Wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Child Neuro

Total questions: 25

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An 11-year-old boy trips and falls walking down a flight of stairs and is diagnosed with a concussion. Prior to his injury, he was a healthy child, although he does have a history of recurrent severe ear infections when he was a toddler. He does well in school, although he did have difficulties with learning to read in the first and second grades. Which of this child’s characteristics puts him at greater risk for the development of persistent postconcussive symptoms?

a)

age less than 13 years

b)

history of ear infections

c)

male sex

d)

non–sports-related cause of his concussion

e)

reading difficulties in early years of school

2.

Which of the following is a typical component of US state concussion legislation?

a)

education for athletes and their parents

b)

evaluation by neuroimaging (CT or MRI) prior to return to play

c)

mandated school accommodations

d)

removal from play for a minimum of 3 weeks

e)

return to play only after evaluation by the team coach

3.

When should the Glasgow Coma Scale score be assessed after traumatic brain injury (TBI) in order to best distinguish mild from moderate TBI?

a)

immediately after the inciting event

b)

within 5 minutes of the inciting event

c)

within 10 minutes of the inciting event

d)

within 15 minutes of the inciting event

e)

30 minutes or later postinjury

4.

What does the author of the article recommend regarding timing of initiation and duration of continuous EEG monitoring in critically

ill children in the intensive care unit who are at risk for nonconvulsive status epilepticus?

a)

initiate after cessation of generalized convulsive status, then maintain for at least 1 hour if normal

b)

initiate after cessation of generalized convulsive status, then maintain for at least 8 hours if normal

c)

initiate after routine EEG, then maintain for at least 1 hour if normal

d)

initiate as soon as possible, then maintain for at least 1 hour if normal

e)

initiate as soon as possible, then maintain for at least 12 to 24 hours if normal

5.

Which of the following statements is most accurate about the determination of competency in the United States?

a)

clinical team assessments are required by all courts to establish competency

b)

competency is automatically assumed at majority, if no process has determined otherwise

c)

the determination of competency can only be made by a licensed psychiatrist

d)

lack of competency is automatically assumed at majority, provided the child has required a formal individualized education program throughout school

e)

the process to legally remove competency is equivalent to the process to determine lack thereof prior to majority

6.

Which of the following is one of the primary goals of the transition from pediatric to adult care for neurologic patients?

a)

avoidance of legal guardianship

b)

empowerment of patients and caregivers

c)

independent living

d)

preservation of relationship with pediatric care team

e)

vocational training and placement

7.

Which of the following is the first step of a successful transition from pediatric to adult neurologic care?

a)

assessment of the patient’s self-management skills

b)

discussion with patient and caregiver of expectations of future transition

c)

encouragement of patient by provider to become more independent

d)

establishment of legal guardianship

e)

formal neuropsychological testing to determine competency

8.

Which of the following medications has been US Food and Drug Administration (FDA)-approved to treat irritability and aggression in children with autism spectrum disorder?

a)

amitriptyline

b)

clonazepam

c)

clonidine

d)

fluoxetine

e)

risperidone

9.

A 7-year-old girl is being evaluated for behavioral concerns. She is described by her parents as a “very bright but very awkward child who has trouble fitting in.” On standardized educational testing, she has consistently performed above grade level in all domains. However, her teachers report that she is “in her own world” and has difficulty adapting to any change in classroom routine. For the past year, she has been highly preoccupied with meteorology, frequently redirecting any conversation back to this subject. Although interested in having friends at school, she has been unable to form any lasting friendships, mostly because of her insistence on doing things her way without compromise and a tendency not to let others have a turn to speak in conversations. She also tends to look to the side of the person with whom she is speaking rather than making eye contact, and her voice has a singsong quality to it. Which of the following diagnoses best fits this child’s overall presentation?

a)

attention deficit hyperactivity disorder

b)

autism spectrum disorder

c)

intellectual disability

d)

obsessive-compulsive disorder

e)

social anxiety disorder

10.

Which of the following chromosomes appears to be enriched with genes mutated in patients with intellectual developmental disorder?

a)

X

b)

Y

c)

4

d)

15

e)

21

11.

