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Терапия 4к англичане экзамен

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 1hrs 8mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

FOR PATIENTS WITH DIABETIC NEPHROPATHY AND PROTEINURIA IT IS REASONABLE TO REDUCE SYSTOLIC BLOOD PRESSURE UNDER THE CONTROL OF THE GFR DOWN TO THE LEVEL OF _______ MM HG.

a)

below 140

b)

below 130

c)

below 120

d)

below 150

2.

THE MOST SPECIFIC METHOD IN DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSTICS OF HYPERTENSIVE DISEASE AND ITSENKO-CUSHING SYNDROME IS DETERMINATION OF:

a)

renin

b)

thyrotropin

c)

17-oxycorticosteroid

d)

creatinine

3.

THE SIGN OF LEFT VENTRICULAR HYPERTROPHY ACCORDING TO SOKOLOW-LYON INDEX IS:

a)

RI> 11 мм

b)

SV1+RV5/V6 > 38 мм

c)

RI + SIII>25 мм

d)

R/S< 1 в V1

4.

A MALE PATIENT OF 48 YEARS WITH A STABLE BP RISE UP TO 160/100 MM HG DURING 3 YEARS WITHOUT ANY CLINICAL MANIFESTATIONS SHOULD BE RECOMMENDED WITH:

a)

lifestyle change and permanent antihypertensive therapy

b)

course intake of antihypertensive drugs

c)

taking short-acting drugs only in crises

d)

only lifestyle change; after 6 months - follow-up examination

5.

THE MAXIMUM FAST REDUCTION OF BLOOD PRESSURE IS INDICATED IF THE HYPERTENSION CRISIS IS COMPLICATED WITH:

a)

ischemic stroke

b)

dissecting aortic aneurysm

c)

acute coronary syndrome

d)

heart rhythm disorder

6.

AN ASSOCIATED CONDITION IN ARTERIAL HYPERTENSION IS:

a)

transient ischemic attack

b)

pulse BP > 60 mm Hg (in the elderly and senile people)

c)

left ventricular hypertrophy

d)

CKD with eGFR 30-60 ml/min/1.73 sq.m

7.

ARTERIAL HYPERTENSION IN PHEOCHROMOCYTOMA IS DETERMINED BY:

a)

excessive secretion of mineralocorticoids

b)

increased secretion of renin

c)

increased secretion of catecholamines

d)

increased formation of angiotensin

8.

ASSOCIATED CARDIOVASCULAR OR RENAL DISEASES IN ARTERIAL HYPERTENSION INCLUDE:

a)

angina pectoris and heart failure, including heart failure with remaining ejection fraction

b)

a history of early cardiovascular diseases

c)

microalbuminuria and the ratio of albumin to creatinine (30-300 mg/g; 3.4-34 mg/mmol)

d)

speed of the carotid-femoral pulse wave > 10 m/sec and the ankle-brachial index < 0.9

9.

A PATIENT WITH BP OF 150/90 MM HG AFTER CORONARY BYPASS SURGERY HAS HYPERTENSIVE DISEASE OF THE ___ STAGE.

a)

IV

b)

I

c)

II

d)

III

10.

A 50-YEAR-OLD WOMAN WITH ARTERIAL HYPERTENSION HAS DEVELOPED THROAT IRRITATION AND A DRY COUGH WITHIN 3 MONTHS. COUGH IS RESISTANT TO EXPECTORANT THERAPY AND ANTIBIOTICS (THE PATIENT DOES NOT SMOKE, ALLERGIC ANAMNESIS IS NOT AGGRAVATED, X-RAY OF THE THORAX REVEALS NO CHANGES). THE MOST PROBABLE CAUSE OF COUGH IS THE INTAKE OF:

a)

ACE inhibitors

b)

angiotensin receptor blockers

c)

diuretics

d)

calcium channel blockers

11.

THE LEVEL OF BLOOD PRESSURE CHARACTERISTIC OF III DEGREE ARTERIAL HYPERTENSION IS _________ MM HG.

a)

170/115

b)

175/105

c)

165/95

d)

170/100

12.

IN A PATIENT WITH ARTERIAL HYPERTENSION WITH A 20 MM HG DIFFERENCE OF BP ON THE LEFT AND RIGHT ARMS WE SHOULD FIRST SUSPECT:

a)

atherosclerotic lesion of the brachial artery

b)

Cushing's disease

c)

Takayasu’s disease

d)

Addison's disease

13.

