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WorksheetsTMC review
Total questions: 50
Worksheet time: 52mins
While reviewing the chest x-ray of a 57-year-old male patient, you note that there is blunting of the left costophrenic angle. It’s also noted that the patient has a history of CHF. Which of the following best describes this patient’s condition?
There is a pneumothorax on the left side
There is a pleural effusion on the left side
There is pulmonary edema in the left lung
There is pneumonia in the left lower lobe
When there is blunting of the costophrenic angle on a chest x-ray, you should automatically know that a pleural effusion is present.
Blunting of the costophrenic angle = Pleural effusion
The question even states that the left costophrenic angle is blunted, so you should have immediately recognized that a pleural effusion is present on the left side. The question also states that the patient has a history of CHF which is indicative of a pleural effusion as well.
None of the other answer choices really make sense in this situation, so we know that the correct answer has to be B.
An adult patient with fluid overload was given a dose of furosemide intravenously. After the drug was given, the patient displayed an arrhythmia on the EKG that was not present before. Which of the following would you recommend in this situation?
Defibrillate the patient
Administer another dose of furosemide
Administer a dose of epinephrine
Check the patient’s potassium level
First and foremost, you had to know that furosemide is another name for Lasix — which, of course, is a diuretic agent that is given for patients with fluid overload.
In general, you need to know that when Lasix (or any diuretic agent) is given, the patient will excrete a large amount of potassium. And remember, potassium levels are associated with the heart, so this explains why the patient has a new arrhythmia.
There is no indication to give more Lasix, nor is there an indication to give epinephrine. Also, there is no indication to defibrillate the patient.
A 66-year-old female was admitted to the emergency department showing signs of dyspnea, shortness of breath, and chest tightness. Lab tests were ordered to check her troponin and BNP levels but the results were negative. Additionally, her ABG results indicated partially compensated respiratory acidosis. Which of the following is the most likely problem for this patient?
Pneumonia
CHF
Exacerbation of COPD
Myocardial Infarction
After reading the question, it should immediately jump out to you that this is a COPD patient that is having an acute exacerbation, but let’s break it down.
Negative results for troponin would rule out a myocardial infarction. Negative results for BNP would rule out CHF. So now, basically, you just have to choose between pneumonia and COPD.
You can look at the patient’s ABG results and it’s a dead giveaway. COPD patients typically have fully compensated respiratory acidosis, but since this patient is having an acute exacerbation, her ventilatory status is deteriorating and the body can only compensate so much, which explains the partial compensation.
During the assessment of an adult patient with chronic asthma, their results displayed the following:
SVC of 3,500 mL
FVC of 2,500 mL
What is the most likely reason for the difference in these values?
Increased compliance during a forced expiration
Poor instruction by the previous respiratory therapist
Air trapping during a forced exhalation
Muscle fatigue during a forced expiration
The first thing that should stand out in the question is that the patient has asthma, which we know is an obstructive disease. And we know that air trapping is a commonality in obstructive diseases.
If a patient has a significant difference between their slow vital capacity and forced vital capacity, this indicates that air is trapped in the lungs when the patient exhales forcefully.
Because the airways are obstructed or constricted, as with bronchospasm in asthma, all of the air can be expelled if the patient exhales slowly, it just takes longer. This explains why the values are lower for the FVC as compared to the SVC.
The physician has ordered acetylcysteine for a 66-year-old female patient with COPD who has a large amount of thick secretions. Upon assessment, you note that the patient has a weak, inadequate cough. Which of the following would you recommend?
Perform a bronchoalveolar lavage
Nasotracheal suctioning after the treatment
Postpone the therapy until the patient can cough effectively
Administer dornase alpha instead of acetylcysteine
There are a few things about this question that stand out, so let’s break it down. First, you needed to know that acetylcysteine is another name for Mucomyst, which is a drug that is typically given for retained secretions.
Also, you needed to recognize that the question tells us the patient has an inadequate cough. This means that they will have trouble clearing secretions on their own, which tells us that some type of intervention must be performed.
Of the answer choices that are listed, the best way to help remove the secretions would be to NT suction the patient after the treatment is given.
