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Surgical Problems & Procedures: General Surgery Anesthesia

Total questions: 63

Worksheet time: 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Fi (inspired gas concentration) is determined by?

a)

Free gas flow rate

b)

Breathing Circuit + Volume

c)

Circuit Absorption

d)

CO2 Intake

2.

FA (alveolar gas concentration) is determined by?

a)

Uptake

b)

Ventilation

c)

Concentration Effect

d)

Secondary Gas Effect

3.

What is anesthesia?

a)

Partial/Complete loss of sensation with or without LOC as a result of disease, injury or administration of anesthetic agent

b)

lidocaine 1%

c)

lidocaine 2%

d)

Bupivacaine 0.5%

4.

Fa = arterial gas concentration, is affected by?

a)

Ventilation/Perfusion Mismatching

b)

Free gas flow rate

c)

Breathing Circuit Volume

5.

What are the 3 basic end points of anesthesia?

a)

Pure Analgesia

b)

Numbing only

c)

Hypnosis, Muscle Relaxation, Analgesia

6.

During general anesthesia, what could be used to treat hypotension?

a)

Lisinopril

b)

Metoprolol Tartrate

c)

Ephedrine

d)

Atropine

7.

What happens with general anesthesia (state and administration)?

a)

Controlled state of consciousness, unarousable and loss of airway control

b)

IV drugs with rapid onset

c)

Uncontrolled state of consciousness, with symptoms of Mania followed by anhedonia

d)

Oral

8.

Propofol is what kind of medication?

a)

Anesthetic

b)

Vasopressor

c)

Hypnotic

9.

MOA for Atracurium and its use?

a)

Antagonizes Ach by binding cholinergic receptor sites on motor end plate

b)

Used for neuromuscular blocks

c)

Agonist of Ach by binding cholinergic receptor sites on motor end plate

d)

used for thyroid storms

10.

Reversal of neuromuscular block/antagonism inhibition examples? (Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors)

a)

Neostigmine

b)

Edrophonium

c)

Pyridostigmine

d)

Atenolol

11.

Robinul is an antimuscarinic agent. What is its purpose in general anesthesia?

a)

Decrease secretions

b)

Increase Secretions

c)

Raise HR

12.

Spinal anesthesia, what is it and what is it used for?

a)

anesthetic into subarachnoid space, bathes nerves and numbs.

b)

good for lower abdomen, pelvis and lower extremity surgery

c)

anesthetic into dead space of resp tract, bathes nerves and numbs.

d)

good for tooth extraction

13.

Advantages of spinal anesthesia?

a)

Effective alternative

b)

Avoid Polypharmacy

c)

Avoid severe allergic Rxn

d)

Patient can remain awake

14.

Disadvantages to spinal anesthesia?

a)

Limited scope

b)

Anticoagulants

c)

Bleeding Disorders

d)

Increased Failure Rate

15.

Epidural anesthesia, what does it do and what is used?

a)

Sympathetic, sensory and motor blockade

b)

Needle only goes as far as epidural space/Not into CSF

c)

Uses the LOR syringe (loss of resistance)

16.

Local anesthetics typically produce?

a)

Necrosis

b)

Pain interruption but is a process that is completely reversible = no residual effect

c)

Fibrosis

17.

Why use epinephrine with local anesthetic?

a)

to prevent respiratory failure

b)

constrict blood vessel (decrease bleeding)

c)

Increase time of duration for Local anesthetic

d)

reduce time duration

18.

Local infiltration anesthesia can be used for?

a)

Lacerations and bedside procedures

b)

Percutaneous coronary intervention

c)

Brain sugery

19.

Topical blocks can be used on?

a)

amputations

b)

Mucous membranes

c)

Respiratory tract procedures

20.

Surface anesthesia, what is it and when is it used?

a)

Local anesthesia to skin or mucous membranes

b)

Can be used for surface, burning, and surface pain

c)

Minor sunburns, eye procedures, and superficial debridement.

21.

Digital blocks are used for?

a)

anesthetize an entire digit

b)

longer duration than local + no distortion

22.

