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OMDR quiz

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
          Which type of radiation effect results in radiation induced carcinogenesis
a)
Stochastic
b)
Genetic
c)
Deterministic
d)
Autosomal
2.
           Most susceptible to radiations are:
a)
Nucleic acids
b)
Nerve cells
c)
Muscle cells
d)
Epithelial cells
3.
Radiation caries is caused by irradiation of
a)
Enamel
b)
Salivary glands
c)
Enamel and dentin
d)
Oral mucosa
4.
Effect of radiation is
a)
Cumulative
b)
Fractionalized
c)
Concentrated
d)
Dependent on genetic make up
5.
           Cells are most sensitive to radiation in
a)
G2 phase
b)
G1 phase
c)
G1 phase and early S phase
d)
G2 and late S phase
6.
Radiation affects blood supply because of
a)
Anemia
b)
Endarteritis of small blood vessels
c)
Infection
d)
All of the above
7.
           The skin of a patient undergoing radiotherapy will show after 2 weeks?
a)
Erythema
b)
Depigmentation
c)
Radiation induced carcinoma
d)
None of the above
8.
           Decay of enamel following radiotherapy is initiated due to:
a)
Decrease in salivary flow
b)
Direct radiation contacting the enamel
c)
Dessication of tooth structure
d)
Hypocalcification and pitting of enamel
9.
           A patient requires tooth extractions from an area that has been subjected to radiation therapy. Which of the following represents the greatest danger to this patient?
a)
Alveolar osteitis
b)
Osteoradionecrosis
c)
Prolonged healing
d)
Fracture of the mandible
10.
           Fixed post mitotic cells are:
a)
Spermatocytes
b)
Fibroblasts
c)
Endothelial cells
d)
Muscle cells
11.
First complication after radiotherapy is:
a)
Mucositis
b)
Candidiasis
c)
Alopecia
d)
Xerostomia
12.
           All of the following are true except
a)
Use of speed-E film reduces radiation exposure
b)
Use of rectangular collimator is indicated to decrease the radiation exposure
c)
Use of collimator is recommended to reduce the size of X-ray production
d)
Use of rectangular collimator decreases density
13.
           Deterministic effects of radiation are those effects in which the severity of response
a)
Is proportional to the dose.
b)
Is determined by the operator
c)
Depends on composition of tissue
d)
Depends on volume of exposed tissue
14.
           In radiation biology, latent period means
a)
Cell rest and mitosis
b)
First and last dose of radiotherapy
c)
Film exposure and image development
d)
Radiation exposure and onset of symptoms
15.
           True about X-rays is
a)
They do not damage structure of all kind of biologic cells
b)
In adult cell, the effect of radiation is short term and reversible
c)
Only central rays are harmful to the patients
d)
None of the above
16.
The most common type of radiation caries is
a)
Cervical surface involvement of teeth
b)
Widespread superficial lesion attacking buccal, occlusal, Incisal and palatal surfaces
c)
Spreading to occlusal and palatal surfaces
d)
Dark pigmentation of the entire crown
17.
           Months or years following radiotherapy, the irradiated oral mucosa
a)
Develops candidiasis
b)
Develops granulomatosis
c)
Becomes atrophic
d)
Undergoes necrosis
18.
           Management of osteoradionecrosis would require all of the following EXCEPT
a)
Antibiotic coverage
b)
Hyperbaric oxygen
c)
Fluoride application
d)
Non removal of sequestrum
19.
           Compared with calcium tungstate screens, rare earth screens decrease patient exposure by about
a)
0.2
b)
0.55
c)
0.35
d)
1
20.
           Which consequence does not occur due to radiation
a)
Decreased visual acquity
b)
Altered taste
c)
Xerostomia
d)
Mucositis
21.
           Radiation induced caries occurs in?
a)
1 month
b)
3 months
c)
6 months
d)
9months
22.
Thickness of lead in thyroid collar
a)
0.25- 0.5mm
b)
1.0 mm
c)
1.5 mm
d)
2.0 mm
23.
           The substance most commonly used for protection against X-ray radiation is
a)
Zinc
b)
Steel
c)
Lead
d)
porcelain
24.
In intra oral radiography patient radiation is decreased by except
a)
High speed film
b)
Lead apron
c)
Intensifying screens
d)
Decreasing KVP
25.
           Ideal position for dentist to stand while taking radiographs
a)
Behind head of patient
b)
At an angle of 90-135 degrees and six feet away from patient
c)
In 11'o clock position
d)
At an angle of 180° and 9 feet away
26.
           The single most effective method of reducing patient somatic exposure when taking radiograph is to use
a)
A lead apron
b)
Speed E/F film
c)
Added filtration
d)
An open ended, shielded cone
27.