A patient with unexplained intellectual developmental disorder without suggestive phenotypic features has a normal chromosomal microarray. Which of the following evaluations would be most appropriate to

do next?

a)

24-hour video EEG monitoring study

b)

first-tier metabolic testing

c)

G-banded karyotype with telomere fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)

d)

leukocyte enzyme activity analysis of arylsulfatase A and biotinidase

e)

whole-exome sequencing

12.

Which of the following patients would best be described as having an intellectual disability?

a)

a 1-year-old with trisomy 21 who is not meeting gross motor, fine motor, or language developmental milestones

b)

a 2-year-old who is not meeting appropriate fine motor and language developmental milestones

c)

a 6-year-old with deficits in social communication as well as behavioral abnormalities with repetitive behaviors and restricted interests

d)

a 7-year-old with an IQ of 50 and significant limitations in adaptive behavior

e)

a 10-year-old with difficulties in reading and mathematics requiring additional instructional support

13.

Modafinil and armodafinil are not approved by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) to treat narcolepsy in children younger than 17 years because of which of the following adverse effects?

a)

agitation

b)

cardiac arrhythmias

c)

seizures

d)

stevens-johnson syndrome

e)

tremors

14.

A 10-year-old boy presents with a 6-month history of daytime sleepiness, including falling asleep on the school bus, during class, and while watching television in the evenings. He reports always feeling tired and naps for 1 to 2 hours at a time whenever possible. He has had several episodes of sudden loss of tone with subsequent falls to the ground, without alteration of consciousness, that were triggered by laughing with his friends. A definitive diagnosis in this patient could be made based on which of the following findings?

a)

CSF hypocretin-1 concentration of 110 pg/mL or less

b)

consumer-wearable actigraph confirming several daytime naps

c)

positive human leukocyte antigen typing for the DQB1*0602haplotype

d)

presence of a sleep-onset rapid eye movement (REM) periodwithin 2 hours of sleep onset on nocturnal polysomnogram

e)

repeated 3-second change in background rhythm on EEG

15.

A 5-year-old girl has a 1-year history of recurrent vomiting episodes that begin during sleep. She awakens with severe nausea and pallor and then vomits for 10 minutes. Her eyes have been observed to deviate during these episodes, and she retains consciousness. She is an otherwise developmentally normal healthy child. EEG is most likely to show which of the following patterns?

a)

high-amplitude asynchronous slow waves and multifocal spikes and polyspikes

b)

high-voltage sharp discharges involving the right centrotemporal region

c)

nonreactive, discontinuous focal, theta frequency rhythm with intermixed sharp waves

d)

paroxysmal generalized 4 Hz to 6 Hz spike-and-slow-wave activity

e)

shifting multifocal spikes involving the occipital region

16.

An 8-month-old girl has a 3-month history of seizures that began as recurrent hemiconvulsive febrile seizures that alternated sides. She subsequently developed febrile myoclonic, focal, and generalized seizures. More recently, she began to have reflex seizures triggered by her nightly baths. Which of the following treatments is contraindicated?

a)

clobazam

b)

ketogenic diet

c)

oxcarbazepine

d)

stiripentol

e)

valproate

17.

Which of the following epileptic encephalopathies has the best overall prognosis?

a)

continuous spike and wave in slow sleep

b)

early myoclonic epilepsy

c)

epilepsy of infancy with migrating focal seizures

d)

Landau-Kleffner syndrome

e)

Lennox-Gastaut syndrome

18.

A previously healthy 6-month-old boy is referred to the neurology clinic because of a 1-month history of daily stereotyped abnormal movements. These usually occur upon awakening or as he is falling asleep and are characterized by brief axial flexion with simultaneous flexion of the hips, shoulders, and elbows. These episodes of flexion are brief but occur repetitively over 3 to 5 minutes, and the patient cries between them. Also of concern is his development; whereas he met early milestones on time, he now has lost the ability to roll and seems“sleepy and out of it” all the time. On EEG, the interictal background is very high in amplitude and chaotic with very frequent multifocal epileptiform transients and no normal waveforms, and each of his flexion spells is associated with a high-amplitude generalized slow wave followed by a diffuse relative suppression of voltage. Which of the following electroclinical syndromes is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

a)

early infantile epileptic encephalopathy

b)

early myoclonic encephalopathy

c)

epilepsy of infancy with migrating focal seizures

d)

infantile spasms

e)

Lennox-Gastaut syndrome

19.

