Which of the following is not a type of microRNA?

The field of genomics refers

Which is incorrect about inducible operons?

The enzyme that helps pack DNA into the cell by coiling the DNA into a tight bundle is _______

The lactose repressor

Bacterial conjugation involves

A permanent, inheritable change in the genetic information is called ________.

The _____ is all of the genetic material of a cell.

The fundamental difference between an organism's genotype and its phenotype is that

T/F: DNA photolyase, in the presence of visible light, can repair DNA damage due to ultraviolet radiation

The operon segment composed of the gene that codes for a protein repressor is called the ________.

The enzyme that can proofread replicating DNA, detect incorrect bases, excise them, and correctly replace them is _______.

A screening system called the _______ test is used for detecting chemicals with carcinogenic potential.

Which of the following is not true of transposons?

DNA Polymerase I

Which is incorrect about purines?

The expression of genetic traits is referred to as the organism's ______.

T/F: Proteomics is the study of all proteins that are expressed by an organism, whereas genomics refers to the study of the organism's entire genome, not simply the protein-coding regions.

The antiparallel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to

A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a ______ mutation.

Split genes

If a codon for alanine is GCA, then the anticodon is ____

Which of the following additions have been made to principles of the central dogma of biology?

T/F: Introns have no detectable functions

A sequence of bases within a gene that does not code for protein is called a/n _______.

The term 'recombinant organism' refers to

T/F: The smallest unit of heredity is a chromosome.

Which of the following is not a type of bacterial DNA recombination?

RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because only RNA

Which cell can transfer the most DNA?

Helicase ___

The jumping of a gene from one location to another is done by ________.

All of the following pertain to nitrogenous bases except

During replication, each parent DNA strand serves as a _____ for synthesis of new DNA strands.

A ______ is a specific segment of DNA that codes for the production of one functional product.

The duplication of a cell's DNA is called ____

A mutation has occurred during DNA replication while the cell was preparing to divide. As a result of this, the codon ACU of mRNA has now become ACC. Interestingly, there is no change to the protein being made. Why not?

The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are called ________.

Which of the following is not true of conjugation?

Each nucleotide is composed of

The mechanism of DNA synthesis differs between the two new daughter strands during replication. This is due to the fact that

A primer comprised of _______ is needed at the origin of nucleotide addition.

T/F: Recombinant organisms are those that have received new DNA in the form of a conjugated plasmid; genetically engineered cells are not considered recombinant.

Okazaki fragments are attached to the growing end of the lagging strand by _______.

The most serious type of mutation is a ______ mutation.

In Griffith's experiments with Streptococcus pneumoniae, rough nonencapsulated streptococci were converted into smooth encapsulated streptococci in the presence of the heat-killed smooth encapsulated streptococci. Which microbial process had Griffith identified?

Microorganisms exhibit genomes contained on

The transfer of DNA fragments from a dead cell to a live, competent recipient cell that results in a changed recipient cell is termed ________.

All of the following pertain to transcription except

Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from bacterial chromosomes because only eukaryotes have

Groups of three consecutive bases along the DNA of a gene have the code for one _______.

T/F: DNA polymerase can only add new nucleotides to the 3' DNA end of the template

T/F: Repressible operons are normally turned on in the cell.

Looking at your results of the Ames test using bacteriological agar medium plates lacking the amino acid histidine, you find that there are many colonies growing on the agar. How do you interpret this result?

A bacteriophage transfers a random fragment of DNA of the previous host to the current host. This is an example of

DNA gyrase

Gene regulation can involve a protein repressor that blocks ______ from initiating transcription.

The site where the old DNA strands separate and new DNA strands will be synthesized is called the

T/F: When DNA is heated, the two strands will separate.

Sequences of DNA that are identical when read from the 5' to 3' direction on one strand and the 3' to 5' direction on the other strand are ______.

Which PCR step synthesizes complimentary DNA strands?

If you start with 3 double-stranded DNA fragments, after 4 cycles of PCR you will have ____ fragments.

DNA fragments can be separated in gel electrophoresis because

Why is an enzyme from a thermophilic bacterium used in PCR?

Of the following choices, which could be used in the treatment of a patient in order to determine the patient's cancer subtype?

Often natural disasters leave little intact DNA with which to identify the victim's remains using traditional DNA fingerprinting techniques. The discovery of ______ made genetic analysis possible with minute amounts of genetic material.

Fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH) probes are applied to intact cells and observed microscopically for the presence and location of

Making new genomes is called _____

Thermococcus litoralis and Thermus aquaticus are thermophilic bacteria that are

Which of the following is a list of the materials required for PCR?

