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patho chapter 19 review

Total questions: 53

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How many chromosomes does each cell have?

a)

46 (23 pairs)

b)

64 (32 pairs)

c)

23 (11.5 pairs)

d)

48 (24 pairs)

2.

What does heterozygous mean?

a)

alleles match

b)

alleles don't match (often carriers of recessive disorders)

c)

genetic pattern of the individual

d)

expression of a trait

3.

What are the two ways a person can obtain an abnormal gene?

a)

passage of abnormal gene from parents

b)

baby is born the wrong way

c)

mutation of gene during meiosis

d)

they can't

4.

What is the term for birth defect?

a)

teratogens

b)

electromyography

c)

buccal smear

d)

congenital abnormalities

5.

What is the term for environmental factors?

a)

congenital anomalies

b)

teratogens

c)

karyotyping

d)

genes

6.

What does EMG stand for?

a)

electromycogram

b)

electromacrogram

c)

electromyography

d)

electrical-mechanic government

7.

What does otoscope mean?

a)

scope in the ears

b)

scope in the eyes

c)

visual examination of the mouth

d)

scope in the iris

8.

What is abbreviation for 'over the counter'

a)

OCTC

b)

COT

c)

TOC

d)

OTC

9.

What does MD mean?

a)

Mellitus Diabetes

b)

Muscle Dry

c)

Muscular Disfunction

d)

Muscular Dystrophy

10.

What does NAD stand for?

a)

no additive desserts

b)

no apparent distressed

c)

no apparent disease

d)

not a disease

11.

What does hypotonic mean?

a)

increased tone

b)

no tone

c)

decreased tone

d)

hurtful tone

12.

What does URI stand for?

a)

upper respiratory infection

b)

under respiratory infection

c)

both a and b

d)

none of the above

13.

What does PNA stand for?

a)

post national age

b)

post natal anemia

c)

pneumonia

d)

none of the above

14.

What happens during Congenital Hip Dislocation (CHD)?

a)

horse or toe walking

b)

when femoral head slips out of the acetabulum

c)

inward turning of the foot

d)

genetic mutation that causes abnormally brittle bones

15.

What is Clubfoot also known as?

a)

CHD

b)

CF

c)

footclub

d)

talipes equinovarus

16.

What is Clubfoot?

a)

when femoral head slips out of the acetabulum

b)

horse or toe walking w/ inward turning of the foot

c)

abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid on the brain to an obstruction from a congenital defect

d)

congenital bilateral paralysis

17.

What happens if you have osteogenesis imperfecta?

a)

frequent colds

b)

frequent bone fractures

c)

frequent muscle strains

d)

no bone fractures

18.

What do people suspect from osteogenesis imperfecta?

a)

many fallings

b)

clumsiness

c)

child abuse

d)

nothing

19.

What is the abbreviation for cerebrospinal fluid?

a)

CF

b)

CBSF

c)

CBF

d)

CSF

20.

What is the treatment for hydrocephalus?

a)

no cure

b)

it fades away

c)

shunt in the brain to the peritoneal cavity or right atrium of heart to drain excess fluid

21.

What is cerebral palsy?

a)

abnormal accumulation of fluid in the brain

b)

genetic mutation of bones

c)

obstruction

d)

congenital bilateral paralysis that results from inadequate blood or oxygen during the birthing process

22.

What is the most common crippler of children?

a)

cerebral palsy

b)

hydrocephalus

c)

huntingtons' disease

d)

clubfoot

23.

What is microcephaly?

a)

head is larger than normal because the brain did not stop growing

b)

head is smaller than normal because the brain has stopped growing

c)

head is normal

d)

none of the above

24.

What is a cause of microcephaly?

a)

dumbness

b)

moodiness

c)

zika virus

25.

What is spina bifida?

a)

1 or more vertebrae of bony spinal column fail to close over the spinal cord leaving an opening in the column

b)

small spine

c)

none of the above

26.

What are the types of spina bifida?

a)

meningcele- no neurological signs as nerves not involved

b)

spina bifida occulta- most common form of spina bifida

c)

myelomeningcele- most serious of spinal bifida

d)

all of the above

27.

What is a prevention of spina bifida

a)

drink lots of alcohol

b)

pregnant women doesn't take folic acid

c)

pregnant women take folic acid

28.

What is the % that a parent will pass huntington's disease to child?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

100%

d)

50%

29.