ACCORDING TO THE DATA OF SELF-MONITORING (AT HOME), THE DIAGNOSIS OF ARTERIAL HYPERTENSION IS MADE IN THE AVERAGE VALUE OF BP OF MORE THAN _____ MM HG.

a)

135/85

b)

130/80

c)

140/90

d)

150/90

14.

THE LEVEL OF BLOOD PRESSURE CHARACTERIC OF II DEGREE ARTERIAL HYPERTENSION IS _________ MM HG.

a)

180/95

b)

180/90

c)

170/100

d)

160/110

15.

THE ELECTROCARDIOGRAM IN ARTERIAL HYPERTENSION IS CHARACTERIZED BY:

a)

RV5, V6> RV4

b)

RV4> RV5, V6

c)

S1> R1

d)

RIII> RI

16.

ASSOCIATED CONDITIONS IN ARTERIAL HYPERTENSION INCLUDE:

a)

speed of the carotid-femoral pulse wave >10 m/sec, ankle-brachial index <0.9

b)

a history of early cardiovascular diseases

c)

microalbuminuria and the ratio of albumin to creatinine (30-300 mg/g; 3.4-34 mg/mmol)

d)

IHD: myocardial infarction, angina pectoris, coronary revascularization

17.

ASYMPTOMATIC TARGET LESIONS IN ARTERIAL HYPERTENSION INCLUDE:

a)

heart failure with remaining ejection fraction

b)

cerebrovascular disease

c)

left ventricular hypertrophy

d)

clinically manifested lesion of the peripheral arteries

18.

THE LEVEL OF ARTERIAL PRESSURE CHARACTERIC OF I DEGREE ARTERIAL HYPERTENSION IS _________ MM HG.

a)

150/100

b)

160/100

c)

150/95

d)

160/95

19.

ASSOCIATED CLINICAL CONDITIONS IN ARTERIAL HYPERTENSION INCLUDE:

a)

aortic stenosis

b)

dissecting aortic aneurysm

c)

aortic insufficiency

d)

tricuspid insufficiency

20.

IN A 5 YEAR-OLD BOY WITH ARTERIAL HYPERTENSION AND COMPLAINS OF PAINS IN THE LOWER LEG WHEN WALKING, ONE SHOULD FIRST RULE OUT:

a)

coarctation of the aorta

b)

Takayasu’s syndrome

c)

pyelonephritis

d)

obliterating endarteritis

21.

POSTSYNAPTIC ALPHA-1-ADRENEOREPTECTOR BLOCKERS INCLUDE:

a)

phentolamine

b)

moxonidine

c)

aliskiren

d)

doxazosin

22.

THE CAUSE OF ARTERIAL HYPERTENSION IN A LESION OF THE KIDNEY PARENCHYMA IS:

a)

activation of the renin-angiotensin system

b)

excessive secretion of mineralocorticoids

c)

increased secretion of catecholamines

d)

increased production of angiotensin

23.

THE CRISIS COURSE OF ARTERIAL HYPERTENSION IS CHARACTERISTIC OF:

a)

Cohn’s syndrome

b)

pheochromocytoma

c)

Itsenko-Cushing’s syndrome

d)

acromegaly

24.

ASSOCIATED CARDIOVASCULAR OR RENAL DISEASES IN ARTERIAL HYPERTENSION INCLUDE:

a)

a history of early cardiovascular diseases

b)

CKD with eGFR < 30ml/min/1.73 sq.m or proteinuria > 300 mg per day

c)

microalbuminuria and the ratio of albumin to creatinine (30-300 mg/g; 3.4-34 mg/mmol)

d)

speed of the carotid-femoral pulse wave > 10 m/sec and the ankle-brachial index <0.9

25.

THE ELECTROCARDIOGRAM IN ARTERIAL HYPERTENSION REVEALS:

a)

the transition zone shift in V4-V6

b)

the transition zone shift in V1-V2

c)

pathological Q wave

d)

prolongation of PQ interval

26.

NORMAL VALUE OF TOTAL BLOOD CHOLESTEROL IN PATIENTS WITHOUT THE RISK OF CARDIOVASCULAR DISEASES IS LESS THAN _______ MMOL/L:

a)

5

b)

3

c)

2

d)

1

27.

IIA TYPE OF HYPERLIPIDEMIA BY THE WHO CLASSIFICATION IS CHARACTERIZED BY INCREASED_______ IN THE BLOOD PLASMA:

a)

VLDL

b)

LDL

c)

LDL and VLDL

d)

LP (a)

28.

