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Microbiology Practice Final

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Acellular microbes include:

a)

Viruses, Viroids, & Prions

b)

Bacteria, Archaea, & Eukarya

c)

Eukaryotes & Prokaryotes

d)

Protozoal parasites & Viruses

2.

Most microbes are measured in centimeters.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Bacteria are bigger than yeast cells

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Binomial nomenclature: Genus species

a)

Incorrect

b)

Correct

5.

Koch often had problems keeping his culture media solid. What was it missing?

a)

water

b)

petri dish

c)

nutrients

d)

agar

6.

_____________ are used when sterile conditions are needed to keep everything "germ free".

a)

pure culture techniques

b)

aseptic techniques

c)

biogenesis techniques

d)

disinfection techniques

7.

Criteria used to prove that a specific microbe causes a specific disease.

a)

Koch's Postulates

b)

Biogenesis

c)

Spontaneous generation

d)

Binomial nomenclature

8.

The study of mycology focuses on _______________.

a)

bacteri

b)

fungi

c)

archaea

d)

muscles

9.

Diane has a fever of 102.5 degrees F. This is a:

a)

sign

b)

symptom

10.

_____________ are not known to cause disease.

a)

archaea

b)

fungi

c)

bacteria

d)

helminthes

11.

A cell with multiple flagella over its surface:

a)

monotrichous

b)

atrichous

c)

peritrichous

d)

lophotrichous

e)

amphitrichous

12.

All cells have a cell wall.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

A bacterium in a hypotonic solution wants to transport glucose into the cell against its concentration gradient. What process will be used?

a)

facilitated diffusion

b)

aquaporins

c)

group translocation

d)

osmosis

14.

Endospores contain a coating called __________ acid which protects them from lysis.

a)

ammonium

b)

nitrogen

c)

dipicolinic

d)

arsenic

15.

A eukaryotic cell has the following organelles:

a)

nucleus

b)

endoplasmic reticulum

c)

mitochondria

d)

ribosomes

e)

nucleoid

16.

All microbes have DNA.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

Which of the following organelles most resembles a prokaryotic cell?

a)

nucleus

b)

vacuole

c)

mitochondria

d)

golgi body

18.

Gram negative cells are more resistant to antibiotics because they have _________ which pump toxic substances out of the cell.

a)

aquaporins

b)

porins

c)

facilitative channels

d)

peripheral proteins

19.

Capsules protect pathogenic bacteria from ____________, where host cells engulf and destroy microbes.

a)

phagocytosis

b)

endosymbiosis

c)

diffusion

d)

pinocytosis

20.

A bacteria running away from an antibiotic would be spinning its flagella:

a)

clockwise

b)

counter-clockwise

21.

Which of the following is generally not true of prokaryotes?

a)

Reproduce by binary fission

b)

Semi-rigid cell wall

c)

80s ribosomes

d)

Move by means of flagella

22.

Fimbriae and pili differ in that pili:

a)

are used for attachment

b)

are numerous

c)

are composed of pilin

d)

are used for motility and DNA transfer

23.

A waxy lipid coats a bacterium and prevents Gram staining. What test should be performed next?

a)

Gram stain

b)

endospore stain

c)

acid-fast stain

d)

negative stain

24.

In which of the following ways are viruses like bacteria?

a)

Both (all viruses, some bacteria) may be obligate intracellular parasites

b)

Both are unicellular

c)

Both have RNA and DNA

d)

All of these

25.

Most domains consist of prokaryotic organisms.

a)

False

b)

True

26.

Which of the following provides the most significant support for the idea that viruses are nonliving agents?

a)

They cannot reproduce themselves outside of a host.

b)

They are filterable.

c)

They are chemically simple.

d)

They are not composed of cells

27.

Viruses that use reverse transcriptase to make a DNA copy of their genome and then incorporate the viral DNA into the host cell’s DNA are:

a)

Prions

b)

Lytic viruses

c)

Virons

d)

Retroviruses

28.

Prions cause:

a)

Transformation

b)

Plant diseases

c)

Spongiform encephalopathies

d)

Transduction

29.

