If a drug that blocks delayed rectifier K⁺ channels is applied to ventricular cardiac muscle, the phase of the AP that will be most affected is ____

If a drug that blocks L-type Ca²⁺ channels is applied to the AV node, the phase of the AP that will be most affected is ____

What channel(s) the Class I antiarrhythmics block?

Which class of antiarrhythmics have prominent negative inotropic, chronotropic, and dromotropic effects?

Why are ibutilide and dofetilide useful in the treatment of atrial fibrillation/flutter ("afib")?

Why is propranolol useful for treating "afib?" Select all possible reasons.

Which of the following adverse effects is likely to be associated with Verapamil?

Which of these following adverse effects can be produced by Class III antiarrhythmics (especially amiodarone)?

The Class IV antiarrhythmics are effective in treating supraventricular tachycardia because:

Which of the following antiarrhythmics closely resembles lidocaine with respect to electrophysiological effects and MOA?

Which of the following classes of antiarrhythmics also act as antihypertensives? Select all that apply.

Which of the following antiarrhythmics would most likely induce torsades de pointes, especially if a patient is also taking another QT-prolonging agent, such as azithromycin?

A patient has been rushed to the ER with ringing in the ears and a heart rate greater than 90 BPM. His EKG (see image) depicts the anomaly of torsades de pointes. What drug could have possibly induced these cardiotoxic events?

Which of the following is the most effective treatment for ventricular arrhythmias, but a poor choice for atrial arrhythmias?

A patient comes to you due to a sensation of tachycardia. HR is 200 BPM; BP is 170/110 mmHg; ECG shows signs of paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia. Which of these agents would be a rational choice to start a monotherapy regimen for them? Select all that apply; assume one or the other answers will be picked, but not both.

24 hours following an acute MI (heart attack), a patient has been ordered a continuous IV drip of an antiarrhythmic drug to suppress ventricular tachycardia. At 0300, nurses report that he is suffering from generalized seizures. What antiarrhythmic drug could have caused the seizures?

To treat afib, which of the following could reduce ventricular response primarily by slowing down conduction and increasing the effective refractory period of the AV node? Select all that apply.

Which of the following drugs affect AV node ERP and conduction velocity (and therefore potentially cause AV nodal block)?

Which of these antiarrhythmics are similar to lidocaine in terms of therapeutic effects and MOA? Select all that apply.

TSH initially increases thyroid hormone secretion and eventually increases all phases of hormone synthesis. On the thyroid gland, it promotes cell proliferation.

When someone says "thyroid hormone," they are referring to the mixture of the two types of thyroid hormone, T4 (thyroxine) and triiodothyronine (T3). Which of the following statements is correct regarding their biological activity? Select all that apply

The function of TRH is to stimulate the synthesis/release of TSH from the hypothalamus.

A patient presents in the clinic with the symptoms of constipation, irregular menstruation, and feeling depressed. Bloodwork reveals that she has high TSH levels and low T4 levels. Which of the following agents would be most appropriate for her doctor to prescribe?

Of the three types of deiodinases, Type III is unique since it produces a competitive inhibitor of T3 (rT3) from T4.

Which of the following is the MOA for methimazole?

Which of the following released from the pituitary gland stimulates the synthesis and secretion of thyroid hormone?

Which of the following side effects is most likely associated with antithyroid therapy using propylthiouracil (PTU)?

A 75 y.o. woman is brought to the ER. Her body temperature is 103 degrees fahrenheit; pulse is at 200 BPM; BP is 180/120 mmHg. Her grandson states that was recently diagnosed with dementia and she must've overdosed on her new Synthroid prescription. Which of the following drugs would be the most appropriate to rapidly control her cardiac symptoms in this situation?

Normally, TSH levels should decrease following the increase of _____ (select all that apply)

The blood level of iodine is abnormally low in patients with simple goiter.

Symptoms of exophthalmos (eye protrusion from eye socket); heart palpitations; diarrhea, alopecia (hair loss), and intolerance to heat all indicate which of the following conditions?

Antibodies that activate TSH receptors in a patient's blood sample is indicative of Grave's disease (diffuse toxic goiter).

Which of the following is the MOA of potassium iodide?

A 40 y.o. woman was feeling extremely tired and also suffering from constipation lately. Assuming that this was due to increased stress from her recent promotion at work not allowing her to control her diet, she decided to "start fresh" by eating copious amounts of kale every day with each meal (since kale is high in dietary fiber = good for GI motility). However, two weeks later, she began feeling a further drop in energy and noticed her skin getting puffy (edema). What is the possible explanation for her worsening condition?

A patient presents symptoms of palpitations, tremors, hypertension, and goiter. Blood testing for TSH and T3/T4 levels confirm the diagnosis of hyperthyroidism. Which of the following are appropriate treatment(s) for their condition? Select all the correct combinations.

Glucose can stimulate insulin secretion from the pancreas by decreasing the opening of ATP-sensitive K⁺ in beta cells.

Type I diabetics are only insulin resistant and do not always require insulin therapy.

To correct hyperglycemia, insulin mediates the passive uptake of glucose into fat/muscle cells via GLUT2.

Which of the following drugs can increase insulin secretion by opening the ATP-dependent K⁺ channels in pancreatic beta cells?

Which of the following drugs can increase insulin secretion by inhibiting the degradation of incretins (peptides that encourage insulin release)?

Which of the following drugs can increase insulin effectiveness by increasing cells' sensitivity to insulin?

Which of the following drugs works in the kidney, inhibiting the reabsorption of glucose back into the blood?

Which of the following MOAs are shared by sulfonylureas (e.g. glyburide and glipizide) and meglitinides (repaglinide and nateglinide)?

An obese patient is being treated with the maximum dose of metformin for his Type-2 diabetes. Over the last year, his glucose control has worsened. He currently has normal hepatic and renal function. During his MTM meeting, you tell him that you will be talking to his PCP to get him on an adjunct medication that would encourage pancreatic release of insulin. Which of the following would you recommend to his PCP?

Which type of stomach cells secrete gastric acid?

Which type of stomach cells secrete pepsinogen?

What are the therapeutic uses of PPIs (e.g. esomeprazole)? Select all that apply

Which of these drugs forms a physical barrier that protects intact gastric mucosa from HCl and active pepsin and promotes healing of established ulcers?

Which of these drugs can be used in the treatment of traveler's diarrhea and stimulates the production of both mucous and bicarbonate?

Since you're broke, you can't afford to pay for prescription PPIs to manage your GERD. Instead, you decide to take OTC Maalox daily and with spicy meals since you can get the cheaper Great Value brand at Wal-Mart. What side-effect are you most likely going to suffer from?

Which of the following treatments for PUD (peptic ulcer disease) is also an abortifacient (and therefore contraindicated in pregnant women)?