MAC anesthesia consists of?

a)

IV Sedation/Analgesia with monitoring of vital signs and supplemental O2

b)

xx

23.

MAC or General Anesthesia + Regional Block can be used for?

a)

Preop Pain control

b)

Post Op Pain Control

24.

Factors that influence anesthesia selection?

a)

Age/Physical Status

b)

Type of Surgery

c)

Skills

d)

Patient wishes and Surgical Needs

25.

IV placement/sedation are what part of the anesthesia plan?

a)

Post Op

b)

Operative

c)

Pre-Op

26.

Elderly with comorbidities preferred anesthesia plan?

a)

Local Anesthetic

b)

MAC w/Regional Block

c)

General Anesthesia

27.

What makes up the post op anesthesia plan?

a)

Pain control and hemodynamic stability

b)

Surgical Needs

28.

Uncooperative patients, such as the pediatric patient does better with what type of anesthesia?

a)

MAC

b)

General Anesthesia

c)

Regional Block

29.

What type of anesthesia is preferred for c-sections and why?

a)

Regional Block

b)

Spinal/Epidural because general has increased mortality rate

c)

MAC

d)

General

30.

Increased risk of thrombosis patients that take chronic anticoagulants should be switched to?

a)

Plavix

b)

Dabigatran

c)

IM LMWH (Lovenox) or IV Heparin

31.

Guidelines regarding ACS and surgeries (anesthesia)?

a)

Wait 1 month post coronary intervention

b)

If surgery iminent, don't use drug eluting stent

32.

Phases of general anesthesia?

a)

Induction

b)

Maintenene

c)

+/- paralytic

d)

recovery

33.

Goals of general anesthesia?

a)

Loss of pain, memory, consciousness, muscle function/contraction, and abolition of autonomic response

b)

Loss of memory

c)

Amnesia

34.

McIntosh blade curve goes into what structure?

a)

Vellecula

b)

Trachea

c)

Bronchus

35.

What is a bispectral index monitor used for?

a)

measures brain waves and relates info to numeric levels

b)

measures heart rate on both hands to compare rates

36.

What is pulmonary capillary wedge pressure?

a)

Indirect RIght Atrial Pressure

b)

Indirect Left Atrial Pressure

37.

When would you use a bispectral index monitor?

a)

Emergency surgery

b)

Stat C-sections

c)

Open heart Surgery

38.

Inhaled anesthetic examples? (NO FLUR-ANE)

a)

Nitric Oxide (laugh!)

b)

Isoflurane

c)

Sevoflurane

d)

Desflurane

e)

Halothane

39.

IV agents (nonopioids) examples? MOA?

a)

Barbiturates = Pentothal (thiopental)

b)

Non-Barbiturates = Propofol, Etomidate

c)

Barbiturates = bind to GABA post synaptic receptors causing LOC

d)

Non-Barbiturates = act as opioid agonists = hypnotic state + LOC

40.

What class of medications are "tranquilizers"?

a)

Opioids

b)

Benzodiazepines

c)

Barbiturates

41.

General anesthesia drug of choice?

a)

Propofol *great for PONV

b)

Pentothal

c)

Etomidate

42.

Propofol effect on Cardiovascular system?

a)

Decreases SVR and BP

b)

Increases SVR and decreases Bp

43.

Propofol vs. Etomidate?

a)

Etomidate has no analgesic effect and may cause PONV

b)

Propofol has no analgesic effect and may cause PONV

44.

MOA for Non-Depolarizing Neuromuscular Agents? Example?

a)

Competitive ANTAGONISTS for Ach receptors

b)

Rocuromium

c)

Competitive AGONIST for Ach receptors

d)

Suxamethonium Chloride

45.

MOA for Depolarizing neruomuscular blocking agents? Examples?

a)

Suxamethonium Chloride

b)

Competitive AGONIST for Ach receptors

c)

Rocuromium

d)

Competitive ANTAGONISTS for Ach receptors

46.

What is malignant hyperthermia?

a)

Follows exposure to potent inhalation anesthetics with critical temperature elevation

b)

Increases metabolism = rhabdo + increased temperature w/Hyperkalemia

47.

