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Worksheets

KHP 240: Fall 2021 Final Review

Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 2hrs 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Most absorption of nutrients takes place where?

a)

Stomach

b)

Small intestine

c)

Large intestine

d)

Mouth

2.

This saclike structure SECRETES bile to aid in fat digestion.

a)

Gallbladder

b)

Liver

c)

Small intestine

d)

Stomach

3.

This nutrient passes cell membranes using passive diffusion.

a)

H2O

b)

Glucose

c)

Fructose

d)

Proteins

4.

This monosaccharide requires active transport to diffuse across cell membranes.

a)

Fructose

b)

Glucose

c)

Sucrose

d)

Starch

5.

This monosaccharide uses facilitated diffusion to pass through cell membranes.

a)

Fructose

b)

Glucose

c)

Sucrose

d)

Starch

6.

A lipid that has a glycerol with three attached fatty acids.

a)

Free fatty acids

b)

Lipoprotein

c)

Triglyceride

d)

Glycerol

7.

Which of the following is the monosaccharide that is most important to the human body?

a)

Glucose

b)

Glycogen

c)

Sucrose

d)

Fructose

8.

What structures increase the surface area of the intestinal walls?

a)

Duodenum

b)

Three layers of muscle

c)

Chief cells

d)

Villi

9.

This fat enzyme lines capillary walls in muscle and adipose tissue and carries glycerol & free fatty acids through the circulatory system.

a)

Lipoproteins (LPL)

b)

Bile

c)

Salivary amylase

d)

Pancreatic enzymes

10.

The process of building complex structures or chemical molecules and requires energy.

a)

Anabolic

b)

Catabolic

c)

Cannibalism

11.

The process of breaking down structures or molecules and energy is released.

a)

Anabolic

b)

Catabolic

c)

Cannibalism

12.

This kind of energy is stored between atoms of molecules in food.

a)

Radiant energy

b)

Chemical energy

c)

Mechanical energy

d)

Electrical energy

13.

The direct source of energy for ALL biological process comes from:

a)

ATP

b)

ADP

c)

AMP

d)

Creatine phosphate

14.

An adenosine molecule with two phosphate groups attached to it is called:

a)

ATP

b)

ADP

c)

AMP

15.

What cellular organelle is responsible for ATP production?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Cytosol

d)

Ribosome

16.

What macronutrient is used in the phosphagen system?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Fats

c)

Proteins

d)

None; it uses the ATP pool and creatine phosphate

17.

This energy system has the fastest rate of ATP production and allows it to provide instantaneous energy to cells.

a)

Phosphagen system

b)

Anaerobic system

c)

Aerobic system

d)

System of a down

18.

During steady-state exercise, the energy demand for ATP is met primarily by what energy system?

a)

Phosphagen

b)

Anaerobic Energy System

c)

Aerobic Energy System

d)

Red Bull Energy System

19.

The lack of just one of these can prevent formation of a protein...

a)

Triglyceride

b)

Amino acid

c)

Fatty acid

d)

Monosaccharide

20.
What type of carbohydrate is this?
a)
polysaccharide
b)
disaccharide
c)
monosaccharide
d)
it isn't a carbohydrate
21.
What is the function of a carbohydrate?
a)
Stores energy
b)
Movement
c)
Stores genetic information
d)
Speeds up reactions
22.
what is the storage(s) form of carbohydrate found in mammals?
a)
Glucose and glycogen
b)
Glycogen
c)
starch
d)
Fiber and glycogen
23.
What might happen if you didn't get enough carbohydrates?
a)
Your body wouldn't be able to build muscle mass
b)
Your body wouldn't have enough energy to function
c)
You would develop serious vitamin deficiencies
d)
Your bones and teeth would become weaker
24.
Which of the following contains complex carbohydrates?
a)
chocolate candy bar
b)
soda
c)
cookies
d)
apple
25.
How is fiber different from most other foods you eat?
a)
It doesn't contain any sugars at all
b)
Consuming it robs your body of nutrients
c)
Your body can't digest it
d)
It contains elements of all the major food groups
26.
Your body breaks down most complex carbohydrates into:
a)
fructose
b)
sucrose
c)
glucose
d)
starch
27.
The percentage of our daily calories that should come from carbohydrate should be in the range of ______to_____%
a)
5-10%
b)
45-65%
c)
20-25%
d)
90-100%
28.
If we eat too much carbohydrate it is stored in the body as ___?
a)
fat
b)
extra cells
c)
flouride
29.
_____________ carbohydrates come from sugar. They do not supply many nutrients.
a)
complex
b)
optional
c)
simple
d)
loaded
30.
An example of a simple carbohydrate could be ________________.
a)
bread
b)
oatmeal
c)
cupcake
d)
pasta
31.
______________ carbohydrates supply longer lasting energy.
a)
simple
b)
complex
c)
generic
32.
The following is an example of a complex carbohydrate
a)
can of pop
b)
poptart
c)
sweet potato
d)
Snickers
33.

