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BMET Course 105 Q2

Total questions: 64

Worksheet time: 1hrs 4mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the four fetus blood vessels assessed when using color ultrasound?

a)

Umbilica Artery

b)

Aorta

c)

Middle Cerebral Arteries

d)

Uterine Arteries

e)

Superior Vesical Artery

2.

What are the five waveform parameters associated with sound waves

a)

Period

b)

Amplitude

c)

Wavelength

d)

Frequency

e)

Velocity

3.

Single Wave Cycle

a)

Period

b)

Amplitude

c)

Wavelength

d)

Frequency

e)

Velocity

4.
  • Peak Pressure or "height" of wave
  • Represents the "loudness" of the wave
a)

Period

b)

Amplitude

c)

Wavelength

d)

Frequency

e)

Velocity

5.

Distance traveled during a single cycle

a)

Period

b)

Amplitude

c)

Wavelength

d)

Frequency

e)

Velocity

6.
  • Number of times the wave is repeated per second
  • Expressed in Hertz
a)

Period

b)

Amplitude

c)

Wavelength

d)

Frequency

e)

Velocity

7.
  • Speed of the wave
  • 1540 m/sec in soft tissue
  • Determined by density/temperature
a)

Period

b)

Amplitude

c)

Wavelength

d)

Frequency

e)

Velocity

8.

Velocity speed is

a)

1540 m/s in soft tissue

b)

15.4 m/s in soft tissue

c)

1.54 m/s in soft tissue

d)

154 m/s in soft tissue

9.

Frequency is

a)

Number of times the wave is repeated per second

b)

Expressed in Hertz

c)

Single Wave Cycle

d)

Temperature of material

e)

Speed of the wave

10.

Advantages of using ultrasound

a)

non-invasive

b)

affordance

c)

Bone and Air penetration limitation

d)

Must look for acoustic window

11.

Disadvantages of using ultrasound

a)

non-invasive

b)

affordance

c)

Bone and Air penetration limitation

d)

Must look for acoustic window

12.

Four laws of physics that are similar to light

a)

Absorbed

b)

Reflected

c)

Refracted

d)

Attenuation

e)

Attrition

13.

energy in sound beam is absorbed by the tissue

a)

Absorbed

b)

Reflected

c)

Refracted

d)

Attenuation

e)

Attrition

14.

Redirection of a portion of the beam back toward the source

a)

Absorbed

b)

Reflected

c)

Refracted

d)

Attenuation

e)

Attrition

15.

Encounters irregularities smaller than the sound beam

a)

Absorbed

b)

Reflected

c)

Refracted

d)

Attenuation

e)

Attrition

16.

The Progressive weakening of sound as it progresses through the medium

a)

Absorbed

b)

Reflected

c)

Refracted

d)

Attenuation

e)

Attrition

17.

Resistance that matter presents to the ultrasound beam

a)

Acoustic Impedance

b)

Acoustic Interface

18.

Point of contact between two materials with different acoustic impedance

a)

Acoustic Impedance

b)

Acoustic Interface

19.

Selectively process signals corresponding to motion TOWARD or AWAY from the transducer

a)

Directional

b)

Ranged

20.

Allows the operator to select distances from trnasducer from which signals will be processed.

a)

Directional

b)

Ranged

21.

Types of fetal heart monitors

a)

Antepartum Monitors

b)

Intrapartum Monitors

c)

Electro Cardiogram Monitors

d)

Antipartum Monitors

22.
  • Used conception to before delivery
  • Has only external monitoring capabilities
  • Used to assess fetal O2 levels
  • Used to assess maternal-fetal exchange
a)

Antepartum Monitors

b)

Intrapartum Monitors

23.

Characteristics of Antepartum Monitors:

a)

Used to measure uterine contractions

b)

Used to assess maternal-fetal exchange

c)

Used conception to before delivery

d)

Has only external monitoring capabilities

e)

Used to assess fetal O2 levels

24.
  • Used during labor and delivery
  • Same capabilities as the other monitor and additional
  • Used in labor and delivery to monitor Uterine Contractions
a)

Antepartum Monitors

b)

Intrapartum Monitors

25.

