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Worksheets

Prevention and Rehab

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is GBS?

a)

Unilateral, demyelinating polyneuropathy

b)

Progressive degenerative death of cells in the substantia nigra, leading to a dopamine deficiency

c)

Bilateral, demyelinating polyneuropathy

d)

CNS disease in which myelin sheath on axons is damaged

2.

What is typically the first sign of GBS?

a)

Weakness of the upper limbs

b)

Tingling in the fingers

c)

Sensory loss (usually paresthesia)

d)

Weakness in the lower limbs

3.

What is Parkinson's Disease?

a)

Unilateral, demyelinating polyneuropathy

b)

Progressive degenerative death of cells in the substantia nigra, leading to a dopamine deficiency

c)

Bilateral, demyelinating polyneuropathy

d)

CNS disease in which myelin sheath on axons is damaged

4.

What is Multiple Sclerosis?

a)

Unilateral, demyelinating polyneuropathy

b)

Progressive degenerative death of cells in the substantia nigra, leading to a dopamine deficiency

c)

Bilateral, demyelinating polyneuropathy

d)

CNS disease in which myelin sheath on axons is damaged

5.

What should you be looking for when taking MMT's on a GBS pt?

a)

Muscle weakness

b)

Symmetrical weakness and plateau of symptoms

c)

Abnormal tone

d)

None of the above

6.

Treatment of GBS should include? (tick all that apply)

a)

Respiratory care

b)

Muscle strengthening

c)

Balance training

d)

CV fitness training

7.

Which of the following is NOT an early symptom of PD?

a)

Unexplainable tiredness and fatigue

b)

Mild muscular cramps

c)

Freezing

d)

These are all early symptoms

8.

When should you train a pt with MS who is taking Levadopa?

a)

When they are "on"

b)

When they are "off"

c)

Whenever

d)

Depends on what you are training

9.

Which of the following is the most common type of MS?

a)

Remitting / Relapsing MS

b)

Primary Progressive MS

c)

Secondary Progressive MS

d)

All similar prevalence

10.

Which of the following are common impairments of MS? (tick all that apply)

a)

Tremors

b)

Decreased muscle strength

c)

Decreased thermoregulation

d)

Spasticity

11.

Management of fatigue and heat sensitivity in an MS pt should include?

a)

Progressive training/pacing

b)

Avoid strenuous exercise on days pt reports increased systemic fatigue

c)

Exercise in a cool environment

d)

Wear loose light clothing

e)

All of the above are correct

12.

Common weaknesses/impairments associated with Fasioscapular Dystrophy are? (tick all that apply)

a)

Weakness of scapular stabiliser (winging scapulars)

b)

Weakness of gluteals

c)

Weakness of traps

d)

Hyperlordosis

13.

Typical symptom behaviour of Myasthenia Gravis is...

a)

Pt wakes up feeling fine, but feels incredibly weak by end of the day

b)

Pt wakes up feeling very weak, but gradually improves as day goes on

c)

Strong night pain, wake up with sore muscles

d)

None of the above

14.

BPPV occurs when...

a)

The otoconia (crystals) move from the SCC's to the utricle

b)

The otoconia (crystals) move from the utricle to the SCC's

c)

Unilateral damage to vestibular / inner ear system

d)

Bilateral damage to vestibular / inner ear system

15.

Pt's suffering from BPPV typically have hearing loss or tinnitus (ringing in ears).

a)

True

b)

False

16.

As the brain is not receiving signals from either side in Bilateral Vestibular Loss, the pt does NOT suffer from...

a)

Oscillopsia

b)

Dizziness, vertigo or nystagmus

c)

Imbalance

d)

Walking impairments

17.

In which form of BPPV does nystagmus only stop when the pt is moved out of the provoking position?

a)

Canalithisis (otoconia are free floating in SCC)

b)

Cupulolithisis (otoconia attach to the cupula)

18.

What are the 3 common causes of dizziness we learnt about? (select 3)

a)

VBI

b)

Multiple Sclerosis

c)

BPPV

d)

Peripheral Vestibular Hypofunction

e)

Sudden drops in BP

19.

Symptoms of peripheral vestibular hypofunction usually persist for long?

a)

< 1 min

b)

~ 30 mins

c)

3 - 4 days

d)

Up to a week

20.