THE DIAGNOSTIC CRITERION OF THE HETEROZYGOUS FORM OF FAMILY HYPERCHOLESTEROLEMIA IS:

a)

low density lipoprotein cholesterol more than 8.5 mmol/l

b)

high density lipoprotein cholesterol more than 5.0 mmol/l

c)

xanthomatosis of the upper eyelids

d)

severe peripheral atherosclerosis

29.

IIB TYPE OF HYPERLIPIDEMIA BY THE WHO CLASSIFICATION IS CHARACTERIZED BY INCREASED_______ IN THE BLOOD PLASMA:

a)

LP (a)

b)

LDL

c)

VLDL

d)

LDL and VLDL

30.

THE TARGET VALUE OF LDL FOR PATIENTS WITH TYPE II DM IN COMBINATION WITH IHD IS THE LEVEL <_____ MMOL/L:

a)

1.8

b)

2.0

c)

2.5

d)

3.0

31.

FOR STRATIFICATION OF RISK OF CARDIOVASCULAR COMPLICATIONS IN PATIENTS WITH STABLE ISCHEMIC HEART DISEASE THEY USE:

a)

coronary angiography, echocardiography

b)

stress myocardial perfusion tomoscintigraphy and treadmill test (with determination of the Duke index)

c)

stress myocardial perfusion tomoscintigraphy and stress echocardiography

d)

treadmill test (with determination of the Duke index), echocardiography, stress echocardiography, coronary angiography

32.

CLINICAL FORMS OF STABLE ISCHEMIC HEART DISEASE INCLUDE:

a)

stable exertional angina and angina at rest, microvascular angina

b)

stable exertional angina and angina at rest

c)

stable exertional angina and angina at rest, vasospastic angina, microvascular angina

d)

stable exertional angina, microvascular angina

33.

A 46-YEAR-OLD FEMALE PATIENT DEVELOPS ATTACKS OF RETROSTERNAL PAIN AT NIGHT, WHEN THE ECG REGISTERS TRANSIENT ELEVATION OF ST SEGMENT. MOST PROBABLE DIAGNOSIS IS

a)

acute coronary syndrome with ST elevation

b)

variant angina

c)

acute pericarditis

d)

pulmonary embolism

34.

THE MAIN QUESTION SOLVED DURING A STRESS TEST IS:

a)

presence of the previous myocardial infarction

b)

verification of coronary heart disease

c)

probability of coronary heart disease

d)

presence of a valvular pathology

35.

IF A PATIENT HAS EXPERIENCED GRIPPING RETROSTERNAL PAIN AT THE SMALLEST PHYSICAL ACTIVITY WITHIN THE PAST YEAR, AND SUCH PAIN CAN BE ARRESTED WITH NITROGLYCERINE, ONE SHOULD THINK ABOUT:

a)

progressive angina

b)

exertional angina class III

c)

exertional angina class IV

d)

variant angina

36.

INCREASING TROPONIN CONCENTRATION IN PATIENTS WITH MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION IS DETERMINED DURING:

a)

12-24 hours

b)

3-5 days

c)

7-14 days

d)

2-3 months

37.

WHAT COMPLICATION IS POSSIBLE IN ACUTE LEFT VENTRICULAR ANEURISM?

a)

pulmonary embolism

b)

thrombosis of the cavity of the left ventricle

c)

Dressler syndrome

d)

right ventricular failure

38.

THE MAIN CRITERION FOR SUCCESSFUL REPERFUSION AFTER SYSTEMIC THROMBOLYSIS IS:

a)

disappearance of signs of heart failure

b)

pain syndrome arrest

c)

decrease in the elevation of the ST segment by 50% or more from the initial

d)

restoration of AV conduction

39.

IT IS POSSIBLE TO SUSPECT POSTINFARCTION ANEURYSM IN THE ECG IN CASE OF THE PRESENCE OF:

a)

deep negative T waves

b)

“stable” ST segment elevation

c)

complexes of QS type in 2 or more leads

d)

high R waves in the right thoracic leads

40.

A LOADING DOSE OF ACETYLSALICYLIC ACID IN ACUTE MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION IS _____ MG:

a)

250-300

b)

500

c)

150

d)

75

41.

INFERIOR MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION IS CHARACTERIZED BY APPEARANCE OF THE FOLLOWING INFARCTION CHANGES:

a)

I, aVL

b)

V1-V4

c)

I, aVL, V5,V6

d)

II, III, aVF

42.