Which of the following correctly displays the paired forms of stored energy?

a)

glycogen = liver and starch = potatoes

b)

glycogen = potatoes and starch = liver

c)

potatoes = liver and starch = glycogen

34.

Starch is an example of a polysaccharide found in plants. What is the monomer of starch (Hint: it is an example of a monosaccharide)?

a)

sucrose

b)

glucose

c)

glycogen

d)

lactose

35.

A person consumes a total of 2,780 calories per day. The total amount of CHO they intake is 440 grams. Calculate the % of calories from CHO they intake in one day.

a)

33%

b)

63%

c)

75%

d)

23%

36.

Which of the following CHO choices also contain fiber, vitamins, antioxidants, and less calories.

a)

Complex grains

b)

Fruits & vegetables

c)

Dairy products

d)

Protein

37.

Athletes who eat low carbohydrate diets:

a)

Find it harder to complete workouts

b)

Have difficulty mentally focusing

c)

Have energy increases during exercise

d)

Experience muscle fatigue

38.

Depending on exercise intensity, carbohydrates may be broken down ___________ or _________________.

(a)  

39.

During low-moderate intensity exercise, carbohydrates are broken down via (a)   metabolism.

40.

In aerobic metabolism, during glycolysis, glucose is broken down into pyruvate which is then converted into:

a)

lactic acid

b)

acetyl CoA

c)

citric acid

d)

carbon dioxide

41.

In anaerobic metabolism, during glycolysis, glucose is broken down into pyruvate which is then converted into:

a)

lactic acid

b)

acetyl CoA

c)

citric acid

d)

carbon dioxide

42.

During the citric acid (Kreb's) cycle, _____ atoms bind with O2 on the Acetyl CoA, Meanwhile, H+ atoms are stripped off Acetyl CoA and carried off to the ________ and used to create ATP.

a)

H+; citric acid cycle

b)

C; citric acid cycle

c)

H+; electron transport chain

d)

C; electron transport chain

43.

During moderate intensity exercise, carbohydrates become the major energy source because:

a)

Fats are broken down faster than CHO

b)

O2 delivery & availability increases

c)

O2 delivery & availability decreases

d)

CHO need more O2 than fats

44.

__________ glycogen stores can release glucose into the bloodstream to maintain blood glucose.

a)

Muscle

b)

Liver

c)

Adipocyte

d)

Protein

45.

Once glucose enters the muscle, glucose ________ leave and enter the blood stream to bring blood glucose levels to normal.

a)

Can

b)

Cannot

c)

Will

d)

always

46.

Which of the following is a result of of decreasing liver glycogen stores? (Hint: more than one answer)

a)

Reduction in work output

b)

Hypoglycemia

c)

Reduced ability to maintain blood glucose levels

d)

Irritability

47.

Which of the following store(s) glycogen?

I. Adipose tissue

II. Liver

III. Skeletal muscle

a)

II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

48.
Saturated fats are __________ at room temperature.
a)
liquid
b)
gases
c)
plasma
d)
solid
49.
Unsaturated fats are __________ at room temperature.
a)
liquids
b)
solids
c)
toxic
d)
saturated
50.

Which of the following foods contains unsaturated fats?

a)

lettuce

b)

olive oil

c)

cheese

d)

eggs

51.

A stick of butter is what type of fat?

a)

Saturated Fat

b)

Polyunsaturated Fat

c)

Monounsaturated Fat

d)

Trans Fat

52.

The amount of stored energy in a lipid is ___________.

a)

9 kcal/g

b)

6 kcal/g

c)

100 kcal/g

d)

4 kcal/g

53.

An unsaturated lipid contains, ________

a)

more oxygen than hydrogen

b)

double bonds

c)

ionic bonds

d)

only one fatty acid

54.

Which type of fat is the most dangerous due to the risks of heart disease?

a)

saturated fats

b)

unsaturated fats

c)

trans fats

d)

polyunsaturated fats

55.

What is aerobic catabolism?

a)

A chemical reaction requiring energy to build larger molecules from smaller molecules in the presence of oxygen

b)

A chemical reaction requiring energy to build larger molecules from smaller molecules in the absence of oxygen

c)

Chemical reactions that break down complex organic compounds into simpler compounds in the presence of oxygen

d)

Chemical reactions that break down complex organic compounds into simpler compounds in the absence of oxygen

56.

Which of the following are major storage sites for triglycerides?

I. Skeletal muscle

II. Smooth muscle

III. Adipose tissue

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

57.