Which step in gene mapping can occur even more rapidly by PCR?

One reason the field of proteomics is continually evolving following the systematic study of an organism's genome is because

T/F: A proteome is an organism's full array of expressed proteins, and proteomics is the study of those proteins and the functions they mediate.

The enzyme required to attach the sticky ends of DNA and used when splicing DNA fragments into other DNA is ______.

Which of the following is not true of fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)?

The various techniques by which scientists manipulate DNA in the lab are termed ______.

Your infant has been diagnosed with severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID). Your doctor suggests which treatment as a possible cure for the disease?

Amplification of DNA is accomplished by ______.

T/F: The advantage of germline therapy over somatic cell therapy is that the normal gene is inserted into an egg, sperm, or developing embryo so that the repair is present in every cell of the organism as it matures to adulthood.

T/F: Viruses are often used as cloning hosts in recombinant DNA methods.

Transgenic Organisms are

T/F: The field of pharmacogenomics uses knowledge of an individual's single nucleotide polymorphisms to determine how they will respond to a particular drug.

Vectors often contain a gene conferring drug resistance to their cloning host, in order to detect cells harboring the plasmid

Labeled, known, short stretches of DNA used to detect a specific sequence of nucleotides in a mixture are known as ______.

Two different nucleic acids can _____ by annealing at their complementary sites.

Each of the following are features of a cloning host except

T/F: Restriction endonucleases are obtained from various species of bacteria.

In choosing the vector used to carry human genes into a host cell, which of the following should be the important consideration?

A technique that separates a readable pattern of DNA fragments is ______.

Genomic _____ are collections of isolated genes maintained in cloning hosts.

Restriction endonucleases recognize and clip DNA base sequences called ______.

T/F: Transformation and transduction are methods used to introduce DNA into host cells.

The primers in PCR are

T/F: Identification of unique DNA fingerprints relies on the presence of single nucleotide polymorphisms among samples.

The size of DNA is often given in the number of _____ that it contains.

The study of genomes of a particular community is called ______.

Why is an enzyme from a thermophilic bacterium used in PCR?

DNA strands can be clipped crosswise at selected positions by using enzymes called ______.

T/F: It is now possible to very quickly map the genome.

In the formation of recombinant DNA, what enzyme is needed to seal the sticky ends of genes into plasmids or chromosomes?

Microarray analysis is used to

EcoRI and HindIII are ______.

T/F: The advantage of germline therapy over somatic cell therapy is that the normal gene is inserted into an egg, sperm, or developing embryo so that the repair is present in every cell of the organism as it matures to adulthood.

T/F: Restriction endonucleases are obtained from various species of bacteria.

Geneticists can create sequences of DNA from RNA using enzymes called ______.

The first genetically engineered protein approved for human use was ______.

Which of the following is a promising treatment for stopping the expression of an unwanted gene?

Before the advent of biotechnology, diabetics would use insulin harvested from cows. Now they receive human insulin produced through ______

When patient tissues are transfected with viruses carrying a needed, normal human gene, the technique is called ______.

T/F: Reverse transcriptase is used to make cDNA from an RNA template.

Which step in gene mapping involves transformation?

T/F: Pasteurization is used to sterilize milk.

T/F: The presence of organic matter such as saliva and pus can interfere with the actions of disinfectants.

The method of removing vegetative microbial life forms and debris to reduce contamination to safe levels is termed ______.

T/F: Ozone is a very effective disinfectant.

T/F: All microbicidal agents are sterilants.

The use of a physical or chemical process to destroy vegetative pathogens on inanimate objects is ______.

Microbial death occurs when there is

The method of removing vegetative life forms from living surfaces is termed ______.

Scrubbing or immersing the skin in chemicals to reduce the numbers of microbes on the skin is ______.

The lowest temperature needed to kill or inactivate all microbes in 10 minutes is the

T/F: Chlorine and ethylene oxide are sterilizing gases.

Which is correct regarding the rate of microbial death?

T/F: Surgeons preparing for an invasive surgical procedure will scrub their hands thoroughly, and then they use a strong alcohol-based hand sanitizer which renders their hands sterile.

You have inherited some old glass baby milk bottles from your grandmother, and you would like to use them instead of plastic bottles. The bottles are placed into a large metal container and placed in the oven at 325^oF for about 2 hours. What factor would you change if you wanted the sterilization to occur much quicker?

Physical agents for controlling microbial growth include all of the following except ______.