Dornase alfa (Pulmozyme) is a medication that is used to treat patients with cystic fibrosis, and none of the other answer choices really make sense in this situation.
A COPD patient is being discharged and the doctor wants to prescribe a controller-type bronchodilator for home use. Which of the following medications would you recommend?
Albuterol
Levalbuterol
Metaproterenol
Brovana
To get this one right, you needed to have a basic understanding of the different types of bronchodilators.
Albuterol, levalbuterol, and metaproterenol are all fast-acting sympathomimetic bronchodilators — so we can rule them out immediately.
Brovana, on the other hand, is a long-duration controller-type medication that is intended to help stable patients with chronic bronchospasm.
Upon assessment of a high-risk infant, you note bradycardia and spells of apnea. Which of the following would you recommend?
Surfactant therapy
Nasal CPAP
Aerosolized bronchodilator
Mechanical ventilation
Whenever you see an infant with bradycardia and spells of apnea, you should automatically know to initiate mechanical ventilation, as these are indications.
CPAP helps with oxygenation but not ventilation, so you know it can’t be that one. There is no indication for a bronchodilator, nor is there an indication for surfactant either at this time.
During the assessment of a 1-week-old infant, which of the following signs would indicate the infant has an increased work of breathing?
Pallor
Nasal Flaring
Digital clubbing
Acrocyanosis
To get this one correct, you simply needed to know the common signs that occur when an infant is in respiratory distress.
The most common signs include:
• Tachypnea
• Nasal flaring
• Grunting
• Chest wall retractions
Please remember these because you will (most likely) see them again on the TMC Exam.
A 59-year old female patient with COPD is receiving supplemental oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min. Her ABG results are as follows:
pH 7.37
PaCO2 58 torr
HCO3- 32 mEq/L
PaO2 58 torr
SaO2 85%
Based on this data, which of the following would you recommend?
Increase the oxygen flow to 3 L/min
Switch to BiPAP with an FiO2 of 100%
Switch to a nonrebreathing mask at 10 L/min
Switch to an air entrainment mask at 24%
To get this one correct, you needed to be able to interpret the ABG results and make the most appropriate changes for the patient.
By looking at the results, you can see that hypoxemia is present because the PaO2 and SaO2 are both decreased.
A BiPAP isn’t indicated in this case because the patient is ventilating fine, as you can see with a pH that is in the normal range. A nonrebreathing mask isn’t indicated either because that would provide too much oxygen for this patient — especially since the question tells us that the patient has COPD.
Switching to a 24% air entrainment mask will likely decrease her inspired level of oxygen(since she is technically getting 28% with the 2 LPM she is on now), so we can rule that one out as well.
In this case, the best action to take is to increase the oxygen flow to 3 L/min and continue to monitor the patient.
A post-operative adult patient is being treated with incentive spirometry. The patient's inspiratory capacity has decreased over the past few days and their level of dyspnea has been increasing. A chest x-ray reveals consolidation in the lung bases with no shift of the trachea. Which of the following has most likely developed?
Pneumonia
Pleural effusion
Atelectasis
Pneumothorax
To get this one correct, you have to look at all the details that were provided in the question and break it all down.
Atelectasis is a common problem that you want to avoid after a patient has had surgery. But we can rule it out in this case because the question tells us that there was no tracheal shift on the chest x-ray. Remember, when atelectasis is present, the trachea will shift towards the affected side.
We can also rule out a pneumothorax and pleural effusion as well because there would have been a tracheal shift away from the affected side in both conditions.
On the TMC Exam, whenever you see that a patient has consolidation on a chest x-ray, you should automatically think that pneumonia is present. This is what is causing the shortness of breath for the patient in this question.
While assessing a mechanically ventilated patient after a neurosurgical procedure, the patient has an intracranial pressure of 20 mmHg but is otherwise stable. The latest ABG results are as follows:
pH 7.31
PaCO2 48 mm Hg
HCO3 24 mEq/L
PaO2 88 mm Hg
SpO2 95%
Based on this information, which of the following would you recommend?