Which outlines lipolysis?

a)

Two glucose molecules combine to form a disaccharide

b)

One glycerol and three fatty acids combine to form a triglyceride

c)

One disaccharide breaks down to form two glucose molecules

d)

One triglyceride breaks down to form glycerol and three fatty acids

58.

2. Mr. P. Nice-Anderson, a 21 year old influencer and vlogger, received a number of unsolicited comments calling him chubby and fat in his new post. Brought about by his insecurities and lack of confidence, he started to become very conscious of his body to the point wherein he desperately reduced his calorie intake to a very low level; from 2000 to 2100 each day to only 700-800 now. This was, for him, the fastest way of resolving the issue thus allowing him to appease the negative outlook he had impressed upon himself. Overall, this method of his lasted for 5 to 6 months. Upon constant observation, however, he seemed to have noticed that there had been only quite few changes within his bodily composition since then. He became frustrated about this matter and started to eat more than his acclimated diet (or regresses back towards his original diet). This, in turn, had resulted in him gaining more body fat. What is the best explanation for this?

a)

A. Restriction of too much calories for a long period of time induces higher basal metabolic rate resulting to fat gain

b)

B. When one dramatically lowers calorie intake for a long period of time, the body senses that the food is scarce and lowers the rate at which it burns calories.

c)

C. Intake of either too low or too high calories does not have significant relationship with one person’s loss or gain of fat

d)

D. Both A and B Is correct

59.

3. Which of the following are the two primary energy sources used by the body?

a)

Proteins and carbohydrates

b)

Carbohydrates and fats

c)

Fats and proteins

60.

14. Emma has diabetes. Her endocrinologist suggested that she should exercise more. If Emma followed the doctor’s advice, which of the following will be true?

a)

Her body will be less efficient in transporting glucose into the cells from the blood

b)

Her insulin sensitivity will increase

c)

Her insulin levels will increase

d)

Her glucagon levels will decrease

61.

17. Hidilyn Diaz was a well-known weightlifter, who won the first Olympic gold medal for the Philippines in the 2020 Olympics. Given the nature of her sport, what would be the relative energy contribution (%) of aerobic and anaerobic means of energy production?

a)

100% anaerobic

b)

70% anaerobic, 30% aerobic

c)

40% anaerobic, 60% aerobic

d)

100% aerobic

62.

18. Which of the following, when depleted or reduced in amount, will significantly limit exercise performance?

a)

amino acids

b)

glucose

c)

lactate

d)

glycogen

63.

Which of the following converts fats into energy?

a)

The anaerobic system

b)

The aerobic system

c)

The phosphagen system

d)

Transamination

64.

When should athletes consume a high-fat diet (approximately 60% to 70% of total calories)?

a)

During a single meal immediately prior to training/competition

b)

During the 2 weeks leading up to an important training session/competition

c)

During the 2 months leading up to an important training session/competition

d)

Athletes should avoid consuming high-fat diets.

65.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Food fat is not a source of essential nutrients.

b)

In foods, fats add taste and contribute to satiety.

c)

Fatty meals empty more rapidly from the stomach than high-carbohydrate meals.

d)

Liquid oils can be made into solid fats by the process of emulsification

66.

Which of the following is not a function of fats?

a)

They add flavor and texture to foods.

b)

They provide 9 calories per gram, helping athletes meet their daily energy needs

c)

They serve as the primary source of energy during moderate- to high-intensity exercise.

d)

They provide essential fatty acids for normal physiological functioning.

67.

The three categories of lipids are:

a)

amino acids, phospholipids, and sterols.

b)

diglycerides, glycerols, and phospholipids.

c)

fatty acids, glycerols, and sterols.

d)

triglycerides, phospholipids, and sterols.

68.

Which of the following is the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR) for fats?

a)

10–30%

b)

20–35%

c)

25–40%

d)

15–35%

69.

If a product contains 100 calories and 5 grams of fat per serving, what is the percentage of calories from fat in the product?

a)

5%

b)

45%

c)

20%

d)

35%

70.

Which of the following types of blood cholesterol are considered protective against cardiovascular disease?

a)

Total cholesterol

b)

LDL

c)

VLDL

d)

HDL

71.

Which of the following adaptations to endurance training does not improve an athlete’s ability to utilize fats for energy?

a)

Increased muscle blood flow

b)

Larger and more numerous mitochondria

c)

Increased quantities of enzymes involved in fat metabolis

d)

Improved transport of fat into adipose tissue

72.

Which of the following is true regarding the structure of proteins?

a)

The shape of a protein often dictates its function in the body.

b)

The tertiary structure of a protein is the coiling or folding caused by hydrogen bonds.

c)

The primary structure of a protein refers to its three-dimensional shape.

d)

The amino acid sequence that constitutes a protein has no effect on protein structure.

e)

All of these are correct.

73.

