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WorksheetsMicrobiology Practice Final
Total questions: 200
Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins
Acellular microbes include:
Viruses, Viroids, & Prions
Bacteria, Archaea, & Eukarya
Eukaryotes & Prokaryotes
Protozoal parasites & Viruses
Most microbes are measured in centimeters.
True
False
Bacteria are bigger than yeast cells
True
False
Binomial nomenclature: Genus species
Incorrect
Correct
Koch often had problems keeping his culture media solid. What was it missing?
water
petri dish
nutrients
agar
_____________ are used when sterile conditions are needed to keep everything "germ free".
pure culture techniques
aseptic techniques
biogenesis techniques
disinfection techniques
Criteria used to prove that a specific microbe causes a specific disease.
Koch's Postulates
Biogenesis
Spontaneous generation
Binomial nomenclature
The study of mycology focuses on _______________.
bacteri
fungi
archaea
muscles
Diane has a fever of 102.5 degrees F. This is a:
sign
symptom
_____________ are not known to cause disease.
archaea
fungi
bacteria
helminthes
A cell with multiple flagella over its surface:
monotrichous
atrichous
peritrichous
lophotrichous
amphitrichous
All cells have a cell wall.
True
False
A bacterium in a hypotonic solution wants to transport glucose into the cell against its concentration gradient. What process will be used?
facilitated diffusion
aquaporins
group translocation
osmosis
Endospores contain a coating called __________ acid which protects them from lysis.
ammonium
nitrogen
dipicolinic
arsenic
A eukaryotic cell has the following organelles:
nucleus
endoplasmic reticulum
mitochondria
ribosomes
nucleoid
All microbes have DNA.
True
False
Which of the following organelles most resembles a prokaryotic cell?
nucleus
vacuole
mitochondria
golgi body
Gram negative cells are more resistant to antibiotics because they have _________ which pump toxic substances out of the cell.
aquaporins
porins
facilitative channels
peripheral proteins
Capsules protect pathogenic bacteria from ____________, where host cells engulf and destroy microbes.
phagocytosis
endosymbiosis
diffusion
pinocytosis
A bacteria running away from an antibiotic would be spinning its flagella:
clockwise
counter-clockwise
Which of the following is generally not true of prokaryotes?
Reproduce by binary fission
Semi-rigid cell wall
80s ribosomes
Move by means of flagella
Fimbriae and pili differ in that pili:
are used for attachment
are numerous
are composed of pilin
are used for motility and DNA transfer
A waxy lipid coats a bacterium and prevents Gram staining. What test should be performed next?
Gram stain
endospore stain
acid-fast stain
negative stain
In which of the following ways are viruses like bacteria?
Both (all viruses, some bacteria) may be obligate intracellular parasites
Both are unicellular
Both have RNA and DNA
All of these
Most domains consist of prokaryotic organisms.
False
True
Which of the following provides the most significant support for the idea that viruses are nonliving agents?
They cannot reproduce themselves outside of a host.
They are filterable.
They are chemically simple.
They are not composed of cells
Viruses that use reverse transcriptase to make a DNA copy of their genome and then incorporate the viral DNA into the host cell’s DNA are:
Prions
Lytic viruses
Virons
Retroviruses
Prions cause:
Transformation
Plant diseases
Spongiform encephalopathies
Transduction
Some viruses, such as Human Herpes Virus 1, infect a cell without causing symptoms; these are called:
Lytic viruses
Latent viruses
Phages
Slow viruses
Which of the following is acid fast?
Mycobacterium
Clostridium
Mycoplasma
Chlamydia
Biochemical tests indicate the presence of:
Cell wall components
Metabolic pathways
Protein structure
Nucleic acid base composition
Transmission of helminthic diseases to humans is usually by:
Respiratory route.
Gastrointestinal route.
Vectors.
Genitourinary route.
Focuses on interactions of microbes with the biotic & abiotic components of the environment
environmental science
microbial ecology
biotechnology
bioremediation
The most diverse ecological hierarchy is:
ecosystems
populations
the biosphere
communities
Consider a single Cyanobacterium on a maple leaf performing photosynthesis. Oxygen production is its:
ecosystem
niche
habitat
community
Photosynthetic organisms that get their energy from the sun:
producers
consumers
decomposers
detritivores
The main way that energy is "lost" is via ______.
heat
decomposition
energy is never lost
consumerism
Bacteroidetes species live in the human intestine and help break down food for disposal. This interaction is:
mutualism
commensalism
synergism
parasitism
Biogeochemical cycling can incidentally spread contaminants.