THE MOST COMMON COMPLICATION IN THE FIRST HOURS OF ACUTE MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION IS:

a)

rhythm disorder

b)

pulmonary edema

c)

acute cardiovascular failure

d)

cardiogenic shock

43.

THE DRUG OF CHOICE FOR PAIN SYNDROME ARREST IN CARDIOGENIC SHOCK IS:

a)

fentanyl

b)

morphine

c)

metamizole sodium

d)

ketorolac

44.

IN PULMONARY EDEMA IN PATIENTS WITH MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION ALL THE LISTED DRUGS ARE INDICATED, EXCEPT:

a)

prednisolone

b)

morphine

c)

nitroglycerin

d)

furosemide

45.

AN OBJECTIVE SIGN OF MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION IS:

a)

there is no characteristic objective sign

b)

cyanosis

c)

cardiomegaly

d)

swelling of the cervical veins

46.

​​INCREASED HEIGHT AND WIDTH OF THE R WAVE IN V1-V2 LEADS IN COMBINATION WITH ST SEGMENT DEPRESSION AND POSITIVE T WAVE IS A SIGN OF:

a)

posterior myocardial infarction (posterior basal)

b)

antero-septal myocardial infarction

c)

right ventricular myocardial infarction

d)

small-focal myocardial infarction

47.

THE ACUTE PERIOD OF MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION CONTINUES FOR:

a)

up to 10-14 days

b)

up to 2 hours

c)

up to 1 month

d)

up to 2 months

48.

MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION OF THE LATERAL WALL OF THE LV IS CHARACTERIZED BY ST SEGMENT ELEVATION IN THE FOLLOWING LEADS:

a)

I, aVL, V1-V4

b)

I, aVL, V5-V6

c)

VR3, VR4

d)

II, III, aVF

49.

DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSTICS IN THE PRESENCE OF ST SEGMENT ELEVATION IN THE ECG IS CARRIED OUT BETWEEN MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION AND:

a)

pericarditis

b)

pneumonia

c)

syndrome X

d)

esophagitis

50.

ARRESTING OF ANGINOUS ATTACK BEGINS WITH PRESCRIPTION OF:

a)

spasmolytics

b)

nitrates intravenously by drop infusion

c)

sublingual nitroglycerin

d)

narcotic analgesics

51.

MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION OF WHICH LOCALIZATION IS MORE OFTEN COMPLICATED BY THE PAPILLARY MUSCLE RUPTURE?

a)

posterior diaphragmatic

b)

anterior septal

c)

right ventricular

d)

left ventricular apical

52.

THE MOST PROBABLE CAUSE OF ACUTE RIGHT VENTRICULAR FAILURE AND SUDDEN APPEARANCE OF ROUGH SISTOLIC MURMUR IN A PATIENT WITH ACUTE MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION IS:

a)

interventricular septal rupture

b)

rupture of the free wall of the left ventricle

c)

rupture of the papillary muscle

d)

pulmonary embolism

53.

IN THE DEVELOPMENT OF MYOCARDIAL INFARCTION, NORMALIZATION OF THE CONTENT OF CPK-MB IN THE BLOOD IS OBSERVED AFTER:

a)

2-3 days

b)

1 day

c)

5-6 days

d)

14 days

54.

A COMBINATION OF SIGNS OF LEFT ATRIAL AND RIGHT VENTRICULAR HYPERTROPHY IN THE ECG CAN SIGNIFY:

a)

mitral stenosis

b)

atrial septal defect

c)

pulmonary stenosis

d)

aortic insufficiency

55.

IN PATIENTS WITH AORTIC VALVE INSUFFICIENCY:

a)

systolic BP does not change, and diastolic BP increases

b)

systolic BP decreases, and diastolic BP increases

c)

systolic BP increases, and diastolic BP decreases

d)

systolic and diastolic BP levels do not change

56.

A CHARACTERISTIC AUSCULATIVE SYMPTOM OF MITRAL VALVE INSUFFICIENCY IS:

a)

mesodiastolic murmur

b)

flapping I sound

c)

systolic murmur at the apex

d)

systolic murmur at the base of the heart

57.

INTENSIFIED PULSATION OF THE CAROTID ARTERIES IS CHARACTERISTIC OF:

a)

aortic insufficiency

b)

aortic stenosis

c)

tricuspid insufficiency

d)

mitral insufficiency

58.