Tony is a 180-pound Olympic weightlifter. Assuming the recommended intake for athletes is between 1.2 -2.0 g/kg, how much protein should he be consuming daily?

a)

60 grams

b)

82 grams

c)

130 grams

d)

240 grams

74.

What is the AMDR for protein?

a)

10-25%

b)

20-40%

c)

15-20%

d)

10-35%

75.

Which of the following makes up the basic structure of an amino acid?

a)

An amino group

b)

A carboxylic acid group

c)

A carbon side chain

d)

All of these are correct

76.

Proteins that function to catalyze biochemical reactions in the body are known as:

a)

Limiting proteins

b)

Complementing proteins

c)

Essential amino acids

d)

Enzymes

77.

Jack is a 220-pound high school shot-putter who reports that he is consuming 350 grams of protein a day. Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Jack should consider increasing his protein intake to 400 grams per day.

b)

Jack is consuming more than the recommended amount of protein for athletes.

c)

Jack’s protein intake is within the recommended range for strength/power athletes.

d)

Jack should strive to get at least 40% of his total daily calories from protein.

78.

What is the main function of protein in the body?

a)

Is the main source of energy for the body

b)

Helps to build and repair body tissue

c)

Provide warmth and cushioning to the body's organs

d)

Helps to transport vitamins through the body

e)

All answers are roles of protein in the body

79.
What kinds of food can you get protein from in your diet?
a)
Eggs
b)
Meat and Fish
c)
Nuts and Legumes
d)
All of the above
80.
What is a peptide bond?
a)
Bond that holds two amino acids together.
b)
A bond that holds hydrogen and oxygen molecules together.
c)
A bond that holds the phosphate group of one nucleotide and a sugar of a neighboring nucleotide.
d)
A bond that is formed by the sharing of electrons.
81.

Amino acids that must be supplied by foods in the diet

a)

Essential amino acid

b)

Complete protein

c)

Non-essential amino acid

d)

Incomplete protein

82.
The primary sequence of a protein refers to the:
a)
Order of amino acids
b)
α-Helix or β-Pleated Sheet
c)
Interaction of subunits
d)
Hydrogen Bonding
83.

All amino acids have the same basic structure. Which part of the amino acid makes each each one unique?

a)

amino group

b)

carboxyl group

c)

R-group (side chain)

84.

Proteins give you how many calories per gram?

a)

4

b)

6

c)

7

d)

9

85.

Where are proteins broken down in the digestive system?

a)

Mouth

b)

Colon

c)

Small intestine

d)

Stomach

86.

Proteins that contain all the essential amino acids are called what?

a)

Essential

b)

Incomplete

c)

Complete

d)

Non - essential

87.

Complete proteins come from what sources?

a)
b)
c)
d)
88.

Becky’s 2-year-old son cannot walk because he was born with spina bifida. To reduce the chances that her next baby will be born with this birth defect or related disorders, Becky should:

a)

consume green leafy vegetables, drink orange juice, and take a folic acid supplement before getting pregnant.

b)

eat at least 3 ounces of fatty fish three times a week, take vitamin A and D supplements, and drink more fat-free milk during the first 3 months of pregnancy.

c)

take pantothenic acid, B6, and B12 supplements before getting pregnant.

d)

take iron, zinc, and magnesium supplements during the first month of pregnancy, then eat more whole-grain breads and cereals for the remaining months of pregnancy.

89.

Which of the following is true of water-soluble vitamins?

a)

They are easily transported in the blood.

b)

They require dietary fat for absorption.

c)

They are insoluble in water.

d)

They are stored within the body in appreciable amounts

90.

Which of the following water-soluble vitamins has the least involvement in energy production/metabolism?

a)

Thiamin

b)

Riboflavin

c)

Niacin

d)

Folate

91.

Thiamin requirements will escalate with the simultaneous increase of:

a)

fats

b)

calories

c)

proteins

d)

alcohols

92.

Which of the following is NOT a water-soluble vitamin?

a)

Vitamin A

b)

Vitamin B

c)

Vitamin C

d)

Choline

93.

This category of vitamins are easily destroyed while cooking.

a)

Water-soluble vitamins

b)

Fat-soluble vitamins

94.

What category of vitamins has a high potential for toxicity, can be stored in adipose tissue, and requires dietary fat intake in order to be transported in the blood?

a)

Water-soluble vitamins

b)

Fat-soluble vitamins

95.

What cooking method results in the GREATEST amount of vitamin loss?

a)

Grilling

b)

Microwaving

c)

Boiling

d)

Baking

96.

Why is the risk of toxicity of water-soluble vitamins low? (More than one answer)

a)

Because water-soluble vitamins are stored in adipose tissue

b)

Because water-soluble vitamins are not stored in the body

c)

Because water-soluble vitamins can build up in the body with no ill effects

d)

Any excess water-soluble vitamin intake is excreted in urine

97.