Characteristics of Intrapartum Monitors:

a)

Used during labor and delivery

b)

Same capabilities as the other monitor and additional

c)

Used in labor and delivery to monitor Uterine Contractions

d)

Has only external monitoring capabilities

e)

Used to assess fetal O2 levels

26.

Additional capabilities of intrapartum monitors include

a)

Internal FECG

b)

Abdominal ECG and Maternal ECG

c)

Phonocardiography

d)

Internal Pressure

e)

Telemetry

27.

FHR average is:

a)

140 bpm

b)

120-160 bpm

c)

>160 bpm

d)

<120 bpm

28.

FHR normal range is:

a)

140 bpm

b)

120-160 bpm

c)

>160 bpm

d)

<120 bpm

29.

FHR Tachycardia is:

a)

140 bpm

b)

120-160 bpm

c)

>160 bpm

d)

<120 bpm

30.

FHR Bradycardia is:

a)

140 bpm

b)

120-160 bpm

c)

>160 bpm

d)

<120 bpm

31.

Uterine Contractions Duration:

a)

30 to 60 seconds

b)

3 to 5 minutes

c)

50 to 75 mmHg

d)

8 to 12 mmHg

32.

Uterine Contractions Frequency:

a)

30 to 60 seconds

b)

3 to 5 minutes

c)

50 to 75 mmHg

d)

8 to 12 mmHg

33.

Uterine Contractions intensity:

a)

30 to 60 seconds

b)

3 to 5 minutes

c)

50 to 75 mmHg

d)

8 to 12 mmHg

34.

Uterine Contractions resting tone (pressure between contractions):

a)

30 to 60 seconds

b)

3 to 5 minutes

c)

50 to 75 mmHg

d)

8 to 12 mmHg

35.

External FHR monitor methods

a)

Doppler

b)

Phono cardiography

c)

Abdominal ECG

d)

Pressure Monitor - Tocotransducer

e)

Pressure Monitor - Intrauterine Catheter

36.

Internal FHR monitor methods

a)

Doppler

b)

Phono cardiography

c)

FHR - Spiral Electrode

d)

Pressure Monitor - Tocotransducer

e)

Pressure Monitor - Intrauterine Catheter

37.

Ext Monitoring characteristics:

  • most common
a)

Doppler ultrasound

b)

Phono cardiography

c)

FHR - Spiral Electrode

d)

Pressure Monitor - Tocotransducer

e)

Pressure Monitor - Intrauterine Catheter

38.

Ext Monitoring characteristics:

  • involves direct detection of sounds emitted by the fetal heart
  • Acoustically sensitive microphone
a)

Doppler ultrasound

b)

Phono cardiography

c)

FHR - Spiral Electrode

d)

Pressure Monitor - Tocotransducer

e)

Pressure Monitor - Intrauterine Catheter

39.

Ext Monitoring characteristics:

  • Large (maternal) and small (fetus) signals
  • Good only 60% of the time
a)

Doppler ultrasound

b)

Phono cardiography

c)

Abdominal ECG

d)

Pressure Monitor - Tocotransducer

e)

Pressure Monitor - Intrauterine Catheter

40.

Ext Monitoring characteristics:

  • used to detect the uterine contractions
  • senses the hardening of the uterine muscle
  • not accurate
a)

Doppler ultrasound

b)

Phono cardiography

c)

Abdominal ECG

d)

Pressure Monitor - Tocotransducer

e)

Pressure Monitor - Intrauterine Catheter

41.

Very rapid (150 - 250 / min) electrical discharge and contraction of the upper chambers of the heart

a)

Atrial Flutter

b)

Biphasic

c)

Cardiogenic Shock

d)

Cardioversion

42.

having two phases

a)

Atrial Flutter

b)

Biphasic

c)

Cardiogenic Shock

d)

Cardioversion

43.

shock resulting from the diminishment of cardiac output

a)

Atrial Flutter

b)

Biphasic

c)

Cardiogenic Shock

d)

Cardioversion

44.

the restoration of the sinus rhythm by electrical shock

a)

Atrial Flutter

b)

Biphasic

c)

Cardiogenic Shock

d)

Cardioversion

45.

electrical termination of fibrillation

a)

Defibrillation

b)

Dysrhythmia

c)

Fibrillation

d)

Joule

46.