Oscillopsia is?

a)

Sensation that there is no gravity

b)

Sensation that surrounding environment is constantly in motion

c)

Sensation just before vomiting

d)

Honestly couldn't care less

21.

When assessing for Vertebro-basilar Insufficiency you should be watching for?

a)

Nystagmus and vomiting

b)

3 Ns and 5 Ds

c)

5 D's and 3 N's

d)

None of the above

22.

To assess the Ant. and Post. SCC's for BPPV, which test would you use?

a)

Dix-Hallpike

b)

BBQ Roll

c)

Head Thrust test

d)

Roll test

23.

To assess the horizontal SCC for BPPV, which test would you use?

a)

Dix-Hallpike

b)

BBQ Roll

c)

Head Thrust test

d)

Roll test

24.

When assessing for peripheral vestibular hypofunction, which tests would you use? (select 3)

a)

Dix-Hallpike

b)

Head thrust test

c)

Dynamic visual acuity test

d)

Eply's

e)

Head shaking nystagmus

25.

If you have a positive Dix-Hallpike test, meaning the otoconia are in the ant. or post. SCC, what would you do for treatment? (select 3)

a)

Eply's Maneuver

b)

BBQ Roll

c)

Cervical spine PROM

d)

Vestibular rehab exercises

e)

Education (e.g. provoking positions, falls prevention)

26.

If you have a positive Roll test, meaning the otoconia are in the horizontal SCC, what would you do for treatment? (select 3)

a)

Eply's Maneuver

b)

BBQ Roll

c)

Cervical spine PROM

d)

Vestibular rehab exercises

e)

Education (e.g. provoking positions, falls prevention)

27.

What is the recommended minimum times per day a vestibular pt should perform their exercises?

a)

1

b)

3

c)

10

d)

58

28.

Dystonia is characterized by...

a)

Contractures causing lack of voluntary movement

b)

Repetitive movements caused by hypo-activity in motor cortex

c)

Voluntary muscle contractions

d)

Involuntary muscle contractions

29.

The leading hypothesis for dystonia is that it is a network disorder between the basal ganglia, cerebellum and motor cortex, that leads to too much excitement and too little inhibition.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

Which of the following is NOT a common impairment of dystonia?

a)

Contractures in direction of pull

b)

Spasticity

c)

Poor voluntary muscle recruitment

d)

Pain

31.

Assessment of dystonia should include... (select all that apply)

a)

ROM (active and passive)

b)

QoL questionnaire

c)

Gait analysis

d)

Functional assessments

32.

Really only symptomatic treatment for dystonia is currently available. Of this, what is the best option?

a)

Deep brain stimulation

b)

Muscle relaxant medications

c)

Physical therapy

d)

Botox

e)

Selective denervation surgery

33.

Limitations of botox in treatment of dystonia? (tick all that apply)

a)

Muscle hypertrophy

b)

Decreased effectiveness over time

c)

Dysphagia

d)

Expensive and painful

e)

Cyclic (every 12 weeks)

34.

There is only low quality evidence for PT in treatment of dystonia. However what are some proposed benefits for it as an adjuvant to Botox? (select 3)

a)

Lengthen botox cycle

b)

Eliminate dysphagia

c)

Amplify effects of botox

d)

Reduce side effects of botox (e.g. reduce muscle atrophy)

35.

Which of the following is recommended in treatment of Writer's cramp (impairment of focal dystonia in hands)?

a)

Ultrasound to wrist extensors

b)

Write smaller and tighter letters/words

c)

Modify pt's pen use (e.g. add rubber grip)

d)

None of the above

36.

A patient who you have been encouraging to start a gradual running program has started to go for a couple of walks this week. What stage of change is this patient in?

a)

Pre-contemplation

b)

Contemplation

c)

Preparation

d)

Action

e)

Maintenance

37.

Which of the following is correct? It is recommended that...

a)

Older people get some form of physical activity, no matter age, weight, health or abilities

b)

Older people should be active every day

c)

Older people should accumulate at least 30 mins of moderate intensity activity daily

d)

Older people should gradually build up to recommended amount, type and frequency

e)

All of the above are correct

38.

How often should older people be asked about falls?

a)

Every GP visit

b)

Once a year

c)

If they have a fall

d)

Whenever you remember

39.