“MITRALIZATION” OF THE AORTIC DEFECT IS THE NAME FOR:

a)

compensatory hyperfunction of the left atrium while reduced contractile function of the left ventricle

b)

combination of aortic and mitral stenosis

c)

coexistent mitral stenosis with an existing aortic defect due to repeated rheumatic fever

d)

combination of aortic orifice stenosis and mitral valve prolapse

59.

A DEPRESSOR NEUROHUMORAL MECHANISM IN DEVELOPMENT OF HEART FAILURE INCLUDES ACTIVATION OF:

a)

ADH

b)

SAS

c)

RAAS

d)

cerebral and atrial natriuretic peptides

60.

A SIGN OF LEFT VENTRICULAR HEART FAILURE IS:

a)

hepatomegaly

b)

edema of the legs

c)

cardiac asthma attacks

d)

visible pulsation of cervical veins

61.

RIGHT VENTRICULAR HEART FAILURE IS NOT MANIFESTED BY:

a)

swelling of the cervical veins decreasing in the upright position

b)

congestion of blood in the venous bed of the greater circulation

c)

positive venous pulse

d)

acrocyanosis, edema of the feet and legs, aggravating in the evening

62.

DIETARY RECOMMENDATION FOR PATIENTS WITH CHF:

a)

limited sugar intake

b)

limited fluid intake

c)

limited protein intake

d)

increased salt intake

63.

LOOP DIURETICS INCLUDE:

a)

amiloride

b)

chlortalidone

c)

torasemide

d)

spironolactone

64.

THE CRITERION FOR TERMINATION OF ANTIBACTERIAL THERAPY FOR PNEUMONIA IS:

a)

normalization of peripheral blood parameters

b)

a period of 8-10 days after normalization of temperature

c)

resorption of pneumonic infiltration

d)

a period of 3-4 days after normalization of temperature

65.

TREATMENT OF COMMUNITY-ACQUIRED PNEUMONIA IN A 77-YEAR-OLD PATIENT WITH ISCHEMIC HEART DISEASE, ARTERIAL HYPERTENSION, DIABETES MELLITUS, CHRONIC KIDNEY DISEASE IS CARRIED OUT IN:

a)

outpatient conditions

b)

general resuscitation unit

c)

department of cardiology

d)

general therapeutic hospital

66.

TREATMENT OF PNEUMONIA CAUSED BY LEGIONELLA REQUIRES:

a)

tetracycline

b)

penicillin

c)

cefazolin

d)

azithromycin

67.

THE PRESENCE OF WHICH SIGN IS COMPULSORY FOR VERIFICATION OF THE DIAGNOSIS OF PNEUMONIA?

a)

leukocytosis or leukopenia in the complete blood count

b)

febrile body temperature

c)

auscultative detection of moist fine (small bubbling) rales or crepitation

d)

focal-infiltrative changes revealed by the X-ray examination

68.

THE CRITERION OF SEVERE COURSE OF PNEUMONIA IS:

a)

heart rate ≥120 per minute

b)

heart rate ≤ 22 per minute

c)

diastolic BP > 100 mm Hg

d)

systolic BP < 120 mm Hg

69.

THE INITIAL ASSESSMENT OF THE EFFECTIVENESS OF ANTIBACTERIAL THERAPY FOR COMMUNITY-ACQUIRED PNEUMONIA SHOULD BE CARRIED OUT IN _____ HOURS AFTER THE BEGINNING OF TREATMENT.

a)

96-120

b)

12-24

c)

72-96

d)

48-72

70.

IN CASE OF LOBAR PNEUMONIA CREPITATION IS BETTER HEARD:

a)

at all stages

b)

at the stage of red hepatization

c)

at the stage of gray hepatization

d)

at the stages of effusion and resolution

71.

FOR PNEUMONIA CAUSED BY MYCOPLASMA THEY USE:

a)

amoxicillin

b)

ceftriaxone

c)

azithromycin

d)

gentamicin

72.

BY “ATYPICAL PNEUMONIA” THEY MEAN:

a)

viral bronchopneumonia

b)

pneumococcal pneumonia of the upper lobe localization

c)

pneumonia caused by legionella, chlamydia or mycoplasma

d)

eosinophilic infiltrate

73.

FORMATION OF CAVITIES OF DESTRUCTION IN THE LUNGS IS MOST CHARACTERISTIC OF PNEUMONIA CAUSED BY:

a)

enterococcus

b)

pneumococcus

c)

chlamydia

d)

staphylococcus

74.

