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Hazmat Detectors Quiz

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When the Wait (W), Alarm or Sample (S) indicators start to flicker side to side on a GID-3 unit, it indicates:

a)

The detector‘s IMS is not functioning

b)

There is a deficiency in the power source

c)

There is unknown vapor detected

d)

The detector had been contaminated

2.

Where should the GID-3 be placed during initial confirmation of CA release?

a)

Staging Point

b)

Between Hot zone and Warm zone boundary

c)

Between Cold zone and Warm zone boundary

d)

Forward Triage Area

3.

The picture below displays an uncut Draeger tube being inserted into the Accuro Gas Detector Hand pump. What type of the hand pump test is being conducted?

a)

Leak test

b)

Positive pressure test

c)

Suction test

d)

Pump test

4.

When the “Chirper Mode” of the Ultra Radiac is activated, which of the following actions can a responder perform?

a)

Estimate the distance and pinpoint the location of the alpha and beta radiation source

b)

Pinpoint the location of the gamma radiation source

c)

Identify the radiation source

d)

Show the dose rate readings of alpha particles

5.

What is the default mode of the FH 40

a)

Counter Mode

b)

Rate meter

c)

Total Dose

d)

Dosage

6.

FH40 alarm will be triggered at which of the following rate (cps)?

a)

50cps

b)

1000cps

c)

100cps

d)

10cps

7.

What is the purpose of the GID-3?

a)

To detect anthrax during an indoor release

b)

To detect nerve, blister, blood & choking agents in the environment

c)

To detect radiological agents during an outdoor release

d)

All of the above

8.

When the “ loudspeaker” is turned on for an Intensimeter unit, the X50 DE will sound with a warning signal if the dose rate exceeds:

a)

1µSv/ Hr

b)

25µSv/ Hr

c)

100µSv/ Hr

d)

250 µSv / Hr

9.

The diagram below, shown on an AP4C detector, indicates :

a)

Overpassing of Unknown Chemicals

b)

Presence of Hydrocarbons

c)

Absence of S4PE

d)

Absence of the sampling nozzle

10.

Which of the following indicates blood or choking detection in Low reading?

a)
b)
c)
d)
11.

What does it means when the following symbol appears of Saphydose.

a)

Battery level is low

b)

Evacuation is required as the Saphydose measure 5 mSv/h

c)

Maintenance is required by vendor

d)

Beta radiation is detected

12.

What is the proper set up procedure of the Intensimeter?

a)

Switch on the X 50 DE; attach to the Telescope Probe; remove rubber cap; ready for use.

b)

Switch on the X 50 DE; attach to the Telescope Probe; wait for self-test; X 50 DE automatically enters into dose rate measurement mode; ready for use.

c)

Attach the X 50 DE to the Telescope Probe; switch on the X 50 DE; wait for self-test; X 50 DE automatically enters into dose rate measurement mode; ready for use.

d)

Attach the X 50 DE to the Telescope Probe; switch on the X 50 DE; wait for self-test; press Toggle Button until dose rate measurement mode; ready for use.

13.

What is the correct way to read the concentration level of a chemical on the Short Colour Metric Draeger tube?

a)

The concentration level of the chemical detected is read off at the level of the tube after the colour change.

b)

The concentration level of the chemical detected is read off at the level of the tube where there is no further colour change.

c)

The concentration level of the chemical detected is read off at the level of the tube before the colour change.

d)

The concentration level of the chemical detected is read off at the level of the tube at the start of the colour change.

14.

Which of the following statements regarding the Intensimeter are true?


i) Press the Switch-over button to switch between Dose and Dose Rate measurement modes.


ii) Press and hold the Search button to use the un-averaged analogue reading to search for the directions of unknown radiation sources.


iii) Fully extend the Telescope Probe to maximise distance from the radiation sources.


iv) The function of the Telescope Probe is interrupted when the Switch-over button is pressed.

a)

i, iii and iv

b)

i & ii

c)

ii, iii & iv

d)

All of the above.

15.

What are the types of Radiation that the Ultra Radiac can detect?

a)

Gamma

b)

Alpha

c)

Beta

d)

All of the above

16.

When the external probe is attached to the FH40 basic Unit , which of the following particles it can detect?

a)

Alpha & Gamma

b)

Alpha & Beta

c)

Alpha, Beta & Gamma

d)

Alpha, Beta ,Gamma & Neutrons

17.

What could possibly cause the following indicator to appear on the Ultra Radiac display screen?

a)

The Geiger Muller tube has failed and needs repair

b)

High dose rate of 100mSv/hr has occurred and the area is “ HOT Zone”

c)

Dose rate of 5Sv/hr has occurred and immediate evacuation is required

d)

The ULTRA RADIAC self-start up initialization test has failed. The unit needs to be sent back for servicing

18.

When taking background measurement at the Decon Point, what is the minimum distance the monitor of the FH40 should be away from any contaminated object or person?

a)

50cm

b)

100cm

c)

150cm

d)

200cm

19.

When the external probe is attached to the FH40 basic unit, which of the following particles can it detect?

a)

Alpha & Gamma

b)

Alpha & Beta

c)

Alpha, Beta & Gamma

d)

Alpha, Beta, Gamma & Neutrons

20.

What does the FH40 detect without attaching to an external probe?

a)

Dirty bomb with possible alpha contaminants

b)

Radiation incidents with no beta and only alpha contaminants

c)

Radiation incidents with beta and gamma contaminants

d)

Dirty bomb with only gamma contaminants

21.

What is the default mode of the FH40?

a)

Counter mode

b)

Rate meter

c)

Total dose

d)

Dosage

22.

Which of the following gas is the G999 calibrated against for flammability limits?

a)

Propane

b)

Butane

c)

Ethane

d)

Hexane

23.

Which of the following sensors on the G999 can detect and measure chlorine gas?

a)

Infra Red

b)

Thermal Conductivity

c)

Electrochemical

d)

Catalytic Combustion

24.

Which of the following situations will not trigger the alarm of G999?

a)

Exceeding detection range of the EC sensor

b)

Pump fault test fails

c)

Detection of gas below IDLH levels

d)

Detection of gasses below TWA levels

25.

Which of the following 2 gases are present in all configuration of the G999?

a)

CH4CH_4 and H2SH_2S

b)

CH4CH_4 and O2O_2

c)

CH4CH_4 and NH3NH_3

d)

O2 O_{2\ } and NH3NH_3

26.

What does the LCD 3.3 detect?

a)

Liquid chemical warfare agents and solid state toxic industrial chemicals

b)

Airborne chemical warfare agents and vapors of toxic industrial chemicals

c)

Radioactive particulates and solid state toxic industrial chemicals

d)

Airborne chemical warfare agents and solid state biological agents

27.

What are the detection modes for the LCD 3.3?

a)

TIC mode, Radiation mode and CWA mode

b)

Identification mode, CWA mode and Standard mode

c)

Standard mode, Survey mode and CWA mode

d)

TIC mode, CWA mode and Survey mode

28.

When responding to an unknown CA release, what mode should the LCD 3.3 be on?

a)

Standard

b)

CWA

c)

Survey

29.

Which of the following detectors uses a hydrogen stocker?

a)

LCD3.3

b)

AP4C

c)

GID3

d)

FH40

30.

In the CWA mode, the LCD3.3 samples the environment once every (a)   seconds.