Some viruses, such as Human Herpes Virus 1, infect a cell without causing symptoms; these are called:

a)

Lytic viruses

b)

Latent viruses

c)

Phages

d)

Slow viruses

30.

Which of the following is acid fast?

a)

Mycobacterium

b)

Clostridium

c)

Mycoplasma

d)

Chlamydia

31.

Biochemical tests indicate the presence of:

a)

Cell wall components

b)

Metabolic pathways

c)

Protein structure

d)

Nucleic acid base composition

32.

Transmission of helminthic diseases to humans is usually by:

a)

Respiratory route.

b)

Gastrointestinal route.

c)

Vectors.

d)

Genitourinary route.

33.

Focuses on interactions of microbes with the biotic & abiotic components of the environment

a)

environmental science

b)

microbial ecology

c)

biotechnology

d)

bioremediation

34.

The most diverse ecological hierarchy is:

a)

ecosystems

b)

populations

c)

the biosphere

d)

communities

35.

Consider a single Cyanobacterium on a maple leaf performing photosynthesis. Oxygen production is its:

a)

ecosystem

b)

niche

c)

habitat

d)

community

36.

Photosynthetic organisms that get their energy from the sun:

a)

producers

b)

consumers

c)

decomposers

d)

detritivores

37.

The main way that energy is "lost" is via ______.

a)

heat

b)

decomposition

c)

energy is never lost

d)

consumerism

38.

Bacteroidetes species live in the human intestine and help break down food for disposal. This interaction is:

a)

mutualism

b)

commensalism

c)

synergism

d)

parasitism

39.

Biogeochemical cycling can incidentally spread contaminants.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

After the Deepwater Horizon oil spill, nutrients were added to the affected areas to allow naturally-occurring microbes to break down the oil. Example of:

a)

biostimulation

b)

bioaugmentation

c)

biodiversity

d)

bioinformatics

41.

What process is used to impart aromas, flavors, & textures to foods like bread, wine, beer, & cheese?

a)

pasteurization

b)

fermentation

c)

polymerization

d)

hybridization

42.

Most enzymatic reactions occur at a temp. and pH of:

a)

37; 7

b)

98.6; 8

c)

37; 6

d)

98.6; 5

43.

Eukaryotic cell respiration occurs in the:

a)

cytoplasm

b)

mitochondria

c)

ribosomes

d)

cell membrane

44.

Prokaryotic cell respiration occurs in the:

a)

cytoplasm

b)

mitochondria

c)

ribosomes

d)

cell membrane

45.

Lipids use the process of ______________ to create acetyl CoA.

a)

beta-oxidation

b)

glycolysis

c)

urea cycle

d)

glycogenolysis

46.

All three energy-producing biomolecules use _____________ as an intermediate molecule that enters the CAC.

a)

glucose

b)

acetyl CoA

c)

NADH

d)

ATP

47.

Cyanobacteria absorb sunlight to create C6H12O6, H2O, and O2. What form of metabolism do they utilize?

a)

fermentation

b)

photosynthesis

c)

beta-oxidation

d)

aerobic cell respiration

48.

In fermentation, ATP is generated via:

a)

Oxidative phosphorylation

b)

Substrate level phosphorylation

c)

Photophosphorylation

d)

Magic

49.

Proteins use the process of ______________ to create acetyl CoA.

a)

glycogenolysis

b)

glycolysis

c)

beta-oxidation

d)

urea cycle

50.

Most ATP molecules are produced during which phase of aerobic respiration?

a)

electron transport chain

b)

glycolysis

c)

Kreb's cycle

d)

fermentation

51.

Bacteria eat using:

a)

extracellular digestion

b)

phagocytosis

c)

pinocytosis

d)

animal digestion

52.

When using ATP to power cell function, a _____ enzyme is used.

a)

kinase

b)

phosphatase

c)

lipase

d)

glycosylase

53.

Most binary fission occurs.

a)

Lag

b)

Log

c)

Stationary

d)

Death

e)

Long-term Stationary (LTS)

54.