           Among the natural radiation, the one that contributes to more radiation exposure of general population
a)
Cosmic
b)
Terrestrial
c)
Radon
d)
Consumer products
28.
           Unit of measurement to compare radiation damage
a)
Exposure
b)
Absorbed dose
c)
Equivalent dose
d)
Effective dose
29.
           Teeth affected by radiation hazard show
a)
Occlusal caries
b)
Rampant caries
c)
Proximal caries
d)
Chronic caries
30.
           Compared to round collimator, use of rectangular collimator reduces the patient's skin surface exposed by what percentage
a)
15
b)
30
c)
60
d)
45
31.
           Radiation caries occurs due to all of the following except
a)
Bone defects
b)
1. Fibrosis of salivary glands
c)
1. Decreased flow of saliva
d)
Low pH of saliva
32.
           Which of these factors has no effect on response of cells to irradiation
a)
Oxygen
b)
Linear energy transfer
c)
Image receptor used
d)
Dose rate
33.
           The operator should stand at a distance of while taking radiograph?
a)
8 feet
b)
2 meters
c)
10 feet
d)
6 feet
34.
           All of the following are guiding principles in radiation protection EXCEPT
a)
Optimization
b)
Dose limitation
c)
Justification
d)
None of the above
35.
One of the following is radiation protection method for both operator and patient
a)
Lead Apron
b)
E/F speed film
c)
Position distance rule
d)
Filtration
36.
           Intensifying screen is used in extrao oral radiography to
a)
Increase contrast
b)
Decrease contrast
c)
Reduce radiation to the patient
d)
Collimation
37.
           All of the following are the methods of radiation protection EXCEPT
a)
Collimation
b)
Filtration
c)
Duplication of films
d)
Lead apron
38.
           All of the following are radiation protection measures for operator EXCEPT
a)
Quality assurance
b)
TLD
c)
Position distance rule
d)
Grids
39.
The best way to ensure that personnel are following office safety rules
a)
Personnel monitoring devices
b)
Position distance rule
c)
Wearing lead apron
d)
All of the above
40.
           Which law does position distance rule follow
a)
Coulomb’s law
b)
Inverse square law
c)
Both of the above
d)
None of the above
41.
           Which of the following leads to reduced radiation exposure for the patient
a)
Paralleling technique
b)
Bite-wing technique
c)
Bisecting angle technique
d)
All of the above
42.
Dentists and their staff are allowed to receive how many mSv per year of whole body radiation per year?
a)
20
b)
50
c)
100
d)
150
43.
Disadvantage of using grids during radiography is
a)
Decreased exposure time
b)
Increased patient exposure due to more exposure time
c)
1. Reduces secondary radiation to film
d)
Increased fog
44.
           The fastest dental film currently available out of the following
a)
D
b)
C
c)
F
d)
E
45.
           A step wedge phantom is used to assess the quality assurance of
a)
Dark room
b)
Chemicals used for processing
c)
1. Timing of X ray machine
d)
Radiation leakage
46.
           Screen films differ from non screen films. How?
a)
They are more sensitive to light than X rays
b)
They are more sensitive to X rays than light
c)
They are usually used in intra oral radiography
d)
They do not require intensifying screens
47.
           By the term "genome" we denote:
a)
DNA of the chromosomes
b)
the translated parts of the genes
c)
DNA of the mitochondria
d)
DNA of the chromosomes and mitochondria
48.
The effect of radiation on genetic diseases is:
a)
to introduce new types of diseases
b)
to increase the occurrence probability of naturally existing diseases
c)
both of the above
49.
           The gastrointestinal syndrome is induced by a total-body absorbed dose of X rays:
a)
more than 100 Gy
b)
Less than 5 Gy
c)
3-8 Gy
d)
None of the above
50.
           Which of the following symptoms is characteristic of the radiation induced cerebrovascular syndrome?
a)
Nausea
b)
Vomiting
c)
Diarrhoea
d)
Disorientation
51.
           Which of the following statements regarding the prodromal syndrome is false
a)
The main symptoms of the syndrome are nausea and vomiting
b)
The syndrome is followed by a symptom-free period, known as the latent period
c)
The higher the dose, the more rapid the onset, and the greater the severity of symptoms
d)
None of the above
52.
           Which of the following regarding CNS and CVS effects of radiation is true
a)
Exposures greater than 50 Gy
b)
Victims also may present with intermittent stupor, incoordination, disorientation
c)
Exposures greater than 20 Gy usually cause death in 1 to 2 days
d)
Collapse of the circulatory system
53.