True
False
After the Deepwater Horizon oil spill, nutrients were added to the affected areas to allow naturally-occurring microbes to break down the oil. Example of:
biostimulation
bioaugmentation
biodiversity
bioinformatics
What process is used to impart aromas, flavors, & textures to foods like bread, wine, beer, & cheese?
pasteurization
fermentation
polymerization
hybridization
Most enzymatic reactions occur at a temp. and pH of:
37; 7
98.6; 8
37; 6
98.6; 5
Eukaryotic cell respiration occurs in the:
cytoplasm
mitochondria
ribosomes
cell membrane
Prokaryotic cell respiration occurs in the:
cytoplasm
mitochondria
ribosomes
cell membrane
Lipids use the process of ______________ to create acetyl CoA.
beta-oxidation
glycolysis
urea cycle
glycogenolysis
All three energy-producing biomolecules use _____________ as an intermediate molecule that enters the CAC.
glucose
acetyl CoA
NADH
ATP
Cyanobacteria absorb sunlight to create C6H12O6, H2O, and O2. What form of metabolism do they utilize?
fermentation
photosynthesis
beta-oxidation
aerobic cell respiration
In fermentation, ATP is generated via:
Oxidative phosphorylation
Substrate level phosphorylation
Photophosphorylation
Magic
Proteins use the process of ______________ to create acetyl CoA.
glycogenolysis
glycolysis
beta-oxidation
urea cycle
Most ATP molecules are produced during which phase of aerobic respiration?
electron transport chain
glycolysis
Kreb's cycle
fermentation
Bacteria eat using:
extracellular digestion
phagocytosis
pinocytosis
animal digestion
When using ATP to power cell function, a _____ enzyme is used.
kinase
phosphatase
lipase
glycosylase
Most binary fission occurs.
Lag
Log
Stationary
Death
Long-term Stationary (LTS)
Spores are formed or new protective genes are activated.
Lag
Log
Stationary
Death
Long-term Stationary (LTS)
Chemicals released by bacteria in a biofilm that allow quorum sensing:
neurotransmitters
chemotaxants
autoinducers
planktonic juices
Bacteria growing in lab environments form:
colonies
gangs
spores
biofilms
The biosafety level (BSL) of most introductory microbiology labs is:
BSL-1
BSL-4
BSL-2
BSL-3
B:
obligate aerobe
obligate anaerobe
facultative anaerobe
microaerophile
aerotolerant
The two most common types of media used in the laboratory are:
chemically defined & simple
agar & broth
simple & complex
differential & selective
Which of the following are not associated with food spoilage?
none of these cause food spoilage
archaea
hyperthermophiles
psychrophiles
Is H2O2 (hydrogen peroxide) toxic?
No
Yes, it is always toxic
Not if you produce catalase and peroxidase
Not if you produce superoxide dismutase
CO2 incubators are used to grow:
capnophiles
aerobes
obligate aerobes
viruses
Which of the following conditions do you think would present the greatest problem for bacterial survival?
hypotonic solution
low temperature
neutral pH
hypertonic solution
Which of the following would grow slower:
a lab culture of E. coli
the normal microbiota of the colon
Psychrotroph:
microbes that grow at >80 degrees Celsius
microbes that grow between 20-30 degrees Celsius
microbes that grow between 50-60 degrees Celsius
microbes that grow between -20 & 19 degrees Celsius
microbes that grow between 25-40 degrees Celsius
Acidophile:
microbes that grow best at pH>7
microbes that grow best at pH<7
microbes that grow best at pH=7
Which phase of binary fission involves the splitting of one cell into two after z-ring formation?
r-phase
s-phase
d-phase
i-phase
dispersion
irreversible attachment
reversible attachment
maturation 1
maturation 2
Which of the following processes does not involve bacteriophages?
lysogenic conversion
transformation
transduction
lytic cycle
Prokaryotic and eukaryotic chromosomes are different in that:
Eukaryotic chromosomes lack introns
Prokaryotic chromosomes are circular
Prokaryotic chromosomes consist of chromosomal RNA
Prokaryotic chromosomes are single stranded
In transcription:
DNA polymerase replicates DNA
Ribosomes make amino acids
RNA polymerase makes tRNA
DNA makes mRNA
Enzyme that splits lactose:
Transacetylase
Allolactose
Beta-galactosidase
Lac permease
A point mutation will always change the product coded for by the gene in which the mutation occurs.