Spores are formed or new protective genes are activated.

a)

Lag

b)

Log

c)

Stationary

d)

Death

e)

Long-term Stationary (LTS)

55.

Chemicals released by bacteria in a biofilm that allow quorum sensing:

a)

neurotransmitters

b)

chemotaxants

c)

autoinducers

d)

planktonic juices

56.

Bacteria growing in lab environments form:

a)

colonies

b)

gangs

c)

spores

d)

biofilms

57.

The biosafety level (BSL) of most introductory microbiology labs is:

a)

BSL-1

b)

BSL-4

c)

BSL-2

d)

BSL-3

58.

B:

a)

obligate aerobe

b)

obligate anaerobe

c)

facultative anaerobe

d)

microaerophile

e)

aerotolerant

59.

The two most common types of media used in the laboratory are:

a)

chemically defined & simple

b)

agar & broth

c)

simple & complex

d)

differential & selective

60.

Which of the following are not associated with food spoilage?

a)

none of these cause food spoilage

b)

archaea

c)

hyperthermophiles

d)

psychrophiles

61.

Is H2O2 (hydrogen peroxide) toxic?

a)

No

b)

Yes, it is always toxic

c)

Not if you produce catalase and peroxidase

d)

Not if you produce superoxide dismutase

62.

CO2 incubators are used to grow:

a)

capnophiles

b)

aerobes

c)

obligate aerobes

d)

viruses

63.

Which of the following conditions do you think would present the greatest problem for bacterial survival?

a)

hypotonic solution

b)

low temperature

c)

neutral pH

d)

hypertonic solution

64.

Which of the following would grow slower:

a)

a lab culture of E. coli

b)

the normal microbiota of the colon

65.

Psychrotroph:

a)

microbes that grow at >80 degrees Celsius

b)

microbes that grow between 20-30 degrees Celsius

c)

microbes that grow between 50-60 degrees Celsius

d)

microbes that grow between -20 & 19 degrees Celsius

e)

microbes that grow between 25-40 degrees Celsius

66.

Acidophile:

a)

microbes that grow best at pH>7

b)

microbes that grow best at pH<7

c)

microbes that grow best at pH=7

67.

Which phase of binary fission involves the splitting of one cell into two after z-ring formation?

a)

r-phase

b)

s-phase

c)

d-phase

d)

i-phase

68.
a)

dispersion

b)

irreversible attachment

c)

reversible attachment

d)

maturation 1

e)

maturation 2

69.

Which of the following processes does not involve bacteriophages?

a)

lysogenic conversion

b)

transformation

c)

transduction

d)

lytic cycle

70.

Prokaryotic and eukaryotic chromosomes are different in that:

a)

Eukaryotic chromosomes lack introns

b)

Prokaryotic chromosomes are circular

c)

Prokaryotic chromosomes consist of chromosomal RNA

d)

Prokaryotic chromosomes are single stranded

71.

In transcription:

a)

DNA polymerase replicates DNA

b)

Ribosomes make amino acids

c)

RNA polymerase makes tRNA

d)

DNA makes mRNA

72.

Enzyme that splits lactose:

a)

Transacetylase

b)

Allolactose

c)

Beta-galactosidase

d)

Lac permease

73.

A point mutation will always change the product coded for by the gene in which the mutation occurs.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Supercoiling in bacteria is accomplished using histones.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Most DNA replication occurs during the ____ phase of microbial growth.

a)

LAG

b)

Death

c)

Stationary

d)

LOG

76.

The start codon in euks and proks is _______.

a)

UAA

b)

AUG

c)

UAG

d)

UUU

77.

Topoisomerase/Gyrase:

a)

unzips the double helix

b)

relaxes the DNA strands

c)

keeps DNA strands separated during replication

d)

adds nucleotides/ proofreads DNA

e)

binds to promoter and initiates transcription

78.

Photolyase:

a)

separates pyrimidine (T/C) dimers

b)

joins Okazaki fragments on lagging strand

c)

keeps DNA strands separated during replication

d)

synthesizes primer on the lagging strand for DNA polymerase binding

e)

binds to promoter and initiates transcription

79.