High levels of _____________ in the blood is a risk factor for CVD.

a)

Homocysteine

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Lactic acid

d)

Myosin

98.

This vitamin is crucial during fetal development:

a)

Vitamin C

b)

Folate

c)

Niacin

d)

Riboflavin

99.

This water-soluble vitamin has antioxidant properties, aids in formation of hormones & neurotransmitters, and is critical for collagen formation.

a)

Vitamin C

b)

Niacin

c)

Vitamin A

d)

Biotin

100.

Pirates were susceptible to scurvy while away on long voyages and had little access to fresh fruit & vegetables. Scurvy develops when there is a lack of ________ in the diet.

a)

Niacin

b)

Vitamin K

c)

Vitamin C

d)

Vitamin B

101.

Which of the following are fat-soluble vitamins?

a)

Vitamins D & E

b)

Niacin & thiamin

c)

Pantothenic acid and vitamin A

d)

Vitamins B12 and B6

102.

Which of the following vitamins can be made by the human body?

a)

Vitamin C

b)

Vitamin B6

c)

Vitamin D

d)

All of these are correct

103.

Vitamin A is important for athletes due to its role in:

a)

the formation of calcitriol.

b)

carbohydrate metabolism

c)

the repair of damaged tissue

d)

lipolysis

104.

Marcus suffers from iron-deficiency anemia. Which of the following foods is a poor source of iron?

a)

Beef liver

b)

Chicken breast

c)

Enriched cereals

d)

Reduced-fat milk

105.

Which of the following is one of the most common nutritional deficiencies in the United States?

a)

Sodium

b)

Iron

c)

Copper

d)

Zinc

106.

Bioavailability of minerals can be affected by foods containing high amounts of:

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Fat

c)

Protein

d)

Calcium

107.

Which of the following is the iron-containing compound found in muscle that facilitates the transport of oxygen to muscle cells?

a)

Myoglobin

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Transferrin

d)

Ferritin

108.

Which of the following statements best describes minerals? (More than one answer)

a)

Minerals are inorganic molecules

b)

Minerals have no caloric value

c)

Minerals are very stable and not degraded by cooking

d)

Minerals are easily degraded by cooking

109.

If we do not get enough dietary calcium, our body will get the calcium from which of the following?

a)

Blood stores

b)

Adipose tissue

c)

Bones

d)

Muscle protein

110.

Which of the following body function is assisted by calcium?

a)

Release of neurotransmitters that facilitate nerve signals & activation.

b)

Bone formation

c)

Initiates skeletal muscle contraction

d)

All choices are correct

111.

Minerals cannot be destroyed by:

a)

Exposure to heat

b)

Exposure to light

c)

Exposure to an acid or alkaline environment

d)

None of these choices are correct

112.

Osteoblasts function by:

a)

Pulling in calcium and phosphate from the blood to build bone

b)

Breaking down bone to release calcium and phosphate into the blood

c)

Stimulating increased calcium absorption from the gut

d)

Blocking calcium absorption from the gut

113.

What is the primary oxygen carrier in the blood?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Myoglobin

c)

Iron

d)

Transferrin

114.

Which of the following is an example of extracellular water?

a)

Saliva

b)

Blood plasma

c)

Lymphatic fluid

d)

All answers are correct

115.

What does blood plasma help to distribute to the billions of cells that make up the body’s tissues?

a)

Nutrients

b)

Hormones & immune cells

c)

Oxygen

d)

All of these are correct

116.

Impaired thermoregulation caused by poor water balance plus environmental heat stress can lead to which of the following?

a)

Heat cramps

b)

Heat stroke

c)

Heat exhaustion

d)

All of these are correct

117.

Which of the following is a sign of heat stroke?

a)

Lack of sweat

b)

Profuse sweating

c)

Cold, clammy skin

d)

Hypotension

118.

Which of the following can be sources of water for athletes needing to replenish fluid losses?

a)

Coffee

b)

Fruits & vegetables

c)

Tea

d)

All of these are correct

119.

Which of the following hydration schedules is recommended by major sports medicine and nutrition organizations?

a)

No fluids within 4 hours of exercising

b)

13–20 ounces at least 4 hours prior to exercise

c)

7–10 ounces in the 10–20 minutes after exercise

d)

13–20 ounces at least 4 hours prior to exercise and then 7–10 ounces in the 10–20 minutes prior to exercise

120.

When an athlete chooses 100% juice as a fluid in the hours leading up to a training session or competition, which of the following is not provided?

a)

High levels of protein

b)

Fluid

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Electrolytes

121.

What is the goal of hydration during exercise?

a)

To maintain plasma volume

b)

To ensure adequate intake of carbohydrates and fats

c)

To raise core temperature

d)

All of these are correct

122.