True
False
Supercoiling in bacteria is accomplished using histones.
True
False
Most DNA replication occurs during the ____ phase of microbial growth.
LAG
Death
Stationary
LOG
The start codon in euks and proks is _______.
UAA
AUG
UAG
UUU
Topoisomerase/Gyrase:
unzips the double helix
relaxes the DNA strands
keeps DNA strands separated during replication
adds nucleotides/ proofreads DNA
binds to promoter and initiates transcription
Photolyase:
separates pyrimidine (T/C) dimers
joins Okazaki fragments on lagging strand
keeps DNA strands separated during replication
synthesizes primer on the lagging strand for DNA polymerase binding
binds to promoter and initiates transcription
Set of operator and promotor sites and the structural genes they control:
operon
transducer
transformer
transposer
When a sex pilus or mating bridge is used to transfer genes between organisms:
transduction
conjugation
transposon
bacteriophage
Soaps and detergents are examples of:
Phenols
Tinctures
Halogens
Surface active agents
The pasteurization technique used for immediate cold-storage products (AKA milk, yogurt, ice cream…) is termed _________________________.
HTST
UHT
Chemical sterilization
Biocidal pasteurization
Which of the following is most resistant to microbial control methods?
Prions
Gram positive bacteria
Gram negative bacteria
Acid-fast bacteria
The most effective concentration of alcohol to control bacterial growth is:
50%
70%
100%
85%
Bacteria are more sensitive to acidic environments than fungi.
True
False
Heavy metals (Ag, Hg, Cu, Zn) and their compounds work by ________________.
oligodynamic action
denaturation
lysing the cell membrane
both oligodynamic action & denaturation
O-phenylphenol, hexachlorphene, and triclosan are all examples of:
phenols
alcohols
halogens
surface-active agents
Nosocomial infections are those acquired from:
hospitals
nursing homes
outpatient clinics
all of these
Before injecting a patient, you should __________ the skin.
disinfect
degerm
sanitize
sterilize
In order to effectively kill endospores, virus particles, and fungi, autoclaves must:
Reach 121ºC at 15 psi for 30 min
Reach 121ºC at 15 psi for 15 min
Reach 150ºC at 25 psi for 30 min
Reach 150ºC at 15 psi for 15 min
Gram positive organisms are more resistant to control agents than Gram negative.
True
False
Refrigeration and incubation are both:
Long-term preservation techniques
Short-term preservation techniques
Used for embalming:
bleach
triclosan
aldehydes
tetracycline
When two drugs are given simultaneously and work better together:
commensalism
antagonism
synergism
symbiosis
Antibiotics that target bacterial translation denature the:
nucleus
70s ribosome
80s ribosome
nucleoid
According to the chemotherapeutic index, the larger the number, the safer the drug
True
False
_________________________ is a set of undesirable reactions produced by the normal immune system, including drug allergies and autoimmunity.
selective toxicity
hypersensitivity
allergies
resistance
One disadvantage of using broad spectrum antibiotics is that they:
target host cells
destroy normal microbiota
are easily inactivated by the host
are extremely toxic
If you measure a large zone of inhibition in a disk-diffusion test, one can assume that the bacteria are:
Producing the antibiotic
Sensitive to the antibiotic
Unaffected by the antibiotic
Resistant to the antibiotic
An antibiotic that attacks both G+ and G- cells would be expected to have a narrow spectrum of activity.
True
False
Which of the following antimicrobials has the broadest spectrum of activity?
streptomycin
isoniazid
penicillin
tetracycline
A “fake nucleotide” that acts as a DNA/RNA inhibitor:
faucleotide
cytosine dimer
nucleoside analog
thymine dimer
The ability of antibiotics to target specific microbial structures without harming the host is termed _________________________.