Set of operator and promotor sites and the structural genes they control:

a)

operon

b)

transducer

c)

transformer

d)

transposer

80.

When a sex pilus or mating bridge is used to transfer genes between organisms:

a)

transduction

b)

conjugation

c)

transposon

d)

bacteriophage

81.

Soaps and detergents are examples of:

a)

Phenols

b)

Tinctures

c)

Halogens

d)

Surface active agents

82.

The pasteurization technique used for immediate cold-storage products (AKA milk, yogurt, ice cream…) is termed _________________________.

a)

HTST

b)

UHT

c)

Chemical sterilization

d)

Biocidal pasteurization

83.

Which of the following is most resistant to microbial control methods?

a)

Prions

b)

Gram positive bacteria

c)

Gram negative bacteria

d)

Acid-fast bacteria

84.

The most effective concentration of alcohol to control bacterial growth is:

a)

50%

b)

70%

c)

100%

d)

85%

85.

Bacteria are more sensitive to acidic environments than fungi.

a)

True

b)

False

86.

Heavy metals (Ag, Hg, Cu, Zn) and their compounds work by ________________.

a)

oligodynamic action

b)

denaturation

c)

lysing the cell membrane

d)

both oligodynamic action & denaturation

87.

O-phenylphenol, hexachlorphene, and triclosan are all examples of:

a)

phenols

b)

alcohols

c)

halogens

d)

surface-active agents

88.

Nosocomial infections are those acquired from:

a)

hospitals

b)

nursing homes

c)

outpatient clinics

d)

all of these

89.

Before injecting a patient, you should __________ the skin.

a)

disinfect

b)

degerm

c)

sanitize

d)

sterilize

90.

In order to effectively kill endospores, virus particles, and fungi, autoclaves must:

a)

Reach 121ºC at 15 psi for 30 min

b)

Reach 121ºC at 15 psi for 15 min

c)

Reach 150ºC at 25 psi for 30 min

d)

Reach 150ºC at 15 psi for 15 min

91.

Gram positive organisms are more resistant to control agents than Gram negative.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

Refrigeration and incubation are both:

a)

Long-term preservation techniques

b)

Short-term preservation techniques

93.

Used for embalming:

a)

bleach

b)

triclosan

c)

aldehydes

d)

tetracycline

94.

When two drugs are given simultaneously and work better together:

a)

commensalism

b)

antagonism

c)

synergism

d)

symbiosis

95.

Antibiotics that target bacterial translation denature the:

a)

nucleus

b)

70s ribosome

c)

80s ribosome

d)

nucleoid

96.

According to the chemotherapeutic index, the larger the number, the safer the drug

a)

True

b)

False

97.

_________________________ is a set of undesirable reactions produced by the normal immune system, including drug allergies and autoimmunity.

a)

selective toxicity

b)

hypersensitivity

c)

allergies

d)

resistance

98.

One disadvantage of using broad spectrum antibiotics is that they:

a)

target host cells

b)

destroy normal microbiota

c)

are easily inactivated by the host

d)

are extremely toxic

99.

If you measure a large zone of inhibition in a disk-diffusion test, one can assume that the bacteria are:

a)

Producing the antibiotic

b)

Sensitive to the antibiotic

c)

Unaffected by the antibiotic

d)

Resistant to the antibiotic

100.

An antibiotic that attacks both G+ and G- cells would be expected to have a narrow spectrum of activity.

a)

True

b)

False

101.

Which of the following antimicrobials has the broadest spectrum of activity?

a)

streptomycin

b)

isoniazid

c)

penicillin

d)

tetracycline

102.

A “fake nucleotide” that acts as a DNA/RNA inhibitor:

a)

faucleotide

b)

cytosine dimer

c)

nucleoside analog

d)

thymine dimer

103.

The ability of antibiotics to target specific microbial structures without harming the host is termed _________________________.

a)

Anaphylaxis

b)

Selective toxicity

c)

Hypersensitivity

d)

Resistance

104.

