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AP Psychology Cumulative Review 2020

Total questions: 115

Worksheet time: 2hrs 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A newborn infant has certain automatic movement patterns called

a)

Instincts

b)

Reflexes

c)

Formal Operations

d)

Schemas

2.

This is referred to as the conceptual framework used to make sense of the world

a)

Schema

b)

Conservation

c)

Assimilation

d)

Evolution

3.

Children participate in decisions affecting their lives in _________families.

a)

Authoritarian

b)

Republican

c)

Lazze Faire

d)

Authoritative

4.
Piaget's 4 stages of development
a)
Formal, Concrete, schemas, preconservation
b)
Sensimotor,Preoperational, Concrete, Formal
c)
Sensorimotor, preconventional, concrete, Formal
5.
the idea that something can retain or conserve a characteristic while something else changes
a)
theory of mind
b)
conservation
c)
object permance
6.

Behavior consists of simple motor responses to sensory stimuli; lacks concept of object permanence - 1st Stage in Piaget's cognitive development theory

a)

Sensorimotor

b)

Pre-Operational

c)

Concrete Operations

d)

Formal Operations

7.

a child's realization that an object exists even when he or she cannot see or touch it

a)

Conservation

b)

Identification

c)

Egocentrism

d)

Object Permanence

8.

Twin studies answer a lot of questions about what big debate in psychology?

a)

Trust v. Mistrust

b)

Nature v. Nurture

c)

Feeling v. Knowing

d)

Concrete v. Abstract

9.

the process of fitting objects and experiences into one's existing schemas

a)

Accomodation

b)

Assimilation

c)

Egocentrism

d)

Schema

10.

When you are a teenager struggling with who you are and who you might want to be, Erikson says you are in

a)

Initiative v. Guilt

b)

Intimacy v. Isolation

c)

Generativity v. Stagnation

d)

Identity v. Role Confusion

11.

When you are a young adult looking to find your companion for life, you are in this stage according to Erikson.

a)

Intimacy v. Isolation

b)

Autonomy v. Shame/Doubt

c)

Integrity v. Despair

d)

Identity v. Role Confusion

12.
Jane, a preschooler, insists on dressing herself each morning for school, even though she generally selects mismatching outfits, misses buttons, and wears her shoes on the wrong feet. When her mother tries to dress Jane or fix her outfit, Jane brushes her mother off and insists on doing it herself. What stage of psychosocial development best describes Jane’s behavior?
a)
Trust vs. Mistrust 
b)
Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt
c)
Intiative vs. GUilt 
d)
Industry vs. Inferiority 
13.
A 38-year-old woman quits her high-paying marketing job to focus on her children and become a school counselor. What stage would Erikson consider this to be:
a)
Idenitity vs. Role Confusion 
b)
Generativity vs. Stagnation
c)
Ego Integrity vs. Despair
d)
Industry vs. Inferiority
14.
The ability to solve abstract relational problems and generate new hypotheses is      called ____________________ intelligence.
a)
crystalized
b)
decremental
c)
fluid
d)
menopause
15.
The ability to use accumulated knowledge in appropriate situations is called      ____________________ intelligence.
a)
crystalized
b)
fluid
c)
decrememtal
d)
ageism
16.
each time a study is repeated, the results are consistent.
a)
validity
b)
reliability
c)
sample
17.
The factor the researcher manipulates in a controlled experiment
a)
dependent variable
b)
independent variable
c)
confounding variable
18.
The subgroup of the population that participates in the study
a)
sample
b)
assignment
c)
group
19.
The subgroup of the sample that receives the independent variable.
a)
experimental group
b)
control group
c)
population
20.
Division of the sample into groups so that every individual has an equal chance of being put in any group or condition.
a)
single blind
b)
double blind
c)
random assignment
d)
random sampling
21.
A description of the specific procedure used to determine the presence of a variable.  Created so that the experiment can be replicated by others.
a)
operational definition
b)
independent variable
c)
controlled group
22.
Research design in which neither the experimenter nor the participants know who is in the experimental group and who is in control group.
a)
single blind study
b)
case study
c)
double blind study
23.
The extent to which an instrument measure what it is supposed to measure.
a)
reliability
b)
validity
c)
standardized
24.
Measures the average difference between each score and the mean of the data set.
a)
median
b)
range
c)
standard deviation
25.
Correlational research where one  specific group of people or person is studied in detail through interviews, file reviews, etc.  Not generalizable. 
a)
case study
b)
naturalistic evaluation
c)
experiment
26.
A response to the belief that the independent variable will have an effect on the subjects when they haven't been given the independent variable. 
a)
placebo effect
b)
case study
c)
experiment
27.
Careful observations of humans or animals in real life situations
a)
case study
b)
survey
c)
naturalistic observation
28.
When a distribution of scores is skewed, which of the following is the most representative measure of central tendency?
a)
Inference
b)
Standard Deviation
c)
Mean
d)
Median
29.