Increase the minute ventilation
Add 10 cm H2O PEEP
Decrease the tidal volume
Maintain the current settings
The first thing you have to interpret is that the patient has a higher than normal ICP. Remember, the normal range for ICP is 10-15 mmHg.
PEEP is not indicated and there is no indication to decrease the tidal volume, so we can rule those two out right away.
Remember that for patient with a high ICP, you can actually lower it by purposefully hyperventilating the patient.
And since this patient is already slightly acidotic with an elevated PaCO2, hyperventilation could help to lower the PaCO2 and ICP all at the same time. So in order to hyperventilate the patient, we need to increase the minute ventilation
A newborn 28-week gestational age neonate is being treated in an oxygen hood with an FiO2 of 50%. The physician believes that the patient has infant respiratory distress syndrome. The following blood gas results were obtained:
pH 7.36
PaCO2 38 mm Hg
HCO3 25 mEq/L
BE 0 mEq/L
PaO2 46 mm Hg
Based on the results, what should you recommend?
Start nasal CPAP at 5-8 cm H2O
Increase the oxygen hood concentration to 100%
Intubate and begin mechanical ventilation with PEEP
Obtain a chest X-ray to look for a pneumothorax
To get this one correct, you must be able to interpret the blood gas results and make the necessary changes.
You can see that the acid-base status of this infant is within normal range. With that said, you can see that the patient has severe hypoxemia by looking at the PaO2. This is most likely due to shunting caused by the IRDS.
In this case, an initial trial of nasal CPAP should be attempted before intubation and mechanical ventilation.
You were called to obtain a forced vital capacity maneuver on an adult patient with normal lungs. What percentage should the patient be able to exhale within the first second of the maneuver?
30-50% of the FVC
50-70% of the FVC
70-83% of the FVC
84-93% of the FVC
To get this one right, you simply needed to know the normal range for the FEV1/FVC ratio as a percentage.
In general, patients with normal lungs should be able to exhale at least 70% of their vital capacity within the first 1 second (FEV1).
Patients with an obstructive disease will show a reduced FEV1% value, while patients with restrictive diseases will show a normal or sometimes high FEV1% values.
A 52 kg female patient is receiving volume control A/C mechanical ventilation with a tidal volume of 400 mL, a set rate of 10/min, and an FiO2 of 35%. Her blood gas results are as follows:
pH 7.31
PaCO2 49 torr
HCO3 24 mEq/L
BE -2 mEq/L
PaO2 74 torr
SpO2 95%
Based on the given information, which of the following changes is appropriate at this time?
Increase the FiO2
Increase the tidal volume
Increase the set rate
Maintain the current settings
First and foremost, you must interpret the ABG results. In this case, the patient shows acute respiratory acidosis. And by looking at the PaO2 and SpO2, we can determine that her oxygenation status is satisfactory.
To correct acute respiratory acidosis, we need to blow off some of that CO2 and we can do that by increasing the minute ventilation. This means that we need to either increase the rate or increase the tidal volume.
The question provides her weight of 52 kg and the set tidal volume of 400 mL, so we can calculate that the tidal volume is set appropriately:
400/52 = 8 mL/kg
So since the tidal volume is set correctly, we know that in order to lower the PaCO2, we need to increase the rate.
A neonate with meconium aspiration syndrome is receiving mechanical ventilation. If you were to increase the pressure limit, this would increase the risk of which of the following?
Pneumothorax
Oxygen toxicity
Tracheoesophageal fistula
Retinopathy of prematurity
To get this one correct, you needed to have a basic understanding of what happens when you adjust the pressure limit on a ventilator.
By increasing the pressure limit, you will increase the infant’s tidal volume which can increase the risk of their lung tissues being overinflated and torn. Of course, this can result in barotrauma which can lead to a pneumothorax.
Oxygen toxicity occurs when the patient receives a high percentage of oxygen for a prolonged period of time. Retinopathy of prematurity is a complex condition related to prematurity and frequent swings in the patient’s arterial blood oxygen and carbon dioxide levels.