Anaphylaxis
Selective toxicity
Hypersensitivity
Resistance
________________, ________________, and _______________ are the main components in topical ointments like Neosporin.
bacitracin, neomycin, polymyxin-B
bacitracin, neomycin, imidizole
peuromutilins, neomycin, polymyxin-B
tetracycline, neomycin, pleuromutilins
Some Gram + bacteria contain an enzyme called _____________ that breaks down penicillin’s beta-lactam ring.
penicillinase
beta-lactamase
beta-galactosidase
both beta-lactamase & penicillinase
If a patient is allergic to penicillin, ___________ is prescribed.
cephalosporin
tetracycline
bacitracin
isoniazid
Topical treatment used against G+ bacteria.
bacitracin
polymyxin B
vancomycin
penicillin
Danny has tuberculosis, which of the following would be the best treatment?
isoniazid
penicillin
vancimysin
augmentin
Inhibits folic acid synthesis:
sulfonamides
methicillin
isoniazid
amphotericin B
Which of the following target fungal cell walls?
amphotericin B
quinine
polymyxin B
penicillin
Treats malaria:
niclosamide
sulfonamide
isoniazid
quinine
Bacteria require resistance genes via _________ & __________.
mutation; HGT
mutation; VGT
VGT; HGT
None of these
Antibiotic-associated diarrhea is caused by:
Clostridium difficile
Escherichia coli
Helicobacter pylori
More than one of these
Antibiotic resistance refers to a host's ability to survive treatment by resisting the antibiotic.
True
False
Natural, chemical, and synthetic drugs that combat disease in the body.
chemotherapeutic agents
antibiotics
prescriptions
persisters
Microbes can resist drugs by:
inactivation
ejection
alteration
all of these
__________________ vaccines are deliberately weakened cell cultures that closely mimic an actual infection and tend to provide better immunity; booster shots are examples.
attenuated
conjugated
live
protein-based
Unlike influenza, tuberculosis symptoms develop slowly and are less severe, but are continuous or recurrent for long periods of time. Tuberculosis is a(n) ____________________ disease.
latent
chronic
acute
serious
Biological transmission differs from mechanical transmission in that biological transmission
occurs when a pathogen is carried on the feet of an insect.
involves fomites.
involves reproduction of a pathogen in an arthropod vector prior to transmission.
requires direct contact.
__________________ are standard precautions that allow medical personnel to avoid contact with blood, body fluids, excretions, secretions.
PPE
labcoats
goggles
gloves
The rise in herd immunity among a population can be directly attributed to:
improved handwashing.
increased use of antibiotics.
antibiotic-resistant microbes
vaccinations
Toxic inflammatory condition arising from the spread of microbes, especially bacteria or their toxins are termed:
shock
sepsis
bacteremia
septicemia
__________________ are animals that carry pathogens from one host to another; many are arthropods.
vectors
reservoirs
fomites
hosts
Which of the following is NOT a reservoir of infection?
a sick person
a healthy person
a sheep
All are reservoirs
Which of the following is NOT a communicable disease?
tetanus
tuberculosis
HIV
syphilis
Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT?
pandemic: a disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time
epidemic: a disease that is endemic across the world
endemic: a disease that is constantly present in a population
sporadic: a disease that affects a population occasionally
__________________ is the incidence of a specific notifiable disease, whereas __________________ is the number of deaths resulting from a notifiable disease.
morbidity; mortality
mortality; morbidity
An___________________ individual is one whose resistance to infection is impaired by disease, therapy, or burns.
ill
immunocompromised
overtreated
hypersensitive
Which of the following is a fomite?
insects
droplets from a sneeze
water
hypodermic needle
Number of new cases of a disease compared to individuals at risk in a population:
mortality
incidence
morbidity
prevalence
Emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of the following EXCEPT:
The emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of these.
ease of travel
climatic changes.
antibiotic resistance.