"Monday Morning Quarterbacks" rarely act surprised about the outcome of the weekend football games. This tendency to believe they knew how the game would turn out is best explained by which psychological principle?

a)

Overconfidence

b)

Hindsight Bias

c)

Intuition

d)

Illusory Correlation

30.
Which of the following is a positive correlation?
a)
As study time decreases, students achieve lower grades
b)
As levels of self-esteem decline, levels of depression increase
c)
Gas mileage decreases as vehicle weight increases
d)
People who exercise regularly are less likely to be obese
31.
Which branch of psychology studies the link between biological and psychological processes?
a)
biological
b)
evolutionary
c)
behavioral
d)
social-cultural
32.
Which approach to psychology focuses on how behavior and thinking vary across situations and cultures?
a)
humanistic
b)
psychodynamic
c)
social-cultural
d)
cognitive
33.
The biopsychosocial approach emphasizes the importance of
a)
different levels of analysis in exploring behavior and mental processes.
b)
basic research over pure research.
c)
pure research over basic research.
d)
having a single academic perspective to guide research.
34.
Dr. Winkle conducts basic research on the systematic changes in intelligence associated with aging. It is most likely that Dr. Winkle is a(n) ________ psychologist.
a)
biological
b)
social
c)
developmental
d)
industrial-organizational
35.
Which approach to psychology focuses on how we encode, process, store, and retrieve information?
a)
biological
b)
cognitive
c)
evolutionary
d)
psychodynamic
36.
Which subfield of psychology is the scientific study of how we think about, influence, and relate to one another?
a)
educational
b)
social
c)
human factors
d)
counseling
37.
Charles Darwin proposed that natural selection leads to the development of characteristics most suited to the survival and reproduction of a species.
His theory has most influenced which branch of Psychology? 
a)
Humanism
b)
Evolutionary psychology. 
c)
Cognitive psychology. 
d)
Behaviorism.
38.
Which of the following approaches seems to lack the most scientific support, since it seems to rely on after the fact explanations about correlations about childhood experiences and adult personality?
a)
Behavioral
b)
Psychoanalysis
c)
Evolutionary
d)
Cognitive 
39.
The study of the importance of satisfying love and acceptance needs best describes which school of psychology. 
a)
Behavioral 
b)
Functionalist 
c)
Humanistic 
d)
Structuralist 
40.
In transmitting sensory information to the brain, an electrical signal travels from the ________ of a single neuron.
a)
dendrites to the cell body to the axon
b)
axon to the dendrites to the cell body
c)
axon to the cell body to the dendrites
d)
dendrites to the axon to the cell body
41.
The speed at which a neural impulse travels is increased when the axon is encased by a(n)
a)
synaptic vesicle.
b)
pituitary gland.
c)
endocrine gland.
d)
myelin sheath.
42.
Messages are transmitted from your spinal cord to your digestive system's stomach muscles by the
a)
endocrine system.
b)
central nervous system.
c)
sympathetic nervous system.
d)
somatic nervous system.
43.
The master gland of the endocrine system is the
a)
adrenal gland.
b)
pituitary gland.
c)
pancreas.
d)
hypothalamus.
44.
Which of the following structures in the brainstem helps coordinate movements and lies above the medulla?
a)
thalamus
b)
hippocampus
c)
reticular formation
d)
pons
45.
Severing a cat's reticular formation from higher brain regions causes the cat to
a)
become violently aggressive.
b)
cower in fear.
c)
experience convulsive seizures.
d)
lapse into a coma.
46.
The medulla is to the control of ________ as the cerebellum is to the control of ________
a)
eating; sleeping
b)
memory; attention
c)
breathing; walking
d)
emotion; motivation
47.
Which of the following is the component of the limbic system that plays an essential role in the processing of new memories?
a)
medulla
b)
hippocampus
c)
thalamus
d)
hypothalamus
48.
The thin surface layer of interconnected neural cells that covers the cerebrum is called the
a)
cerebellum.
b)
corpus callosum.
c)
reticular formation.
d)
cerebral cortex.
49.
Which lobes of the brain receive the input that enables you to feel someone scratching your back?
a)
parietal
b)
temporal
c)
occipital
d)
frontal
50.
The cortical regions that are not directly involved in sensory or motor functions are known as
a)
interneurons.
b)
Broca's area.
c)
frontal lobes.
d)
association areas.
51.
Information is most quickly transmitted from one cerebral hemisphere to the other by the
a)
medulla.
b)
corpus callosum.
c)
angular gyrus.
d)
limbic system.
52.
Heritability refers to the extent to which
a)
trait differences among individuals are attributable to genetic variations.
b)
unrelated individuals share common genes.
c)
nurture controls a trait rather than nature.
d)
adult personality is determined by infant personality.
53.
A functional MRI (fMRI) and a PET scan both:
a)
provide a way to measure the functioning and activity of the brain.
b)
produce black and white scans of the brain’s structures.
c)
create selective injuries that allow researchers to study brain function.
d)
provide detailed computerized interpretations of brain dysfunctions.
54.
Xzasia has been suffering from severe bouts of depression for the past several years. Her doctor suggests that some medications designed to impact a specific neurotransmitter might be helpful for her. Which neurotransmitter would be the most likely target of this medication?
a)
GABA
b)
Dopamine
c)
Serotonin
d)
Acetylcholine
55.
When people are walking, raising their hands in class or smelling a flower, they are using the:
a)
central nervous system
b)
somatic nervous system
c)
autonomic nervous system
d)
sympathetic nervous system 
56.