________________, ________________, and _______________ are the main components in topical ointments like Neosporin.

a)

bacitracin, neomycin, polymyxin-B

b)

bacitracin, neomycin, imidizole

c)

peuromutilins, neomycin, polymyxin-B

d)

tetracycline, neomycin, pleuromutilins

105.

Some Gram + bacteria contain an enzyme called _____________ that breaks down penicillin’s beta-lactam ring.

a)

penicillinase

b)

beta-lactamase

c)

beta-galactosidase

d)

both beta-lactamase & penicillinase

106.

If a patient is allergic to penicillin, ___________ is prescribed.

a)

cephalosporin

b)

tetracycline

c)

bacitracin

d)

isoniazid

107.

Topical treatment used against G+ bacteria.

a)

bacitracin

b)

polymyxin B

c)

vancomycin

d)

penicillin

108.

Danny has tuberculosis, which of the following would be the best treatment?

a)

isoniazid

b)

penicillin

c)

vancimysin

d)

augmentin

109.

Inhibits folic acid synthesis:

a)

sulfonamides

b)

methicillin

c)

isoniazid

d)

amphotericin B

110.

Which of the following target fungal cell walls?

a)

amphotericin B

b)

quinine

c)

polymyxin B

d)

penicillin

111.

Treats malaria:

a)

niclosamide

b)

sulfonamide

c)

isoniazid

d)

quinine

112.

Bacteria require resistance genes via _________ & __________.

a)

mutation; HGT

b)

mutation; VGT

c)

VGT; HGT

d)

None of these

113.

Antibiotic-associated diarrhea is caused by:

a)

Clostridium difficile

b)

Escherichia coli

c)

Helicobacter pylori

d)

More than one of these

114.

Antibiotic resistance refers to a host's ability to survive treatment by resisting the antibiotic.

a)

True

b)

False

115.

Natural, chemical, and synthetic drugs that combat disease in the body.

a)

chemotherapeutic agents

b)

antibiotics

c)

prescriptions

d)

persisters

116.

Microbes can resist drugs by:

a)

inactivation

b)

ejection

c)

alteration

d)

all of these

117.

__________________ vaccines are deliberately weakened cell cultures that closely mimic an actual infection and tend to provide better immunity; booster shots are examples.

a)

attenuated

b)

conjugated

c)

live

d)

protein-based

118.

Unlike influenza, tuberculosis symptoms develop slowly and are less severe, but are continuous or recurrent for long periods of time. Tuberculosis is a(n) ____________________ disease.

a)

latent

b)

chronic

c)

acute

d)

serious

119.

Biological transmission differs from mechanical transmission in that biological transmission

a)

occurs when a pathogen is carried on the feet of an insect.

b)

involves fomites.

c)

involves reproduction of a pathogen in an arthropod vector prior to transmission.

d)

requires direct contact.

120.

__________________ are standard precautions that allow medical personnel to avoid contact with blood, body fluids, excretions, secretions.

a)

PPE

b)

labcoats

c)

goggles

d)

gloves

121.

The rise in herd immunity among a population can be directly attributed to:

a)

improved handwashing.

b)

increased use of antibiotics.

c)

antibiotic-resistant microbes

d)

vaccinations

122.

Toxic inflammatory condition arising from the spread of microbes, especially bacteria or their toxins are termed:

a)

shock

b)

sepsis

c)

bacteremia

d)

septicemia

123.

__________________ are animals that carry pathogens from one host to another; many are arthropods.

a)

vectors

b)

reservoirs

c)

fomites

d)

hosts

124.

Which of the following is NOT a reservoir of infection?

a)

a sick person

b)

a healthy person

c)

a sheep

d)

All are reservoirs

125.

Which of the following is NOT a communicable disease?

a)

tetanus

b)

tuberculosis

c)

HIV

d)

syphilis

126.

Which of the following definitions is INCORRECT?

a)

pandemic: a disease that affects a large number of people in the world in a short time

b)

epidemic: a disease that is endemic across the world

c)

endemic: a disease that is constantly present in a population

d)

sporadic: a disease that affects a population occasionally

127.