Which of the following are triggers for further fall assessment? (select all that apply)

a)

> 1 fall in last year

b)

Fall resulting in injury

c)

Symptoms of dizziness

d)

TUG > 25 seconds

e)

Evidence of fear of falling

40.

SPLATT (post fall evaluation), stands for?

a)

Symptoms, previous falls, location, activity, time, trauma

b)

Signs, previous falls, location, action, time, tingling

c)

Seriousness, previous falls, location, action, trauma, trauma

41.

Which of the following is FALSE of the Otago Exercise Program?

a)

4-5 group sessions, prescribing strength and balance exercises

b)

Pt's need to be able to stand on 1 leg for 3-5 seconds

c)

35% falls reduction

d)

Includes a walking plan

42.

You have a pt who has displayed fear of falling and is looking for a community exercise program. Which is MOST appropriate?

a)

Stepping On Program

b)

LiFE

c)

Matter of Balance

d)

Tai Chi

43.

Dual tasking in healthy adults requires 2 things. These are?

a)

Attentional and arousal

b)

Attention and cognitive awareness

c)

Sound vision and cognitive awareness

d)

Arousal and no cognitive deficits

44.

Which of the following are good strategies to employ when treating an Indigenous pt? (tick all that apply)

a)

Get into contact with Indigenous liaison officer if possible

b)

Avoid using medical jargon

c)

Identify the nationhood of the Aboriginal individual

d)

Identify, respond to and document specific cultural and spiritual needs

e)

Confirm that information has been understood

45.

Which of the following is TRUE?

a)

Buoyancy means increased compressive forces on joints

b)

Aquatic physio has no proven psychological benefits

c)

The hydrostatic pressure of water can decrease swelling, increase venous return and increase resting muscle blood flow

d)

Buoyancy decreases ROM in joints

46.

The benefits of aquatic physio to the MSK system are? (tick all that apply)

a)

Decreased weight bearing / compressive forces

b)

Muscle strengthening

c)

Increased blood flow = better muscle performance

d)

Increased tropomyosin released

47.

Which of the following is NOT a contra-indication to aquatic therapy?

a)

Infections

b)

Bowel accident

c)

Wound care

d)

These are all contra-indications

48.

Telerehabilitation is only for rural / remote patient's?

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

49.

Which of the following are "red flags" / inhibit use of telehealth? (tick all that apply)

a)

Poor electricity / internet connect

b)

Poor vision and/or hearing impaired

c)

Need to assess functional mobility

d)

Pt has demonstrated risk behaviours (e.g. poor impulse control)

50.

Which is the most superior response to controlling a risk?

a)

Substitute

b)

Isolate

c)

Eliminate

d)

Administrative controls

51.

It is appropriate to use personal training as the sole or primary means to control a risk?

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

52.

Which of the following is NOT a hazardous manual task assessment tool?

a)

PErforM

b)

ManTRA

c)

RULA

d)

RUG - ADL

e)

REBA

53.

The 3 elements of Human Factor / Ergonomics are? (select 3)

a)

Anthropometrics

b)

Cognitive

c)

Physical

d)

Organizational

54.

Participatory ergonomics refers to...

a)

Participating in the environment to experience first hand the ergonomics

b)

Maximising involvement of the workers as they are the expert of their job

c)

Understanding the task being performed

d)

None of these seem to be correct

55.

Which of the following is NOT a psychological risk factor for LBP?

a)

High job security

b)

High job demand

c)

Low job satisfaction

d)

Low social support

56.

Which of the following are risk factors for neck pain (while at work)?

a)

High job demands

b)

Posture

c)

Co-morbidities

d)

All of the above

57.

Aquatic physio __________ exercise-induced asthma.

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

Has no effect on

58.

Cervical dystonia usually involves shortening primarily of which muscle?

a)

Scalenes

b)

SCM

c)

Upper traps

d)

Abdominals

59.

Which of the following is NOT an ocular motor test?

a)

Smooth pursuit

b)

Vergence

c)

Dynamic visual acuity

d)

Saccadic eye movements

60.

Mysathenia Gravis is compounded / made worse by?

a)

Repetitive movements

b)

Poor proprioception

c)

Exercise

d)

Massage