Where are the most common sites for congenital defects?

a)

great vessels

b)

heart

c)

stomach

d)

bladder

30.

What is atrial septal defect?

a)

opening between right and left atria, commonly due to foramen ovale not closing at birth

b)

closing between right and left atria, commonly due to foramen ovale not closing at birth

c)

chronic hereditary form of anemia

d)

none of the above

31.

What is foramen ovale?

a)

natural closing between the atria that allows blood to bypass the nonfunctional lungs during fetal life

b)

narrowing of the atria

c)

connection between pulmonary veins

d)

natural opening between the atria that allows blood to bypass the nonfunctional lungs during fetal life

32.

What is the most common heart defect?

a)

right pulmonary defect

b)

ventricular septal defect

c)

left atrium defect

d)

none of the above

33.

What is the connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta of the normal fetal heart called?

a)

pulmonary valve stenosis

b)

atrial septal defect

c)

ductus arteriosus

34.

What does coarctation mean?

a)

widening

b)

thickening

c)

stricture or narrowing

35.

What is the Tetralogy of Fallot?

a)

combination of four defects and of the most serious of congenital defects

b)

connection of the pulmonary artery

c)

bleeding disorder

d)

bladder disorder

36.

What are the four tetralogy of fallot defects?

a)

pulmonary valve stenosis- opening into the pulmonary artery is too small and thus too little blood goes to the blood

b)

right ventricle hypertrophy

c)

ventral septal defect- allows oxygenated blood to flow from the left ventricle to the right

d)

abnormal placement of the aorta- aorta opens over ventral septal defect and thus blood are pumped to the aorta.

e)

all of the above

37.

What is a S/S of tetralogy of fallot?

a)

fever

b)

coughing

c)

"blue babies"

d)

urination issues

38.

Check everything that is true relating to Meckel's Diverticulum

a)

most common malformation of the GI system

b)

least common malformation of the GI system

c)

S/S: painless, bloody stools

d)

S/S: fever, lots of pain

39.

What is Esophageal Atresia?

a)

one or more abnormal splits in mouth

b)

the absence of part of, or abnormal closure of, the esophagus

c)

failure of the anus

40.

What is the fistula connecting the trachea to the esophagus?

a)

tracheoesophageal fistula

b)

just fistula

c)

i have no clue

d)

none of the above

41.

Why is esophageal atresia a medical emergency?

a)

food can pass to the bladder

b)

it is not

c)

food can pass to the lungs

d)

choking

42.

What is Congenital Diaphragmatic Hernia?

a)

none of these answers are correct

b)

thickning of the diaphram

c)

narrowing of the diaphram

d)

congenital hole in the diaphram

43.

What is the failure of the anus to connect to the rectum called?

a)

failed anus

b)

imperforate anus

c)

imperfect anus

d)

none of the above

44.

What is a S/S of Imperforate Anus?

a)

cold

b)

cough

c)

fever

d)

not passing stool

45.

What is a cleft (split) lip?

a)

involves the palate or roof of the mouth

b)

a cut on the lip that happens when one falls on their face

c)

one or more abnormal splits in the upper lip

46.

What is a cleft palate?

a)

one or more abnormal splits in the upper lip

b)

involves the palate or roof of the mouth and is more serious than a cleft lip

c)

hole in the diaphram

47.

What is the abbreviation of Phenylketonuria?

a)

PLYU

b)

PYU

c)

PU

d)

PKU

48.

What is PKU?

a)

lacks the enzyme to break down the phenylalanine protein

b)

has the enzyme to break down the phenylalanine protein

49.

What is Hypospadias?

a)

affects females ovaries

b)

abnormal downward curvature of the penis

c)

abnormal congenital opening of the male urinary meatus on the undersurface of the penis

50.

What does Chordee mean?

a)

females have one x chromosome

b)

abnormal downward curvature of the penis due to a fibrous band of tissue

c)

abnormal congenital opening of the male urinary meatus on the undersurface of the penis

51.

How many X chromosomes do females have during Turner's Syndrome?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

0

52.

What is Klienfelter's Syndrome?

a)

abnormal congenital opening of the male urinary meatus on the undersurface of the penis

b)

affected males have an extra X chromosome

c)

affects ovaries

d)

none of the above

53.

What does eunuch mean?

a)

short, stubby legs

b)

regular legs

c)

long arms

d)

tall, slender body and long legs