__________________ is the incidence of a specific notifiable disease, whereas __________________ is the number of deaths resulting from a notifiable disease.

a)

morbidity; mortality

b)

mortality; morbidity

128.

An___________________ individual is one whose resistance to infection is impaired by disease, therapy, or burns.

a)

ill

b)

immunocompromised

c)

overtreated

d)

hypersensitive

129.

Which of the following is a fomite?

a)

insects

b)

droplets from a sneeze

c)

water

d)

hypodermic needle

130.

Number of new cases of a disease compared to individuals at risk in a population:

a)

mortality

b)

incidence

c)

morbidity

d)

prevalence

131.

Emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

The emergence of infectious diseases can be attributed to all of these.

b)

ease of travel

c)

climatic changes.

d)

antibiotic resistance.

132.

Tammie is being treated for a verified case of strep throat, but her throat is getting worse. She goes to the doctor again and is diagnosed with oral thrush. What type of infection is being caused by Candida albicans?

a)

primary infection

b)

secondary infection

c)

septic infection

d)

misdiagnosed infection

133.

The organization responsible for overseeing international health issues and monitoring worldwide disease occurrences is the :

a)

CDC

b)

WHO

c)

EUHSC

d)

Ministry of Magic

134.

Craig got a deep paper cut and his finger-tip became inflamed. He did not treat the cut and now, 2 weeks later, his whole body hurts. He is tired and pale. What type of infection is this?

a)

local

b)

focal

c)

systemic

d)

accidental

135.

During the period of illness, what phases of growth are bacteria most likely undergoing?

a)

lag & log

b)

log & stationary

c)

stationary & death

d)

lag & stationary

136.

Health professionals that interact with patients and may accidentally contaminate them are considered ___________carriers.

a)

passive

b)

convalescent

c)

nosocomial

d)

asymptomatic

137.

You are an epidemiologist at the CDC. You have four possible outbreaks to investigate. Which needs the most immediate attention?

a)

18 cases of gonorrhea

b)

300 cases of rhinovirus

c)

2 cases of rabies

d)

all are of equal importance

138.

During flu season, in a population of 32,000 individuals, 96 people became infected, and of those, 77 people died. What is the mortality rate?

a)

77/32,000

b)

96/32,000

c)

77/96

d)

None of these

139.

The common cold is always present in the human population. This is a(n) _______ disease.

a)

epidemic

b)

endemic

c)

pandemic

d)

sporadic

140.

The two most contagious stages of disease are:

a)

incubation and convalenscence

b)

incubation and illness

c)

illness and decline

d)

prodromal and illness

141.

The mouth, nose, urinary tract, and open wounds are:

a)

portals of entry

b)

portals of exit

c)

both portals of entry & exit

142.

Chance of transmission is highest for diseases transmitted via direct contact

a)

True

b)

False

143.

When does an infected individual begin to have signs/symptoms of disease?

a)

period of incubation

b)

prodromal period

c)

period of illness

d)

period of decline

144.

Outbreak investigations do not involve:

a)

detecting the source of infection

b)

interviewing those infected

c)

recalling food and products

d)

infecting healthy individual to see if they get the same illness

145.

Which of the following are types of epidemiological control methods?

a)

Reduce or eliminate source or reservoir of infection

b)

Break connection between source and susceptible individual

c)

Reduce number of susceptible individuals

d)

All of these are control methods

146.

Outbreaks end when:

a)

there are no susceptible individuals

b)

there is no more source of infection

c)

the pathogen becomes less pathogenic

d)

all of these

147.

This organization collects and analyzes epidemiological information in the United States.

a)

CDC

b)

WHO

c)

EU

d)

OSHA

148.

Theory that sought to blame disease on "bad air".

a)

miasmatic

b)

spontaneous generation

c)

biogenesis

d)

relativity

149.

_______________ is the cause of a particular disease.

a)

etiology

b)

pathology

c)

infection

d)

microbial type

150.