If Katie's intelligence quotient is 100, we know that she has a

a)

perfect score on a set of age-related tests.

b)

test performance superior to 90% of other children the same age who took the test.

c)

mental age typical of children who have the same chronological age.

d)

mental age below those of children with the same chronological age

57.

Which of the following is one of Gardner’s types of Intelligences?

a)

Executive Skills

b)

Ethics

c)

Creativity

d)

Musical

58.

The term “g-factor” refers to

a)

General Intelligence

b)

Gardeners Factors

c)

Group Intelligence

d)

Generation Factors

59.

Sternberg’s Triarchic Theory of Intelligence included Practical, ________, and Creative

a)

Musical

b)

Interpersonal

c)

Analytic

d)

Emotional

60.

Tests that are given to measure a current level of knowledge

a)

Intelligence tests

b)

Aptitude tests

c)

Achievement tests

d)

Career Aptitude tests

61.

Tests should be which of the following?

a)

valid, difficult, and relevant

b)

relevant, modernized, and unique

c)

reliable, valid, and standardized

d)

standardized, 25 questions, and reliable

62.

A person who is outgoing and thrives in social situations and talking to others would have which type of intelligence?

a)

Verbal-Linguistic

b)

Creative

c)

Mathematical

d)

Interpersonal

63.

Workplace managers who want to foster novel ideas and adaptive responses to new challenges should try to promote the ________ of their employees.

a)

general intelligence

b)

analytical intelligence

c)

creative intelligence

d)

emotional intelligence

64.

When Phoebe strongly disagrees with her sister's opinion, she effectively controls her own anger and responds with empathy to her sister's frustration regarding their dispute. Her behavior best illustrates

a)

factor analysis.

b)

analytical intelligence

c)

creative intelligence

d)

emotional intelligence

65.

A test designed to assess whether newly graduated medical students should be granted the legal right to practice medicine would most likely be considered a(n) ________ test.

a)

WAIS

b)

aptitude

c)

IQ

d)

achievement

66.

If course exams assess a student's mastery of a representative sample of course material, they are said to

a)

be reliable

b)

have content validity

c)

be standardized

d)

have predictive validity

67.

Because of his accumulated years of knowledge about psychology, Dr. Hernandez has decided that his fiftieth birthday would be the perfect time to begin writing an introductory psychology textbook. It would demonstrate his

a)

factor analysis

b)

fluid intelligence

c)

predictive validity

d)

crystallized intelligence

68.

A person's ability to reason speedily and abstractly (for example, in solving novel logic problems) decreases slowly up to about age 75, then more rapidly, especially after age 85. This type of ability is also known as

a)

factor analysis

b)

factor analysis

c)

crystallized intelligence

d)

fluid intelligence

69.

When instances come readily to mind, we often presume such events are common. What of the following is the term for this phenomenon?

a)

Intuition insight

b)

Confirmation bias

c)

Belief perserverance

d)

Availability heurisitic

70.