A 5-year-old boy presents with a history of seizures that began at the age of 2. Initially, he had nocturnal tonic seizures followed by the emergence of atypical absence seizures during wakefulness and several generalized tonic-clonic seizures. He is now being evaluated for episodes of sudden loss of tone, at times with an isolated head drop or a fall from standing. Although he met his early milestones on time, he did not say single words until the age of 30 months and now has a 50-word vocabulary. He is ambulatory but very uncoordinated. Although delayed, he has not had a developmental regression. His neurologic examination is revealing only for these cognitive impairments with no dysmorphic features or focal findings. Which of the following interictal EEG patterns would most likely be seen in this patient?

a)

diffusely slow background with spike-and-wave bursts at 1 Hz to 2.5 Hz

b)

focal spike-and-wave transients occupying more than 85% of slow-wave sleep

c)

hypsarrhythmia with excessive interhemispheric synchrony

d)

normal background with spike-and-wave bursts at 3 Hz to 4 Hz

e)

suppression burst pattern

20.

Which of the following chemotherapeutic agents can induce antithrombin III deficiency?

a)

asparaginase

b)

cyclophosphamide

c)

cytarabine

d)

5-fluorouracil

e)

ifosfamide

21.

A 15-month-old boy is evaluated for visual and growth impairment. He was born at term after an uncomplicated pregnancy, but it was noted that he did not fix and follow or develop normal visual attentiveness. He is diagnosed with hypopituitarism. Given these symptoms and signs, an MRI will most likely demonstrate findings consistent with which of the following disorders?

a)

agenesis of the corpus callosum

b)

hemimegalencephaly

c)

periventricular nodular heterotopias

d)

septooptic dysplasia

e)

tuberous sclerosis complex

22.

Polymicrogyria is most likely to be caused by a disruption of which of the following processes?

a)

cell proliferation

b)

neuronal differentiation/maturation

c)

neurulation

d)

postmigrational development

e)

prosencephalic development

23.

A 6-month-old girl presents with global developmental delay and severe microcephaly. On examination, the skull bones have folded inward as if the skull has partially collapsed, although the scalp appears normal. The patient has contractures of the elbows, wrists, and knees, which were present from birth, as well as diffuse spasticity. Brain MRI reveals very thin and dysplastic cerebral parenchyma, while an earlier CT scan revealed subcortical calcifications. Given these findings, which of the following causes of the patient’s microcephaly is most likely?

a)

early intrauterine hypoxic-ischemic injury

b)

failure of rostral neural tube fusion

c)

genetic defect in cell proliferation

d)

genetic defect in neuronal migration

e)

intrauterine infection with Zika virus

24.

A 13-year-old boy presents with new-onset epilepsy. He was born at term and has developed normally. His seizures are characterized by behavioral arrest and staring with orofacial automatisms lasting

for 30 to 45 seconds. His general physical and neurologic examination are normal. Brain MRI reveals periventricular nodular heterotopia without any associated cortical abnormalities. A mutation of which of the following genes is most likely responsible for this disorder of neuronal migration?

a)

DCX

b)

FLNA

c)

LIS1

d)

PIK3R2

e)

SHH

25.

A 12-year-old boy presents for evaluation of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. On examination, he is found to have a head circumference at the 98th percentile, hypertelorism, and eight café au lait spots. He has no axillary or inguinal freckling, and his neurologic examination is normal. He is otherwise healthy but has a long-standing history of mild academic difficulties in school. His mother is also examined and demonstrates five café au lait spots with sparse bilateral axillary freckles without inguinal freckling; she also has a history of mild learning difficulties but has had no medical problems. What is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?

a)

incontinentia pigmenti

b)

Legius syndrome

c)

Noonan syndrome with multiple lentigines

d)

neurofibromatosis type 1

e)

neurofibromatosis type 2