A tracheoesophageal fistula can be the result of a developmental defect or caused by tissue damage from an endotracheal tube and nasogastric tube. None of which are occurring here
An adult patient is receiving mechanical ventilation with a PEEP setting of 10 cmH2O. The physician has requested that you increase the setting to 14 cmH2O. After making the adjustment, there is a rapid drop in the patient’s blood pressure and a significant increase in heart rate. Which of the following actions should you take?
Increase the FiO2 by 10%
Lower the PEEP back to 10 cmH2O
Administer sodium bicarb
Obtain a stat EKG
To get this one correct, you needed to know that an adverse effect of PEEP is a decreased cardiac output.
This is clearly what’s going on with this patient because the question tells us that there is a rapid drop in a blood pressure and rise in heart rate.
As a Respiratory Therapist, when there is an adverse response to any type of therapy, your first reaction should be to stop the therapy and restore the patient to their prior state. In this case, it only makes sense to lower the PEEP back to the previous setting of 10 cm H2O.
After reviewing the results of a patient’s pulmonary function tests, you note that the FEV1, FVC, and total lung capacity are all reduced. The FEV1/FVC ratio is normal. What is the interpretation based on these findings?
Restrictive lung disease
Obstructive lung disease
Combined obstructive-restrictive lung disease
The test is invalid
This is your typical PFT interpretation question. You will see a few of these on the TMC Exam. And to get them right, you must understand what each value means in regards to knowing the difference between an obstructive and restrictive disease.
Since this patient has a normal FEV1/FVC ratio, this indicates that there is not an obstructive disease.
And since the FEV1, FVC, and TLC are all reduced, this indicates a restrictive disease.
While reviewing the chest x-ray of a 47-year-old male patient, you note that the heart is shifted to the patient’s right. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this finding?
Atelectasis of the left side
Tension pneumothorax on the left side
Tension pneumothorax on the right side
Pleural effusion on the right side
To get this one correct, you needed to have a basic understanding of chest radiograph findings and what they tell you about a patient’s condition.
In general, you should remember that the heart and mediastinum are pulled toward areas of collapse and pushed away from areas containing abnormal air or fluid.
So in this case, since there is a shift of the heart position to the right, that means that there is either a collapse on the right, or there is excess air or fluid on the left.
With that said, now we just have to go through the answer choices to come up with the correct answer. Atelectasis on the left side would pull the heart to the left. A pneumothorax or a pleural effusion on the right side would push the heart away to the left side.
However, a pneumothorax on the left side would push the heart away from the affected side to the patient’s right.
A 58-year-old female is receiving volume control A/C ventilation at a rate of 12/min with a tidal volume of 450 mL. The FiO2 is set at 40% and her ABG results are as follows:
pH 7.35
PaCO2 44 torr
HCO3 22 mEq/L
BE 0 PaO2 91 torr
SaO2 97%
Based on this information, you should recommend which of the following?
Decrease the minute ventilation
Discontinue mechanical ventilation
Administer IV bicorbonate
Maintain the current settings
The first thing you need to do is interpret the ABG results. By doing so, you will see that all of the values fall within the normal ranges. And by looking at the ventilator settings that are provided in the question, everything appears to be set appropriately.
Therefore, no changes are indicated at this time. The settings should be left unchanged.
You were called to perform a set of FVC tests on a 55-year old male patient. While looking at the results of the first attempt, you determined that it took too long for the patient to reach the peak expiratory flow. Before another attempt is performed, which of the following instructions should you give the patient?
Take a deeper breath
Don't hesitate
Blast the air out faster
Blow out longer
The question tells us that it took the patient too long to reach the peak expiratory flow, which means that the patient simply isn’t exhaling fast enough. This can cause invalid results.
In this case, you should simply instruct the patient to blast the air out faster at the beginning of the maneuver and this will correct the issue.
Taking a deeper breath will not fix the issue and the patient doesn’t seem to have a problem hesitating. Blowing out longer isn’t going to fix the issue either
During the assessment of a 60-year-old male patient, you noticed reduced tactile fremitus. This finding is typical in all of the following conditions EXCEPT:
COPD
Pneumothorax
Pulmonary edema
Pleural effusion
To get this one correct, you first needed to know what tactile fremitus is.