King Denborough Syndrome?

a)

Congenital Myopathy

b)

RYR1 gene mutation

48.

Pathophysiology of malignant hyperthermia?

a)

Defective calcium channel on sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle cells

b)

Hypermetabolism of muscles, uncoordinated contraction and metabolism, O2 consumption and lactic acid production=metabolic acidosis = heat generation and CO2

49.

Treatment of malignant hyperthermia?

a)

Ice Packs, Dantrolene(skeletal muscle relaxant by decreasing Ca++ inflow)

b)

If dantrolene is used, Prep for ETT

50.

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors?

a)

Neostigmine

b)

Physostigmine

c)

Edrophonium

d)

Lorazepam

51.

Anticholinergics examples?

a)

Atropine

b)

Glycopyrrolate

c)

Adenosine

d)

Amiodarone

52.

A 48-year-old male had surgery under general anesthesia. Etomidate was one of the used

agents. At the PACU labs report the following Na 120, K 5.2, Cl 100, HCO3 25, Glucose 46, Ca 19.

Which of the following could be a side effect of the anesthetic agent?

a)

Acute renal insufficiency

b)

Acute adrenocortical suppression

c)

Post anesthesia nausea and vomiting

d)

Acute heart failure

53.

Which of the following is a depolarizing muscle relaxant?

a)

Atracurium

b)

Pancuronium

c)

Succinylcholine

d)

Vecuronium

54.

A 24-year-old-male undergoing and elective shoulder surgery under general anesthesia. He is

being monitored during the procedure. During trans operative the patient is noted to have

increased muscle rigidity, temperature raised to 104.3 F, and end-tidal CO2 is elevated. Heart

rate of 172bpm. Which of the following could have prevented this?

a)

Twelve lead EKG monitoring

b)

Chest imaging preoperative

c)

Pulmonary function tests preoperative

d)

Thorough family history preoperative evaluation

55.

An 18-year-old male is being evaluated for a laparoscopic appendectomy due to appendicitis.

He has a history of good health. Which of the following is the correct classification for this

patient?

a)

E-ASA III

b)

E-ASA I

c)

E-ASA II

d)

E-ASA V

56.

A 62-year-old man is scheduled for prostatectomy under general endotracheal anesthesia. A

surgical admission history and physical and pre-anesthesia evaluation are performed. The

patient's personal and family history of problems with anesthesia (i.e., malignant hyperthermia or

pseudocholinesterase deficiency), her NPO status, the presence or absence of gastric reflux, and

medications taken on the day of surgery are elicited. Which of the following should also be

included in his preoperative management?

a)

An abdominal examination, noting any tenderness and/or rebound.

b)

An electrocardiogram and chest x-ray

c)

Mallampati score and neck range of motion

d)

A prescription for postoperative analgesics

57.

An uncontrolled diabetes mellitus type 2 patient with morbid obesity is scheduled for elective

surgery. Which of the following classified this patient?

a)

ASA II

b)

ASA I

c)

ASA III

d)

ASA IV

58.

Which of the following is considered a trigger agent for malignant hyperthermia?

a)

Halothane

b)

Vecuronium

c)

Etomidate

d)

Propofol

59.

You are assessing the airway access in a patient and you have found visualization of hard palate

only. Which of the following is the correct Mallampati score?

a)

Mallampati II

b)

Mallampati III

c)

Mallampati I

d)

Mallampati IV

60.

Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to neuroaxial blockade?

a)

Increased intracranial pressure

b)

Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

c)

Complicated surgery

d)

Uncooperative patient

61.

Which of the following is considered a disadvantage for spinal anesthesia?

a)

Better pain control than intravenous narcotics

b)

Less need for systemic opioids (narcotics)

c)

Headache always develop following the block procedure

d)

Limited Scope

62.

Which of the following is used to reverse non-depolarizing muscle relaxants?

a)

Naloxone

b)

Flumazenil

c)

Neostigmine

d)

Propofol

63.

Which of the following is the mechanism of action of local anesthetics on nerve conduction?

a)

Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase

b)

Inhibition of stage III calcium channels

c)

Inhibition of voltage-gated sodium channels

d)

Decreasing intracellular acetylcholine