The sticky carbohydrate-based component of a biofilm that allows bacteria to resist the actions of disinfectants is termed the _______________________.

a)

Cell wall

b)

Ribosome

c)

Nucleoid

d)

Glycocalyx

151.

Memory B cells are a part of the body’s:

a)

2nd line of defense

b)

3rd line of defense

c)

1st line of defense

d)

All of these

152.

The pyrogenic response is usually part of the body’s:

a)

2nd line of defense

b)

3rd line of defense

c)

1st line of defense

d)

All of these

153.

Which of the following is FALSE about mucous membranes?

a)

Contain glycoproteins

b)

Secretions have neutral pH

c)

Found in the ear, eye, genitourinary, gastrointestinal, and respiratory tract

d)

Are found near portals of entry and exit

154.

Sarah’s differential count is 12,650 WBCs/mm3. The normal range is 5,000 - 10,000 WBCs/mm3. What may this number indicate:

a)

Bacterial infections or side effects of medications

b)

Viral infections, pneumonia, or cancers

155.

During inflammation, phagocytes squeeze between endothelial cells of blood vessels using:

a)

Diapedesis

b)

Margination

c)

Vasodilation

d)

Prostiglandins

156.

Which of the following bacteria is more susceptible to the membrane attack complex (MAC):

a)

Gram negative

b)

Gram positive

c)

Mycolic acid

157.

Cells that trigger apoptosis of host cells during viral infections and cancer:

a)

Eosinophils

b)

Mast cells

c)

Natural killer cells

d)

Dendritic cells

158.

Which organ monitors blood for microbes and toxins.

a)

Spleen

b)

Liver

c)

Blood

d)

Lymph

159.

Phagocytes are part of BOTH the innate and adaptive immune systems.

a)

True

b)

False

160.

All three complement pathways can utilize C1-C9 proteins depending on the microbe present.

a)

True

b)

False

161.

The innate system is activated by protein receptors in defensive cells which release _________; immune response regulators.

a)

histamines

b)

kinins

c)

kinases

d)

cytokines

162.

The protective protein of the epidermis that aids in waterproofing the skin, hair, and nails is termed _______.

a)

keratin

b)

dermis

c)

adipose

d)

actin

163.

Enzyme in water-based bodily secretions that hydrolyzes bonds in peptidoglycan:

a)

coagulase

b)

lysozyme

c)

hydrolase

d)

kinase

164.

Bone marrow is responsible for creating the formed elements of blood via the process of ________.

a)

lymphopoiesis

b)

anticoagulase

c)

hematopoiesis

d)

coagulase

165.

Glycoprotein responsible for keeping membranes moist and trapping microbes:

a)

Tears

b)

Blood

c)

Mucus

d)

Lysozyme

166.

Which of the following is true regarding immunity?

a)

Innate immunity has memory. It becomes more effective over time.

b)

Adaptive immunity is specific for certain types of pathogens.

c)

Innate immunity is only found in vertebrates.

d)

Adaptive immunity is the first to respond to an infection

167.

Immunological memory is part of:

a)

adaptive immunity

b)

innate immunity

168.

Receptors on microbial cells that interact with host cells:

a)

toll-like receptors

b)

pathogen-associated molecular patterns

c)

cadherin

d)

adhesin

169.

Normal microbiota compete with pathogens via microbial _______.

a)

synergism

b)

antagonism

c)

commensalism

d)

parasitism

170.

Granulocyte responsible for protecting against worms:

a)

basophils

b)

eosinophils

c)

neutrophils

d)

monocytes

171.

Phagocytes digest microbes within a:

a)

lysosome

b)

phagocyte

c)

phagolysosome

d)

vacuole

172.

Scar tissue is formed via __________.

a)

fibrosis

b)

parenchyma

c)

stroma

d)

hematopoiesis

173.

All three complement pathways trigger cytolysis, opsonization, and inflammation.

a)

True

b)

False

174.

The classical pathway uses which proteins:

a)

c1, c2, c3, & c4

b)

c2, c3, & c4

c)

c3

d)

c3, c5, c6, c7, c8, c9

e)

c3 & c5

175.

