process pushes the medial nasal process

b)

Approaches both the lateral and the medial nasal process

c)

Eliminates the frontonasal process

d)

all choices

36.

From what process did this come from: forehead

a)

a. frontonasal process

b)

b.lateral nasal process

c)

c. medial nasal process

d)

d. maxillary process

e)

e. mandibular process

37.

From what process did this come from: center and tip of nose

a)

frontonasal process

b)

lateral nasal process

c)

medial nasal process

d)

maxillary process

e)

mandibular process

38.

From what process did this come from: nasal septum

a)

frontonasal process

b)

lateral nasal process

c)

medial nasal process

d)

maxillary process

39.

From what process did this come from: primary palate

a)

frontonasal process

b)

mandibular process

c)

medial nasal process

d)

maxillary process

40.

From what process did this come from: ala of the nose

a)

frontonasal process

b)

lateral nasal process

c)

medial nasal process

d)

mandibular process

41.

From what process did this come from: secondary palate

a)

maxillary process

b)

frontonasal process

c)

lateral nasal process

d)

maxillary process

42.

From what process did this come from: upper part of the cheek

a)

frontonasal process

b)

maxillary process

c)

lateral nasal process

d)

medial nasal process

43.

From what process did this come from: sides of the upper lip

a)

frontonasal process

b)

lateral nasal process

c)

medial nasal process

d)

maxillary process

44.

From what process did this come from: lower part of the cheek

a)

frontonasal process

b)

lateral nasal process

c)

mandibular proces

d)

maxillary process

45.

From what process did this come from: anterior part of the tongue

a)

frontonasal process

b)

lateral nasal process

c)

medial nasal process

d)

mandibular process

46.

The entire primary dentition is initiated between

a)

6 and 8 weeks of embryonic development.

b)

8 and 9 weeks of embryonic development.

c)

7 and 8 weeks of embryonic development

d)

10th week of embryonic development

47.

Successional permanent teeth are initiated between

a)

week 20 in utero and 5 months after birth

b)

week 10 in utero and 5 months after birth

c)

week 20 in utero and 10 months after birth

d)

week 10 in utero and 10 months after birth

48.

Permanent molars are initiated between

a)

week 5 in utero (first molar) and 5 years of age (third molar).

b)

week 10 in utero (first molar) and 5 years of age (third molar).

c)

week 20 in utero (first molar) and 5 years of age (third molar).

d)

week 30 in utero (first molar) and 5 years of age (third molar).

49.

Disturbances of root formation where HERS remain adherent to the dentin surface

a)

Accessory root canals

b)

cementicles

c)

Enamel lamella

d)

enamel pearl

50.

Disturbances of root formation where HERS become calcific in the periodontal ligament area

a)

Accessory root canals

b)

Enamel lamella

c)

cementicles

d)

enamel pearl

51.

Disturbances of root formation where HERS is broken or not established prior to dentin formation

a)

Accessory root canals

b)

Enamel lamella

c)

cementicles

d)

enamel pearl

52.

The most common tooth to be affected by absence of initiation

a)

Lateral incisors

b)

3rd molars

c)

2nd mandibular premolars

d)

2nd maxillary premolars

53.

Disturbances in morphodifferentiation may cause the following EXCEPT:

a)

A. Supernumerary cusps

b)

B. notched incisors

c)

c. Supernumerary roots

d)

d. supernumerary tooth

54.

Maxillary primary epithelial band

a)

A. Fused maxillary processes

b)

B. fused mandibular process

c)

C. Fused maxillary and lateral nasal process

d)

Fused maxillary and medial nasal process

55.

Which of the following is true regarding primary cementum

a)

A. It is cellular

b)

B. Produced after mineralization of dentin

c)

C. Produced after crown formation

d)

D. Develops relatively slow

56.

Concerning cellular versus acellular cementum:

a)

none of the following statements are true

b)

There are no obvious structural differences

c)

Both exhibits clearly evident cementoid layers

d)

Acellular cementum is usually absent from incisor and canine teeth

57.

Periodontal ligament fibroblasts:


D. All statements are true

a)

A. Characterized by an ability to achieve a high rate of collagen turnover

b)

B. With well-developed cytoskeleton

c)

C. Aligned along the the general direction of the fiber bundles

d)

D. all statements are true

58.

Which of the following fiber bundles is/are part of the gingival ligament :

a)

A. Dentoperiostal group

b)

B. Alveoloperiostal group

c)

C. Alveolar crest group

d)

D. All are true

59.

Changes in the pulp during aging include

a)

A. Chamber becomes smaller due to continues deposition of dentin

b)

B. Pulp is less sensitive because of decrease in number of nerve fibers

c)

C. More collagen bundles and fewer cells

d)

D. all choices

60.

Reparative dentin

a)

Produced by dental follicle cells

b)

Usually a highly organized layer of dentin

c)

Considered to be protective for the pulp cells

d)

All choices

61.

The Plexus of Raschkow is

a)

A. Group of nerves located within the enamel area

b)

B. Group of nerve endings in the dental organ

c)

C. Periodontal ligament structures which senses tooth movement

d)

D. Found in the pulp adjacent to the odontoblastic layer

62.

Weil’s zone of pulp is

a)

A. Odontoblastic layer

b)

c. cell free zone

c)

D. cell rich zone

d)

d. all are true

63.

Mature enamel is composed of

A. 96% mineral and 4% organic material and water

a)

A. 96% mineral and 4% organic material and water

b)

B. 100% mineral

c)

C. 90% protein and 10% organic material and water

d)

D. Depends on the type of teeth

64.

Ruffle ended ameloblasts

a)

Participate in protein loss

b)

Represent a distinct population of cells

c)

Influence the life of odontoblasts

d)

All choices

65.

The extensions from secretory ameloblast cells that give structure to enamel rods are:

a)

Tomes’ granular layer

b)

Tome's processes

c)

Enamel spindle

d)

Enamel lamellae

66.

what is my name

a)

leah

b)

leila

c)

lina

d)

shie