Judging the likelihood of things in terms of how well they match our prototype.

a)

availability heuristics

b)

representative heuristics

c)

base rate heuristics

d)

functional fixedness

71.
The inability to see new uses for familiar objects is termed
a)
non-flexible thinking.
b)
functional fixedness.
c)
proactive inhibition.
d)
interference.
72.
Confirmation bias is...
a)
A widely held generalization about a group of people
b)
Processing information in a way that relates that information to existing schema
c)
A cognitive bias that involves focusing on information that is consistent with our beliefs
d)
A cognitive framework; a cluster of related ideas, information or memory
73.
___ a rule of thumb that is often useful in solving problems.
a)
Heuristic
b)
algorithm
c)
protype
d)
concept
74.
What is the information processing model (aka what 3 things do we need to do to remember an event?)
a)
Encode, store, retrieve
b)
Sensory, short-term, long-term
75.
What type of memory is theoretically unlimited in capacity?
a)
Echoic Memory
b)
Short-term Memory
c)
Working Memory
d)
Long-Term Memory
76.
Iconic memory relates to ______ sensory information, and echoic memory relates to _____ sensory information.
a)
Visual/Smell
b)
Visual/Auditory
c)
Auditory/Visual
d)
Auditory/Smell
77.
You have discovered you score better on vocabulary tests if you study the material 15 minutes every day for 8 days instead of cramming for 2 hours the night before the test. This illustrates what is known as
a)
The serial position effect
b)
Mood-Congruent memory
c)
The Testing effect
d)
The Spacing effect
78.
Memory aids that involve the use of vivid imagery and clever ways of organizing material are called
a)
Flashbulb memories
b)
Mnemonic devices
c)
Iconic traces
d)
Semantic techniques
79.
You forgot your grocery list at home and are trying to remember what you need. Unfortunately you can only recall the first 4 items on the list. This illustrates the impact of 
a)
Automatic processing
b)
Parallel processing
c)
Flashbulb memory
d)
The serial position effect
80.
In 50 First Dates, Drew Barrymore's character was in a car accident and cannot form new memories. This illustrates
a)
Anterograde amnesia
b)
Retrograde amnesia
c)
Motivated forgetting
d)
Retroactive interference 
81.
When someone mentions getting ice cream, Ms. C immediately thinks of Graeter's. In this instance, Graeter's Ice Cream is a
a)
Fixation
b)
Algorithm
c)
Heuristic
d)
Prototype
82.
The smallest distinctive sound unit of language is a
a)
Prototype
b)
Phenotype
c)
Morpheme
d)
Phoneme
83.
If you watch a sequel to movie, and have trouble remembering if a character was in the first movie, you are experiencing...
a)
Repressive Memories
b)
Proactive Interference
c)
Retroactive Interference
d)
Memory Decay
84.
Memory in which people recall events in great detail is called
a)
Generic Memory
b)
Procedural Memory
c)
Iconic Memory
d)
Flashbulb Memory
85.
Disruptive efffect of prior learning on the recall of new information (Forward Acting)
a)
Retroactive Interference
b)
Proactive Interactive
c)
Repression
d)
Misinformation Effect
86.
In Pavlov's experiment, the salivating to the sound of a bell is a(n)
a)
UCS
b)
UCR
c)
CS
d)
CR
87.
Anything that increases the likelihood of a behavior will continue, by adding something the subject likes. 
a)
Continuous Reinforcement
b)
Operant Conditioning
c)
Positive Reinforcement
d)
Negative Reinforcement
88.
Anything that seeks to continue a desired behavior by the removal of something the organism doesn't like is called __.
a)
Negative Reinforcement
b)
Punishment
c)
Positive Reinforcement
d)
Partial Reinforcement
89.
Decrease a behavior from happening again by following it with a negative consequence
a)
Negative Reinforcement
b)
Punishment
c)
Operant Conditioning
d)
Escape Learning
90.

Not having to do the dishes if you take out the trash is an example of what?

a)

Positive Reinforcement

b)

Negative Reinforcement

c)

Punishment

d)

Cognitive Learning

91.
Paying a fine for speeding is an example of what type of learning? 
a)
Positive Reinforcement
b)
Negative Reinforcement
c)
Punishment
d)
Classical Conditioning 
92.
Getting a sticker when you get a good grade on a test is an example of what type of learning? 
a)
Positive Reinforcement
b)
Negative Reinforcement
c)
Punishment
d)
Classical Conditioning 
93.
Pavlov's experiment is an example of what type of learning? 
a)
Cognitive Learning
b)
Observational
c)
Classical Conditioning
d)
Operant Conditioning
94.

In the human eye, rods are to _________, as cones are to ________.

a)

light/ color

b)

color/ light

c)

monochromat/ dichromat

d)

dichromat/ monochromat

e)

lens/ iris

95.