Any variation from the normal rhythm of the heart beat

a)

Defibrillation

b)

Dysrhythmia

c)

Fibrillation

d)

Joule

47.

irregular, totally disorganized electrical activeity of the atria or ventricles or both

a)

Defibrillation

b)

Dysrhythmia

c)

Fibrillation

d)

Joule

48.
  • watt second
  • unit of calibration
  • 1 amp flowing for 1 second through 1Ω
a)

Defibrillation

b)

Dysrhythmia

c)

Fibrillation

d)

Joule

49.

having one phase

a)

Monophasic

b)

Myocardial

c)

Stored Energy

d)

Synchronous

50.

Death of the heart muscle tissue

a)

Monophasic

b)

Myocardial

c)

Stored Energy

d)

Synchronous

51.

The energy stored within the defibrillator by the capacitor

a)

Monophasic

b)

Myocardial

c)

Stored Energy

d)

Synchronous

52.

Occurring at the same time

a)

Monophasic

b)

Myocardial

c)

Stored Energy

d)

Synchronous

53.

Types of defibrillators

a)

Manual External Defib

b)

Manual Internal Defib

c)

Automated External Defib

d)

Monophasic

e)

Biphasic

54.

Manual External Defib characteristics

a)

2000 to 4000 volts

b)

delivered for less than 20 msec

c)

used primarily in the operating room during open heart procedures

d)

Output is limited to 50 joules to prevent injury to the exposed heart

e)

used by HCP in conjunction with ECG to determine the voltage and timing of electrical shock

55.

Manual Internal Defib characteristics

a)

2000 to 4000 volts

b)

delivered for less than 20 msec

c)

used primarily in the operating room during open heart procedures

d)

Output is limited to 50 joules to prevent injury to the exposed heart

e)

used by HCP in conjunction with ECG to determine the voltage and timing of electrical shock

56.

Automated External Defib characteristics

a)

2000 to 4000 volts

b)

delivered for less than 20 msec

c)

used primarily in the operating room during open heart procedures

d)

Output is limited to 50 joules to prevent injury to the exposed heart

e)

Do not require a HCP to determine whether or not a rhythm is shockable

57.

Monophasic Defib characteristics

a)

One pulse of electricity

b)

One direction of current flow between the paddles

c)

High amount of energy needed

d)

Output is limited to 50 joules to prevent injury to the exposed heart

e)

Do not require a HCP to determine whether or not a rhythm is shockable

58.

Biphasic Defib characteristics

a)

two directions of flow

b)

Current reverses by changing the polarity of the electrodes in the later part of the shock delivered

c)

High amount of energy needed

d)

Output is limited to 50 joules to prevent injury to the exposed heart

e)

Uses smaller amounts of energy

59.

________ is the progressive weakening of sound waves as it passes through a medium

a)

Reflection

b)

refraction

c)

absorption

d)

attenuation

60.

During syncro-cardioversion, what is the max amount of joules that can be delivered to a PT?

a)

25 J

b)

50 J

c)

100 J

d)

360 J

61.

Which of the following is used as a reference when using a spiral tip electrode?

a)

Metal plate attached to maternal thigh

b)

Rubber plate attached to maternal thigh

c)

Inner plastic tube that penetrates fetal skin

d)

Wound wires attached at the base of the probe

62.

which type of ESU allows for better current control?

a)

monopolar

b)

beam coagulation

c)

bipolar

d)

argon plasma

63.

Which of the following monitoring methods process 2 ECG signals to extract the FHR

a)

Abdominal ECG

b)

Pressure monitoring

c)

Doppler ultrasound

d)

phonocardiography

64.

when are intrapartum monitors used

a)

before delivery

b)

during delivery

c)

after delivery

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