           Which of the following statements is false
a)
By "prodromal radiation syndrome" are denoted the symptoms that appear soon after a high-intensity exposure to radiation. These symptoms last for a limited period of time
b)
By "early radiation lethality" is meant death occurring within, at most, a few weeks after a high-intensity exposure to radiation
c)
Early radiation lethality is subdivided into three distinct modes of death: the cerebrovascular syndrome, the gastrointestinal syndrome and the hematopoietic syndrome
d)
The mode of early radiation lethality is not related to the dose
54.
           By "sublethal damage“, it is meant
a)
an irreversible damage which leads to cell death
b)
an irreversible damage which does not always lead to cell death
c)
a damage that can be repaired unless it interacts with a subsequently induced sublethal damage
d)
a damage that can be modified by post irradiation environmental conditions
55.
Direct action of radiation is the dominant process for
a)
X-rays
b)
Neutrons and alpha particles
c)
Electrons
d)
Gamma rays
56.
A free radical is
a)
Any charged particle
b)
An atom or molecule with an unpaired electron in the outer shell
c)
An atom with an even number of electrons
d)
A chemically stable atom
57.
           What is the most important lesion produced in chromosomal DNA by exposure to ionizing radiation?
a)
A break on one DNA strand ('single-strand break’).
b)
Well-separated breaks on both DNA strands
c)
Breaks on both DNA strands which are opposite each other or separated by only a few bases ('double-strand break’)
d)
Multiple breaks on the same DNA strand
58.
           A deterministic effect
a)
has a threshold in dose but the severity of the effect is otherwise dose-independent
b)
has a threshold in dose and the severity of the effect increases with dose
c)
has no threshold in dose and the severity of the effect is a constant function of dose
d)
has no threshold in dose and the severity of the effect increases with dose
59.
           Quantitative risk estimates for radiation-induced cancer are mainly based on data from
a)
victims of radiation accidents
b)
experiments with animals
c)
the survivors of Hiroshima and Nagasaki
d)
All of the above
60.
           The equivalent dose is
a)
the mean absorbed dose over all irradiated organs
b)
the product of absorbed dose and radiation weighting factor for a given tissue or organ, where the absorbed dose is averaged over the tissue or organ
c)
the product of absorbed dose and tissue weighting factor
d)
None of the above
61.
           The susceptibility of a tissue or organ to radiation is accounted for in
a)
the equivalent dose
b)
the absorbed dose
c)
Effective dose
d)
None of the above
62.
Complication of irradiation of mouth may include all EXCEPT
a)
Accelerated periodontal disease
b)
Accelerated caries activity
c)
Caries in unusual sites
d)
Xerostomia
63.
           Which one of the following are least radiosensitive
a)
WBC, bone cells, epithelial cells
b)
RBC, muscle cells, epithelial cells
c)
Connective tissue cells, endothelial cells, muscle cells
d)
Muscle cells, nerve cells, bone cells
64.
           Radiation causes cell death by
a)
Disruption of cytosol
b)
Charring of nucleoproteins
c)
Destroying mitochondria
d)
Ionization
65.
           Reduced salivary flow following irradiation is dose dependent. A what dose does the flow reach essentially zero:
a)
4000 rads
b)
5000 rads
c)
6000 rads
d)
7000 rads
66.
           The best method to reduce radiation caries is
a)
0.5% neutral Na F gel
b)
1. 1% neutral NaF gel
c)
0.55% Stannous fluoride gel
d)
1. 1% Stannous fluoride gel
67.
           Which layer of epithelium is most radiosensitive to radiation
a)
Stratum corneum
b)
Stratum granulosum
c)
Stratum spinosum
d)
Stratum basale
68.
           Cells that are damaged by radiation release into their immediate environment molecules that kill nearby cells. This is known as
a)
Apoptosis
b)
Bystander effect
c)
Latent period
d)
Prodromal period
69.
The short-term effects of radiation on a tissue (effects seen in the first days or weeks after exposure) are determined primarily by the sensitivity of
a)
Connective tissue
b)
Parenchyma
c)
DNA
d)
Mitochondria
70.
           According to ADA, all of the following are non critical items EXCEPT
a)
Film holding instruments
b)
Lead apron
c)
Dental chair and headrest
d)
X ray machine
71.
           The abbreviation TLD denotes
a)
Type of grid
b)
Personnel monitoring device
c)
An intensifying screen
d)
None of the above
72.
           Unit of radiation exposure is
a)
Rad
b)
Roentgen
c)
Seivert
d)
Rem
73.
           Which of the following is most ionizing
a)
Alpha rays
b)
Beta rays
c)
Gamma rays
d)
X rays
74.
           Penny test is quality assurance test to check
a)
Fixer depletion
b)
Contaminated solution
c)
Machine malfunction
d)
Unsafe illumination
75.
           The principle of optimization includes
a)
ALARA
b)
ALADA
c)
Both of the above
d)
None of the above