What sense helps maintain balance?

a)

Vestibular

b)

Kinesthetic

c)

Proprioception

d)

Audition

e)

Olfaction

96.

The coiled, fluid filled tube in which sound waves trigger nerve impulses is called...

a)

eustachian tube

b)

auditory canal

c)

semicircular canal

d)

cochlea

e)

vestibular aparatus

97.

What color afterimage would occur after viewing the color blue?

a)

blue

b)

red

c)

yellow

d)

green

e)

white

98.

The principle that two stimuli must differ by a constant proportion for their difference to be perceived is known as...

a)

opponent process theory

b)

feature detector

c)

sensory interaction

d)

Weber's law

e)

absolute threshold

99.

A person's diminished sensitivity to an unchanging stimulus is known as...

a)

accomodation

b)

parallel processing

c)

sensory adaptation

d)

transduction

e)

sensory equilibrium

100.

a person typically fails to consciously perceive their own nose in their line of vision. This best illustrates...

a)

subliminal perception

b)

change blindness

c)

cocktail party effect

d)

selective attention

e)

visual cliff

101.

While waiting in line at Starbucks, Kramer was playing games on his cell phone and subsequently failed to see the customer in front of him rob the cashier. This is an example of...

a)

inattentional blindness

b)

place theory

c)

blind spot

d)

feature detectors

e)

sensory adaptation

102.

Although Bill was seated next to his friend, he was able to smell the burning popcorn a full minute earlier than his friend. Bill must have a lower _________ for smell.

a)

accommodation level

b)

absolute threshold

c)

tolerance level

d)

gustatory saturation level

e)

adaptation level

103.

If you are expecting an important text message, you are much more likely to notice the sound as soon as the message arrives. This best illustrates...

a)

priming

b)

signal detection theory

c)

difference threshold

d)

absolute threshold

e)

Weber's law

104.

Emotions are a mix of consciously experienced thoughts expressive behaviors, and physiological arousal. Which theory emphasized the importance of the consciously experienced thoughts?

a)

A. Facial feedback theory

b)

B. James-Lange theory

c)

C. Arousal and performance theory

d)

D.Fight or flight theory

e)

E.Schachter-Stinger two factor theory

105.

______________ is the idea that physiological needs create an aroused state that motivates an organism to reduce the need.

a)

A.Instinct theory

b)

B.Drive-reduction theory

c)

C.Self-assertion instinct

d)

D.Arousal theory

e)

E.Hierarchy of needs

106.

____________ explains why, when our biological needs are satisfied, we may still feel driven to experience stimulation.

a)

A.Incentive

b)

B.Homeostasis

c)

C.Instinct

d)

D.Arousal

e)

E.Physiology

107.

Why does weight loss come slowly following a rapid loss during the initial three weeks of a rigorous diet?

a)

A.The number of fat cells makes further weight loss impossible.

b)

B.When a person’s hunger increases, metabolism increases.

c)

C.When an obese person’s set point has been reached, weight loss increases dramatically.

d)

D.The body reacts as if it’s being starved and metabolic rates drop.

e)

E.An obese person cannot maintain a rigorous weight loss diet.

108.

What do we call a need or desire that energizes and directs behavior?

a)

A.Incentive

b)

B.Refractory period

c)

C.Emotion

d)

D.Motivation

e)

E.Instinct

109.

Abraham Maslow’s hierarchy of needs is a framework that?

a)

A.Aims to eliminate arousal.

b)

B.Explains our homeostatic system.

c)

C.Helps to describe human motivation.

d)

D.Helps people reach self-transcendence.

e)

E.In universally fixed.

110.

What is the tendency to maintain a balanced or constant internal state?

a)

A.Hierarchy of needs

b)

B.Basal metabolic rate

c)

C.Homeostasis

d)

D.Instinct

e)

Theory of Motivation

111.
Incentive Theory
a)
There is a reward for completing a task e.g. I go to work to get paid.
b)
You need stimulation so find an interesting task to participate in e.g. play a game.
112.
The Yerkes-Dodson Law predicts that most people would perform an easy task best if they are at a 
a)
high level of arousal
b)
low level of arousal
c)
baseline state
d)
level of self-actualization
113.
Engaging in a behavior because it's personally rewarding is _______ motivation
a)
Intrinsic
b)
Instinct
c)
External
114.
Second phase of general adaptation syndrome.
a)
Alarm reaction
b)
Plateau
c)
Resistance
d)
Resolution
115.
The most basic or lowest-level need in Maslow's hierarchy of human needs includes the need for
a)
self-esteem.
b)
love and friendship.
c)
religious fulfillment.
d)
food and water.