T/F: Ionizing radiation is more effective than nonionizing radiation in killing or inactivating microbes.

In lab, inoculating loops are sterilized using ______.

Sterilization is achieved by

Which of the following microbial forms has the highest resistance to physical and chemical controls?

Dry heat __

The minimum sterilizing conditions in a steam autoclave are

HEPA filters are used to remove microbes from

The sterilizing gas used in chemiclaves is ______.

T/F: Most microbial contaminants of food are killed or inactivated at freezing temperatures.

Pasteurization ___

Some microbial control agents are able to _____ cell proteins by breaking bonds that maintain the native state, the three-dimensional configuration of the proteins.

Which of the following types of control agents would be used to achieve sterility?

Intermittent sterilization, which uses 3 days of lower temperature steam for short periods of time, is also called ______.

Surfactants work by

Vials of microorganisms that undergo the freeze-drying process, called _____, will remain preserved and viable for years.

_____ radiation excites atoms to a higher energy state within molecules such as DNA, which leads to the formation of pyrimidine dimers.

_____ solution was introduced in the late 19th century for preventing gonococcal infections in a newborn's eyes after exposure to the mother's infected birth canal.

Electrons are ejected from atoms in cells when organisms are exposed to _____

The easiest microbial forms to kill or inhibit are ______.

Which antimicrobial method does not sterilize?

The use of filtration for sterilization

T/F: Soaps and detergents are very effective as sterilants.

The use of chemical agents directly on exposed body surfaces to destroy or inhibit vegetative pathogens is ______.

_____ is a halogen used in gaseous and liquid form for large scale disinfection of drinking water and sewage.

Removal of moisture by dehydration is called ______.

T/F: Continued widespread use of the phenolic compound triclosan is advantageous in that it is important to remove as many organisms as possible from our hands and there is little risk of resistant organisms evolving.

_____ is a control method that removes microorganisms rather than inhibiting or killing them.

T/F: A microorganism that is not motile and has stopped metabolizing is considered dead.

The alcohol wipe used on a patient's skin before an injection is an example of ______.

Ethylene oxide is ____

Disinfection of beverages such as apple juice, milk, and wine is optimally achieved by ______.

What instrument is most effective for pressure-temperature sterilization?

T/F: Bacteriostatic agents kill bacterial cells.

T/FPrions require more extensive methods of sterilization than are needed for bacterial endospores.

Each of the following is a target of antimicrobial agents except ______.

T/F: Isopropyl alcohol wiped across a skin site can sterilize it.

The shortest time required to kill or inactivate all the microbes in a sample at a specified temperature is called the

Placing organisms at 4^oC is ______.

A method for sterilizing milk, called _____ treatment, uses 134°C for 1 to 2 seconds.

Which of the following represents the use of osmotic pressure as a microbial control method?

Each of the following is a mechanism for drug resistance transfer between microorganisms, except ______.

Mebendazole, thiabendazole, and ivermectin are drugs used to treat _____ infections.

Three classmates from microbiology class are talking about drug resistance. They each disagree about the definition of the term so they state his or her definition and give a justification. Compare the various definitions and justifications below and pick the one that is most accurate.

Antiviral drugs that target reverse transcriptase would be used to treat infections caused by ______.

T/F: An antibiotic of the penicillin family is penicillin G.

The _____ are drugs that deposit in developing teeth and cause a permanent brown discoloration.

Primaquine and chloroquine are drugs used in the treatment of ______ infections.

T/F: Selective toxicity should be avoided when developing a new antimicrobial drug.

Organisms have a tendency to develop resistance to beta-lactams, and humans can develop allergic reactions to them. A drug that also targets the cell wall and can be used as an alternative is ______.

Which of the following antimicrobials does not inhibit DNA synthesis?

Each of the following affect cell walls, except ______.

Ampicillin, amoxicillin, mezlocillin, and penicillin G all have ______.

The use of vaginal inserts of Lactobacillus to restore a healthy acidic environment is an example of ______.

The use of any chemical in the treatment, relief, or prophylaxis of a disease is called ______.

Sulfonamides are analogs of PABA and, as a result, they inhibit _____ synthesis.

Selective toxicity exhibited by a drug means that

Ketoconazole, fluconazole, clotrimazole, and miconazole are broad-spectrum azoles used to treat _____ infections.

All of the following pertain to cephalosporins, except

Antimicrobials effective against a wide variety of microbial types are termed ______.

Drug susceptibility testing determines

A ratio of the dose of the drug that is toxic to humans versus the minimum effective dose for that pathogen is assessed to predict the potential for toxic drug reactions. This is called the ______.