Which of the following is a method that athletes can use to replace fluids lost during training and competition?

a)

Pour fluids over their heads

b)

Place ice on the back of their neck

c)

Begin drinking fluids as soon as possible

d)

Submerge in a cool bathtub or pool

123.

Which of the following is true regarding post-exercise hydration?

a)

Athletes should consume 1/2 cup of fluid for every pound that is lost during exercise.

b)

Athletes should consume 1 cup of fluid for every pound that is lost during exercise.

c)

Athletes should consume 2 cups of fluid for every pound that is lost during exercise.

d)

Athletes should drink as much as possible, as quickly as possible, after exercise

124.

Functions of water in the body:

a)

Lowers blood cholesterol level

b)

Increases satiety

c)

Slows down glucose absorption

d)

Regulation of body temperature

125.

Which of these is true regarding methods of water loss:

a)

At rest, sweating is the major avenue of water loss

b)

During exercise, most water is loss through urination

c)

Water content in feces accounts for 35% of water loss

d)

Water loss through insensible perspiration increases in colder, dries climates

126.

Which statement best describes cardiac drift? (More than one correct)

a)

Cardiac drift occurs with increasing blood volume, causing a drop in heart rate.

b)

Cardiac drift can occur with 2-3% loss of body weight caused by dehydration.

c)

Cardiac drift occurs because of decreasing blood volume, which requires the heart to beat faster.

d)

Cardiac drift only occurs at high altitudes.

127.

Which of the following is NOT true?

a)

High temperature & humidity environments increases water loss.

b)

When outside temperatures begin to increase, sweat rates will increase for the first 10-14 days.

c)

High altitudes leads to an increase in water loss.

d)

Hydration levels in cold weather are not a big deal because you do not sweat.

128.

To assist in finding a quality supplement, consumers should look for which of the following on the supplement or product advertisement?

a)

Testimonials

b)

Research conducted by the supplement company

c)

Verification seals

d)

Athlete endorsements

129.

Performing a thorough warm-up before an exercise session would be classified as which type of ergogenic aid?

a)

Physiological

b)

Psychological

c)

Pharmacological

d)

Biomechanical

130.

Which of the following is a potential cause for inadvertent doping?

a)

Manufacturer lists all ingredients on the label

b)

Names in the ingredients list are not recognized

c)

Knowledge of which substances are banned

d)

All of these are correct

131.

Which of the following is true of supplement manufacturers?

a)

They can make structure/function, nutrient content, and health claims on their products.

b)

They can make claims that their products can cure or relieve specific health conditions or diseases.

c)

They can claim that their products have pharmacological uses.

d)

All of these are correct.

132.

Approximately what percentage of Americans are overweight or obese?

a)

33%

b)

70%

c)

50%

d)

80%

133.

What body mass index (BMI) level is considered “obese”?

a)

Below 18.5

b)

18.5-24.9

c)

25-29.9

d)

30-34.9

134.

Which of the following is the weight of all body components except for fat?

a)

Fat-free mass

b)

Lean body mass

c)

Nonessential body fat

d)

Bone mineral mass

135.

This body composition measurement is based on determination of body density; measures body volume by applying Archimedes’ Principle.

a)

Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry

b)

Underwater weighing

c)

Skinfold assessment

d)

Bioelectrical impedance

136.

This body composition uses a three-component model measuring fat mass, bone mineral mass, and lean body mass by passing low-energy radiography technology.

a)

Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry

b)

Underwater weighing

c)

Skinfold assessment

d)

Bioelectrical impedance

137.

This body composition measures subcutaneous fat at several anatomical sites. A prediction equation is then applied to determine overall body fat percentage.

a)

Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry

b)

Underwater weighing

c)

Skinfold assessment

d)

Bioelectrical impedance

138.

If you do this, you will neither gain or lose weight.

a)

Energy balance

b)

Positive energy balance

c)

Negative energy balance

139.

When energy intake is greater than energy expenditure, causing one to gain weight is called:

a)

Energy balance

b)

Positive energy balance

c)

Negative energy balance

140.

When energy expenditure is greater than energy intake, causing one to lose weight is called:

a)

Energy balance

b)

Positive energy balance

c)

Negative energy balance

141.

The ability of a muscle or group of muscles to repeatedly develop or maintain force without fatiguing is called:

a)

Muscular endurance

b)

Cardiorespiratory endurance

c)

Flexibility

d)

Agility

142.

What is the PRIMARY energy system utilized during endurance exercise?

a)

Phosphagen

b)

Immediate ATP stores

c)

Anaerobic

d)

Aerobic

143.

List one advantage and one disadvantage of the aerobic energy system.

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144.