Tammie is being treated for a verified case of strep throat, but her throat is getting worse. She goes to the doctor again and is diagnosed with oral thrush. What type of infection is being caused by Candida albicans?
primary infection
secondary infection
septic infection
misdiagnosed infection
The organization responsible for overseeing international health issues and monitoring worldwide disease occurrences is the :
CDC
WHO
EUHSC
Ministry of Magic
Craig got a deep paper cut and his finger-tip became inflamed. He did not treat the cut and now, 2 weeks later, his whole body hurts. He is tired and pale. What type of infection is this?
local
focal
systemic
accidental
During the period of illness, what phases of growth are bacteria most likely undergoing?
lag & log
log & stationary
stationary & death
lag & stationary
Health professionals that interact with patients and may accidentally contaminate them are considered ___________carriers.
passive
convalescent
nosocomial
asymptomatic
You are an epidemiologist at the CDC. You have four possible outbreaks to investigate. Which needs the most immediate attention?
18 cases of gonorrhea
300 cases of rhinovirus
2 cases of rabies
all are of equal importance
During flu season, in a population of 32,000 individuals, 96 people became infected, and of those, 77 people died. What is the mortality rate?
77/32,000
96/32,000
77/96
None of these
The common cold is always present in the human population. This is a(n) _______ disease.
epidemic
endemic
pandemic
sporadic
The two most contagious stages of disease are:
incubation and convalenscence
incubation and illness
illness and decline
prodromal and illness
The mouth, nose, urinary tract, and open wounds are:
portals of entry
portals of exit
both portals of entry & exit
Chance of transmission is highest for diseases transmitted via direct contact
True
False
When does an infected individual begin to have signs/symptoms of disease?
period of incubation
prodromal period
period of illness
period of decline
Outbreak investigations do not involve:
detecting the source of infection
interviewing those infected
recalling food and products
infecting healthy individual to see if they get the same illness
Which of the following are types of epidemiological control methods?
Reduce or eliminate source or reservoir of infection
Break connection between source and susceptible individual
Reduce number of susceptible individuals
All of these are control methods
Outbreaks end when:
there are no susceptible individuals
there is no more source of infection
the pathogen becomes less pathogenic
all of these
This organization collects and analyzes epidemiological information in the United States.
CDC
WHO
EU
OSHA
Theory that sought to blame disease on "bad air".
miasmatic
spontaneous generation
biogenesis
relativity
_______________ is the cause of a particular disease.
etiology
pathology
infection
microbial type
The sticky carbohydrate-based component of a biofilm that allows bacteria to resist the actions of disinfectants is termed the _______________________.
Cell wall
Ribosome
Nucleoid
Glycocalyx
Memory B cells are a part of the body’s:
2nd line of defense
3rd line of defense
1st line of defense
All of these
The pyrogenic response is usually part of the body’s:
2nd line of defense
3rd line of defense
1st line of defense
All of these
Which of the following is FALSE about mucous membranes?
Contain glycoproteins
Secretions have neutral pH
Found in the ear, eye, genitourinary, gastrointestinal, and respiratory tract
Are found near portals of entry and exit
Sarah’s differential count is 12,650 WBCs/mm3. The normal range is 5,000 - 10,000 WBCs/mm3. What may this number indicate:
Bacterial infections or side effects of medications
Viral infections, pneumonia, or cancers
During inflammation, phagocytes squeeze between endothelial cells of blood vessels using:
Diapedesis
Margination
Vasodilation
Prostiglandins
Which of the following bacteria is more susceptible to the membrane attack complex (MAC):
Gram negative
Gram positive
Mycolic acid
Cells that trigger apoptosis of host cells during viral infections and cancer:
Eosinophils
Mast cells
Natural killer cells
Dendritic cells
Which organ monitors blood for microbes and toxins.
Spleen
Liver
Blood
Lymph
Phagocytes are part of BOTH the innate and adaptive immune systems.
True
False
All three complement pathways can utilize C1-C9 proteins depending on the microbe present.
True
False
The innate system is activated by protein receptors in defensive cells which release _________; immune response regulators.
histamines
kinins
kinases
cytokines
The protective protein of the epidermis that aids in waterproofing the skin, hair, and nails is termed _______.
keratin
dermis
adipose
actin
Enzyme in water-based bodily secretions that hydrolyzes bonds in peptidoglycan:
coagulase
lysozyme
hydrolase
kinase
Bone marrow is responsible for creating the formed elements of blood via the process of ________.
lymphopoiesis
anticoagulase
hematopoiesis
coagulase
Glycoprotein responsible for keeping membranes moist and trapping microbes:
Tears
Blood
Mucus
Lysozyme
Which of the following is true regarding immunity?