Bacteriophages selectively infect bacterial cells. How might they be used as a therapeutic treatment in humans?

T/f: Indwelling catheter biofilm infections are more resistant to antibiotics than nonbiofilm infections.

A superinfection results from

T/F: It is better to use a broad-spectrum drug instead of a more specific, narrow-spectrum drug.

An ideal antimicrobial therapeutic drug exhibits all of the following characteristics, except

If pathogen A is more resistant to an erythromycin disc on a Kirby-Bauer plate compared to pathogen B, then pathogen A will have a/n _____ zone of inhibition compared to pathogen B.

Each of the following target bacterial ribosomes, except ______.

T/F: The MIC is the smallest concentration of an antimicrobial required to inhibit the growth of the microbe.

T/F: When a patient's immune system reacts adversely to a drug, this serious side effect is called a superinfection.

The antifungal drug that can be used to treat serious systemic fungal infections is ______.

The use of a drug to prevent imminent infection is called ______.

Infections caused by gram-negative bacilli are often treated with ______.

T/F: The use of antibiotics in cattle feed leads to the development of antibiotic-resistant bacteria.

Penicillins and cephalosporins

The drug used for several protozoan infections is ______.

Nutrients that encourage the growth of beneficial microbes in the intestines are known as ______.

T/F: Drugs that are hepatotoxic cause damage to a patient's kidneys.

What molecule will allow some bacteria to be resistant to many penicillins?

A patient has a staphylococcal infection of the blood; a septicemia - very serious and possibly deadly. As the doctor, you would like to prescribe a relatively non-toxic and inexpensive drug out of the cephalosporin family. However, if the patient harbors a strain of Staphylococcus that is resistant to a variety of antibiotics, you would prefer to use vancomycin-- which is highly effective against Staphylococcus. Which of the following explains why the cephalosporin drug is preferred for use over the vancomycin?

Beta-lactams are selectively toxic because

Antibiotics are derived from all of the following, except ______.

T/F: An antibiotic of the penicillin family is penicillin G.

Drugs that act by mimicking the normal substrate of an enzyme, thereby blocking its active site, are called ______.

The most selectively toxic drugs are those that

There are fewer antifungal, antiprotozoan, and antihelminthic drugs compared to antibacterial drugs because fungi, protozoa, and helminths

Which antimicrobial does not interfere with protein synthesis?

T/F: The first modern antimicrobial drugs were sulfa drugs.

Your patient has been on antibiotics for 6 weeks after a case of streptococcal endocarditis, an infection of the inner heart wall. The infection clears up. However, the patient just visited you about a urinary tract infection, and the lab verified that the culprit was E. coli. What do you hypothesize happened in this situation?

T/F: The Kirby-Bauer test uses an agar surface seeded with the test bacterium, and small discs containing a specific concentration of several drugs are placed on the surface.

Why do researchers often include DNase in their antibiotic preparations to eliminate biofilms?

Which antibiotic is used to treat MRSA and VRE infections?

Over 50 percent of all sales of medically important antibiotics in the United States are for livestock use. Why is this problematic for humans?

All of the following pertain to fluoroquinolones, except

T/F: Species of Bacillus produce bacitracin and the polymyxin drugs.

Acyclovir is used to treat infections caused by ______.

Alexander Fleming had been running tests using Staphylococcus, and he left some plates out to incubate. Evidently, after returning to his lab after the weekend, he found that Penicillium mold was growing on his agar plates containing the growth of Staphylococcus. Looking more closely, he found a large, clear area around the mold colony where Staphylococcus colonies did not grow. Given this situation, a valid hypothesis would be that

Which of the following blocks HIV binding to host cell receptors?

Each of the following contributes to emerging drug resistance except

Broad-spectrum drugs that disrupt the body's normal biota often cause

Substances that are naturally produced by certain microorganisms that can inhibit or destroy bacteria are called ______.

Who is considered to be the father of modern antibiotics?

Side effects that occur in patient tissues while they are on antimicrobial drugs include all of the following, except

Which of the following is not used to treat malaria?

Aminoglycosides __

The multidrug resistant pumps in many bacterial cell membranes function by

A high therapeutic index is advantageous. This refers to

Penicillins and cephalosporins

T/F: Bacteria can have a natural resistance to a drug to which they have never been exposed.

A clinical microbiologist makes serial dilutions of several antimicrobials in broth, and then incubates each drug dilution series with a standard amount of a patient's isolated pathogen. What is this microbiologist setting up?