The alternative pathway uses which proteins:

a)

c1, c2, c3, & c4

b)

c2, c3, & c4

c)

c3

d)

c3, c5, c6, c7, c8, c9

e)

c3 & c5

176.

The cytolysis pathway uses which proteins:

a)

c1, c2, c3, & c4

b)

c2, c3, & c4

c)

c3

d)

c3, c5, c6, c7, c8, c9

e)

c3 & c5

177.

Chemotactic factors:

a)

allow motility

b)

attract phagocytes to an infection

c)

break down therapeutic drugs

d)

reduce fevers

178.

____________ warn host cells of a viral infection.

a)

Interferons

b)

Phagocytes

c)

Neutrophils

d)

Eosinophils

179.

Most microbes enter the body through the:

a)

The anal route

b)

The parenteral route

c)

The gastrointestinal route

d)

The respiratory route

180.

Which type of adaptive immunity focuses on extracellular pathogens, e.g. bacteria?

a)

Cell-mediated

b)

Innate

c)

Antigen-specific

d)

Humoral

181.

Which of these statements is true for the leukocytes?

a)

Leukocytes are red blood cells.

b)

Basophils secrete histamine and are involved in inflammation

c)

Neutrophils are part of adaptive immunity.

d)

Eosinophils are professional phagocytes.

182.

Which type of MHC would you find on macrophages?

a)

MHC-I

b)

MHC-2

c)

MHC-3

d)

All of these

183.

Which type of MHC would you find on a liver cell?

a)

MHC-I

b)

MHC-2

c)

MHC-3

d)

All of these

184.

Which of the following clusters of differentiation interact with B-cells?

a)

CD4+

b)

CD8+

c)

TH17

d)

TH2

185.

Responsible for protecting intestinal microbiota against immune cells.

a)

Interleukins

b)

Cytotoxic T-cells

c)

T-helper cells

d)

T-regulatory cells

186.

Method used by the immune system to attack large pathogens.

a)

Apoptosis

b)

ADCC

c)

Blebbing

d)

Inflammation

187.

__________________ memory occurs after the second exposure to an antigen.

a)

Anamnestic

b)

IgM

c)

Memory

d)

IgG

188.

Becky contracts chickenpox after babysitting kids in the neighborhood. What type of immunity does she have?

a)

Artificially acquired active

b)

Naturally acquired active

c)

Artificially acquired passive

d)

Naturally acquired passive

189.

Which antibody is released in the greatest amounts after second exposure to a specific antigen?

a)

IgA

b)

IgM

c)

IgG

d)

IgE

190.

Which is NOT true regarding cell-mediated immunity?

a)

Produces antibodies that combat foreign antigens

b)

Involves T cells

c)

Fight extracellular pathogens

d)

Associated cells are matured in thymus

191.

All antigens are microbial.

a)

True

b)

False

192.

Common in mucous membranes, saliva, tears, and breast milk:

a)

IgM

b)

IgG

c)

IgA

d)

IgE

e)

IgD

193.

B cells that cannot self-discriminate go through the process of:

a)

clonal selection

b)

clonal deletion

c)

thymic selection

d)

hematopoiesis

194.

Coating of antigen with antibody to increase phagocytoisis:

a)

Antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity (ADCC)

b)

Opsonization

c)

Neutralization

d)

Agglutination

e)

Activation of complement

195.

CD8 T cells are also called:

a)

B-cells

b)

T-cytotoxic cells

c)

T-helper cells

d)

Red blood cells

196.

Bind to MHCII on APC's and interact directly with antigens:

a)

CD8

b)

CD4

197.

The relative amount of antibody in the host's serum:

a)

Antibody titer

b)

Anamnestic memory

c)

Serology

d)

Antiserum

198.

Some immune cells work in both innate and adaptive immune responses.

a)

True

b)

False

199.

Antibodies are created using:

a)

clonal selection

b)

thymic selection

c)

hematopoiesis

d)

binary fission

200.

Common in humoral response; found on B cells:

a)

IgM

b)

IgG

c)

IgA

d)

IgE

e)

IgD