Innate immunity has memory. It becomes more effective over time.
Adaptive immunity is specific for certain types of pathogens.
Innate immunity is only found in vertebrates.
Adaptive immunity is the first to respond to an infection
Immunological memory is part of:
adaptive immunity
innate immunity
Receptors on microbial cells that interact with host cells:
toll-like receptors
pathogen-associated molecular patterns
cadherin
adhesin
Normal microbiota compete with pathogens via microbial _______.
synergism
antagonism
commensalism
parasitism
Granulocyte responsible for protecting against worms:
basophils
eosinophils
neutrophils
monocytes
Phagocytes digest microbes within a:
lysosome
phagocyte
phagolysosome
vacuole
Scar tissue is formed via __________.
fibrosis
parenchyma
stroma
hematopoiesis
All three complement pathways trigger cytolysis, opsonization, and inflammation.
True
False
The classical pathway uses which proteins:
c1, c2, c3, & c4
c2, c3, & c4
c3
c3, c5, c6, c7, c8, c9
c3 & c5
The alternative pathway uses which proteins:
c1, c2, c3, & c4
c2, c3, & c4
c3
c3, c5, c6, c7, c8, c9
c3 & c5
The cytolysis pathway uses which proteins:
c1, c2, c3, & c4
c2, c3, & c4
c3
c3, c5, c6, c7, c8, c9
c3 & c5
Chemotactic factors:
allow motility
attract phagocytes to an infection
break down therapeutic drugs
reduce fevers
____________ warn host cells of a viral infection.
Interferons
Phagocytes
Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Most microbes enter the body through the:
The anal route
The parenteral route
The gastrointestinal route
The respiratory route
Which type of adaptive immunity focuses on extracellular pathogens, e.g. bacteria?
Cell-mediated
Innate
Antigen-specific
Humoral
Which of these statements is true for the leukocytes?
Leukocytes are red blood cells.
Basophils secrete histamine and are involved in inflammation
Neutrophils are part of adaptive immunity.
Eosinophils are professional phagocytes.
Which type of MHC would you find on macrophages?
MHC-I
MHC-2
MHC-3
All of these
Which type of MHC would you find on a liver cell?
MHC-I
MHC-2
MHC-3
All of these
Which of the following clusters of differentiation interact with B-cells?
CD4+
CD8+
TH17
TH2
Responsible for protecting intestinal microbiota against immune cells.
Interleukins
Cytotoxic T-cells
T-helper cells
T-regulatory cells
Method used by the immune system to attack large pathogens.
Apoptosis
ADCC
Blebbing
Inflammation
__________________ memory occurs after the second exposure to an antigen.
Anamnestic
IgM
Memory
IgG
Becky contracts chickenpox after babysitting kids in the neighborhood. What type of immunity does she have?
Artificially acquired active
Naturally acquired active
Artificially acquired passive
Naturally acquired passive
Which antibody is released in the greatest amounts after second exposure to a specific antigen?
IgA
IgM
IgG
IgE
Which is NOT true regarding cell-mediated immunity?
Produces antibodies that combat foreign antigens
Involves T cells
Fight extracellular pathogens
Associated cells are matured in thymus
All antigens are microbial.
True
False
Common in mucous membranes, saliva, tears, and breast milk:
IgM
IgG
IgA
IgE
IgD
B cells that cannot self-discriminate go through the process of:
clonal selection
clonal deletion
thymic selection
hematopoiesis
Coating of antigen with antibody to increase phagocytoisis:
Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)
Opsonization
Neutralization
Agglutination
Activation of complement
CD8 T cells are also called:
B-cells
T-cytotoxic cells
T-helper cells
Red blood cells
Bind to MHCII on APC's and interact directly with antigens:
CD8
CD4
The relative amount of antibody in the host's serum:
Antibody titer
Anamnestic memory
Serology
Antiserum
Some immune cells work in both innate and adaptive immune responses.
True
False
Antibodies are created using:
clonal selection
thymic selection
hematopoiesis
binary fission
Common in humoral response; found on B cells:
IgM
IgG
IgA
IgE
IgD