Elite endurance athletes can burn 2-3x the # of calories as untrained individuals. When planning meals, what macronutrient should be increased the most?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Fats

c)

Proteins

d)

Increases in each macronutrient should be proportional to the increase in calories

145.

What happens to performance when glycogen stores start to deplete?

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146.

When fatigue sets in, an athletes race pace _________ and perceived exertion ________.

a)

Decreases; increases

b)

Increases; decreases

c)

Increases; increases

d)

Decreases; decreases

147.

For ET athletes, how much of their daily caloric intake should be carbohydrates?

a)

75-80%

b)

70-75%

c)

50-65%

d)

35-45%

148.

Why is it important for athletes to taper 6-7 days prior to a competition?

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149.

Why is protein consumption important for athletes?

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150.

Why is their little scientific evidence of training regimens and diets that produce the greatest physiological adaptations?

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151.

What is the relationship between physiological overload and the resulting physiological adaptations?

a)

The greater the overload, the greater the physiological adaptations

b)

There is no relationship between overload and adaptations

c)

The smaller the overload, the greater the physiological adaptation

d)

The greater the overload, the smaller the physiological adaptation.

152.

Why is rest critical to performance gains?

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153.

Why is periodization training optimal for athletes?

a)

It involves periods of higher intensity training, followed by decreased training to allow for recovery and adaptation.

b)

It involves a linear increase in intensity with no rest periods; the greater the overload, the greater the adaptation.

c)

It physiologically pushes the athlete so their body can adapt to stress

d)

Periodization training is NOT optimal

154.

What is the formula for VO2 max?

4 lines
155.

What is stroke volume?

a)

Amount of blood eject from the left ventricle per minute

b)

Amount of blood eject from the left ventricle per beat

c)

Amount of blood that is returned to the heart

d)

Amount of blood eject from the left ventricle per hour

156.

What is the arteriovenous oxygen difference (a-VO2)?

a)

Amount of oxygen that is delivered to working muscle

b)

Amount of CO2 that is delivered to working muscle

c)

Amount of CO2 that is picked up from working muscle

d)

Amount of oxygen that is picked up in the lungs

157.

What happens to the a-VO2 difference with exercise?

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Stays the same

158.

How does the a-VO2 difference compare (at rest & during X) between a sedentary and endurance trained athlete?

a)

Training increases the a-VO2 difference at rest and during exercise

b)

Training decreases the a-VO2 difference

c)

The a-VO2 difference between sedentary and ET athletes does not change

d)

Sedentary people have a larger a-VO2 difference at both rest and during exercise

159.

The physiological definition of VO2 max is:

a)

The ability of the body to transport and use oxygen

b)

The ability of the body to make ATP

c)

Ability of the muscles to utilize oxygen

d)

Ability of the heart to pump out blood

160.

Why do patients have decreased stamina and increased fatigue after weeks of bedrest?

4 lines
161.

What physiological variable is the primary cause of the dramatic reduction in VO2 max following weeks of detraining?

4 lines
162.

Which of the following accurately describes force: (May be more than one answer)

a)

it is the ability to generate maximal force

b)

it is dependent on the amount of muscle tissue

c)

the speed of movement is irrelevant

d)

it is the ability to generate force at high speed

163.

Which of the following accurately describes power: (May be more than one answer)

a)

it is the ability to generate force at high speed

b)

is equivalent to the amount of force generated over time

c)

the speed of movement is irrelevant

d)

it is measured by performing a 1 rep-max test

164.

What are the primary energy systems utilized during strength/power sports?

4 lines
165.

Tissues have the ability to regulate the expression of proteins by:

a)

Altering the amount of mRNA that is synthesized

b)

Controlling the rate of protein synthesis

c)

Altering the rate of protein degradation

d)

All answers are ways tissues can regulate protein expression

166.

Which of the following stimuli can activate growth factors responsible for protein synthesis?

a)

Resistance training

b)

Endurance training

c)

Hormones

d)

All choices are correct

167.

What is a motor unit?

4 lines
168.

Compare type I and type II muscle fibers (contractility, power, motor unit size, m-ATPase & SDH activity, oxidative capacity)

4 lines
169.

How are motor units recruited?

4 lines
170.

Myosin ATPase is directly correlated with:

a)

Mitochondrial density

b)

Capillary density

c)

Contractile velocity

d)

Protein degradation

171.

Muscle fiber type (genotype) is genetically determined and not influenced by training.

a)

True

b)

False

172.

Endurance training an increase the oxidative capacity of all fiber types.

a)

True

b)

False

173.

Type II fibers can take on type I fiber characteristics (increase capillarization, mitochondrial density, express a slower MHC protein, reduce M-ATPase activity)

a)

True

b)

False

174.

What is muscle hypertrophy?

4 lines
175.