THE RECOMMENDED DURATION OF TREATMENT OF COMMUNITY-ACQUIRED PNEUMONIA IS:

a)

7-14 days

b)

21-30 days

c)

14-21 days

d)

30-35 days

75.

THE CRITERION OF HOSPITALIZATION OF A PATIENT WITH PNEUMONIA IS:

a)

upper lobe localization of the lesion

b)

detected leukocytosis of more than 10*109/l

c)

unstable hemodynamics

d)

febrile fever for 3 days

76.

PULMONARY COMPLICATION OF PNEUMONIA IS:

a)

infectious-toxic shock

b)

distress syndrome

c)

infectious and allergic myocarditis

d)

meningitis, meningoencephalitis

77.

A CHARACTERISTIC PERCUSSION SOUND IN LOBAR PNEUMONIA AT THE HEIGHT OF THE DISEASE IS:

a)

dull

b)

box-like

c)

tympanic

d)

metallic

78.

THE MAIN GOAL OF ANTI-HELICOBACTER THERAPY FOR ULCER DISEASE IS:

a)

reduction of the frequency of relapses

b)

decrease in the severity of pain syndrome

c)

acceleration of ulcer cicatrization

d)

reduction of the risk of ulcer perforation

79.

HUNGER AND/OR “NIGHT PAINS” DEVELOPING IN 2.5–4 HOURS AFTER EATING AND DISAPPEARING AFTER NEXT FOOD INTAKE ARE MOST LIKELY THE SIGNS OF AN ULCER OF THE:

a)

lower esophagus

b)

lesser curvature of the stomach

c)

fundus of the stomach

d)

duodenum

80.

CONTAMINATION OF THE STOMACH MUCOSA BY HELICOBACTERIAL INFECTION IS ACCOMPANIED BY:

a)

development of antral gastritis

b)

decreased gastrin secretion

c)

achlorhydria

d)

incompetence of cardia

81.

THE CONTROL OF EFFECTIVENESS OF ERADICATION THERAPY IS CARRIED OUT IN ____ AFTER THE END OF TREATMENT:

a)

3-4 weeks

b)

1-2 weeks

c)

4-6 weeks

d)

1 year

82.

ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE AND GAMMA-GLUTAMIN-TRANSPEPTIDASE RISE SHARPLY IN:

a)

chronic hepatitis with phenomena of cholestasis and biliary liver cirrhosis

b)

hemachromatosis

c)

Wilson-Konovalov disease

d)

opisthorchiasis

83.

DIETARY RESTRICTIONS FOR A PATIENT WITH LIVER CIRRHOSIS AND A THREAT OF HEPATIC COMA CONCERN:

a)

common salt

b)

fats

c)

carbohydrates

d)

proteins

84.

THE INDICATOR CHARACTERIZING THE ACTIVITY OF CHRONIC HEPATITIS IS:

a)

cholesterol

b)

alkaline phosphatase

c)

albumin

d)

ALT

85.

TREATMENT OF AUTOIMMUNE HEPATITIS IS CARRIED OUT WITH:

a)

categorical refusal of alcohol

b)

antiviral therapy

c)

corticosteroids (sometimes in combination with cytostatics)

d)

dynamic observation

86.

WHEN DEVELOPING SEVERE HEPATIC ENCEPHALOPATHY, PROTEIN INTAKE IS LIMITED TO _______ G/day

a)

20-30

b)

31-40

c)

41-50

d)

51-60

87.

THE DIAGNOSIS OF CHRONIC HEPATITIS C IS MADE ON THE BASIS OF:

a)

detection of HCV DNA

b)

detection of HCV RNA

c)

increased level of alkaline phosphatase

d)

increased level of AST

88.

THE DETERMINING EXAMINATION IN DIAGNOSTICS OF LIVER CIRRHOSIS IS:

a)

ultrasonic examination

b)

elastometry

c)

X-radiography

d)

irrigoscopy

89.

THE FOURTH STAGE OF CHRONIC KIDNEY DISEASE (CKD 4) COMPLIES WITH GFR OF ____________ ML/MIN/1.73 m2.

a)

45-59

b)

15-29

c)

30-44

d)

60-89

90.

THE MOST IMPORTANT CRITERION IN THE DIAGNOSTICS OF NEPHROTIC SYNDROME IS THE DETECTION OF:

a)

daily proteinuria of more than 3.5 g

b)

edema

c)

serum albumin level below 30 g/l

d)

hypercoagulation