Tactile fremitus refers to the vibrations that can be felt as you palpate the chest wall. There is usually increased tactile fremitus over areas of consolidation, such as pneumonia and pulmonary edema.
Tactile fremitus would be reduced in conditions like COPD and a pneumothorax because the lung is overinflated. It would also be reduced in a pleural effusion because the effusion would block and decrease the sounds coming from the lungs
A 43-year-old male patient admitted to the emergency department with a suspected drug overdose. The patient is receiving oxygen via nonrebreather but is unconscious and
isn’t making any respiratory efforts to breathe. The patient’s body weight is 57 kg and his ABG results are as follows:
pH 7.28
PCO2 74 torr
HCO3 20 mEq/L
PaO2 315 torr
Which of the following would you recommend?
Apply BiPAP with: IPAP 20 cm H2O, EPAP 5 cm H2O, FIO2 30%
Intubate and apply: SIMV, tidal volume 600 mL, rate 6/min, FIO2 40 %
Intubate and apply: A/C ventilation, tidal volume 450 mL, rate 12/min, FIO2 50%
Apply CPAP at 10 cm H2O and an FiO2 of 100%
First we must interpret the ABG results. By doing so, we can see that the patient is in acute respiratory acidosis and needs full ventilatory support. This means that we can immediately rule out any of the answer choices with BiPAP and CPAP.
The SIMV mode at a rate of 6/min is only going to provide partial ventilatory support, so we can rule that one out as well.
The best option for this patient is assist/control ventilation at a normal rate with an initial tidal volume of about 8 mL/kg
A 63-year-old female patient is orally intubated with a size 7 endotracheal tube and is receiving ventilatory support. While attempting to suction the patient with a size 12 Fr catheter, you note that the catheter cannot pass beyond the tip of the tube. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this problem?
There is a kink in the tube
The tube is in the right main bronchus
The suction catheter too short
The suction catheter size is too large
After reading the question and answer choices, first we must determine if the right size suction catheter is being used. A simple way to do that is to “double the ET tube size number and then take the next size down.”
So with a size 7 endotracheal tube, you double that number to get 14. Then take the next smallest catheter size, which is 12. So a size 12 Fr catheter is appropriate in this case, which rules out C and D.
Usually when you are unable to pass a suction catheter, it indicates that there is an obstruction in the tube. And most obstructions are either caused by a mucus plug or kinking or biting of the tube.
Even if the tube is in the right mainstem bronchus, you should still be able to pass the suction catheter beyond the tip of the tube.
A patient in the ICU is receiving positive pressure ventilatory support but appears to be breathing asynchronously with the machine-delivered breaths. Which of the following medications would you recommend?
Fluoxetine (Prozac)
Midazolam (Versed)
Dextroamphetamine (Dexedrine)
Cisatracurium (Nimbex)
To get this one correct, you just needed to know what medications are typically given to patients on the ventilator for sedation.
Nimbex is a neuromuscular blocking agent, not a sedative. Dexedrine is a stimulant and Prozac is an antidepressant — so we can rule these out right away.
Versed is a benzodiazepine that is used to provide sedation for patients receiving mechanical ventilation and, of course, is the correct answer.
Other common medications that are used to sedate mechanically ventilated patients include hypnotics like propofol (Diprivan), alpha-2 agonists like Precedex, and opioid analgesics like fentanyl.
A 59-year-old female patient has a vital capacity of 3.4, functional residual capacity of 5.8, and an expiratory reserve volume of 1.2. What is the patient's total lung capacity?
5.9
6.8
8.0
8.8
To get this one correct, you simply need to know how to calculate the patient’s TLC using the information that is given in the question. This can easily be done using the “lung box.”
We recommend that you draw the “lung box” on your scratch paper before you begin the exam. That way you can use it on the PFT questions (like this one) throughout the exam.
But for this one, basically all you have to do is subtract the ERV from the FRC which will give you the patient’s residual volume. Then you can get the TLC by adding the residual volume and vital capacity together.
5.8 – 1.2 = 4.6
4.6 + 3.4 = 8
TLC = 8