Increased muscle bulk and mass due to resistance training in humans is due to all of the following except:

a)

Increased cross-sectional area

b)

Increase in size of muscle cells

c)

Increase number of actin and myosin myofibrils

d)

Increase in number of muscle fibers

176.

High-resistance training results in an increased cross-sectional area of all fiber types. This increase is more pronounced in:

a)

Type II fibers

b)

Type I fibers

c)

Type a fibers

d)

Type b fibers

177.

What happens to mitochondrial and capillary density with resistance training?

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178.

Which of the following describes what is seen on the force-velocity curve?

a)

Resistance training can increase maximal isometric tension

b)

Resistance trained athletes can generate greater contractile velocities than UT people

c)

Resistance trained athletes can pick up larger loads when contracting at the same velocity as UT people

d)

All statements are correct

179.

Within the first two months of resistance training, strength gains are primary due to:

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180.

Which of the following is NOT a neural adaptation seen within the first two months of resistance training?

a)

Increased motor unit firing frequency

b)

Increased ability to recruit high-threshold motor units

c)

Decreased inhibition of Golgi tendon organs

d)

Decreased co-activation of antagonistic muscle

e)

Increased firing of Golgi tendon organs

181.

Which of the following is NOT a muscular adaptations to resistance training?

a)

Increased cross sectional area

b)

Increase size of type II fibers

c)

Increased amount of intramuscular ATP, CP, and glycogen.

d)

Increased myosin ATPase activity

e)

Increased aerobic capacity

182.

Describe the myocardial (heart) changes seen in response to resistance training compared to endurance training.

4 lines
183.

Each of the following describes characteristics of the innate immune system, except:

a)

Relies on physical and chemical barriers

b)

First line of defense against pathogens

c)

Made up of B- and T-cells

d)

Composed of antigen-presenting cells and granulocytes

184.

Each of the following describes characteristics of the adaptive immune system, except:

a)

Relies on antibody and immune cell responses

b)

Second line of defense against pathogens

c)

Made up of B- and T-cells

d)

Has no memory

185.

Which system can differentiate between various pathogens (bacteria vs virus)

a)

Innate

b)

Adaptive

c)

Both systems

186.

(a)   cells differentiate into cells of the innate immune system.

187.

(a)   cells differentiate into cells of the adaptive immune system.

188.

Pattern recognition receptors (PRRs) are surface receptors on immune cells that recognize (a)   on pathogens.

189.

In the event of too many pathogens, phagocytes release __________ to call in reinforcements to help deal with the larger invasion.

a)

PAMPs

b)

PRRs

c)

Cytokines

d)

TLRs

190.

Proinflammatory cytokines released by immune cells do which of the following?

a)

Recreate more immune cells

b)

Cause vasodilation to the surround blood vessels

c)

Induce fevers

d)

All choices are correct

191.

All of the following immune cells are antigen presenting cells, except:

a)

Macrophages

b)

Dendritic cells

c)

Basophil

d)

Monocyte

192.
Killer T Cells-
a)
Kill the pathogen
b)
Kill your infected body cells
c)
Kill only viruses
d)
Kill only bacteria
193.
Proteins produced by B cells and designed to mark antigens to be destroyed, specific to the antigen.
a)
Antigens
b)
Active Immunity
c)
Antibodies
d)
Antibiotics
194.

Which of the following is not apart of your body’s first line of defense?

a)

Skin

b)

Mucus

c)

Stomach Acid

d)

Antibodies

195.
The body detects pathogens by their...
a)
Antigens
b)
Antibodies
c)
Histamines
d)
DNA
196.
 Liz notices that shortly after cutting her arm accidentally the area around the cut is turning red and feeling hot.  Which immune system defense is Liz experiencing?  
a)
inflammation
b)
white blood cell clotting
c)
skin
d)
fever
197.

Some human white blood cells help destroy pathogenic bacteria by

a)

causing mutations in the bacteria

b)

engulfing and digesting the bacteria

c)

producing toxins that compete with bacterial toxins

d)

inserting part of their DNA into the bacterial cells

198.

What is true about the immune system?

a)

Pathogens help the immune system

b)

It helps old diseases get stronger

c)

kills the body's functions

d)

It stores information from previous infections

199.
What function does mucus play in the immune system?
a)
traps foreign particles from entering the body
b)
moistens food
c)
produces WBCs
d)
acts as a lubricant
200.
How does immune system fight viruses?
a)
Immune system guards our body and when red blood cells which are the part of our immune system detect viruses in our body they kill the antigen or viruses by antibodies.
b)
Immune system guards our body and when 
white blood cells which are the part of our immune system 
detect viruses in our body they kill the antigen or viruses by antibodies.
c)
Immune system guards our body and when 
antibiotics which are the part of our immune system 
detect viruses in our body they kill the antigen.
d)
None of above