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Microbiology quiz

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
CVS and CNS involvement occurs in
a)
Primary Syphilis
b)
Secondary Syphilis
c)
Latent Syphilis
d)
Tertiary Syphilis
2.
BCG vaccine is made of avirulent strain of
a)
M. bovis
b)
M. avium
c)
M. kansassii
d)
M. tuberculosis
3.
Which among the following is not the property of Bacteroides fragilis
a)
Glycogen Fermentation
b)
Sachharolytic property
c)
Toxin Production
d)
Proteolytic enzymes
4.
Specific immunity can be acquired either naturally or artificially and involves
a)
All of the statements
b)
antibodies.
c)
antigens.
d)
the classical complement pathway.
5.
Which DOES NOT provide long term immunity?
a)
Artificially acquired active immunity
b)
Artificially acquired passive immunity
c)
Naturally acquired active immunity
d)
None of the above
6.
An epitope is
a)
a B-cell.
b)
a hapten.
c)
an antibody.
d)
the antigen determinant site.
7.
An immunoglobulin is a
a)
carbohydrate.
b)
fatty acid.
c)
glycoprotein.
d)
protein.
8.
The Fc region mediates all of the below EXCEPT binding to
a)
antigen.
b)
lysosomes.
c)
some phagocytic cells.
d)
various cells of the immune system.
9.
Isotypes refer to variations in the:
a)
heavy chain constant region.
b)
heavy chain variable region.
c)
light chain constant region.
d)
light chain variable region.
10.
Which of the following is the major immunoglobulin in human serum, accounting for 80% of the immunoglobulin pool?
a)
IgA
b)
IgD
c)
IgG
d)
IgM
11.
Which of the following is useful to STIMULATE antibody production?
a)
An adjuvant
b)
A hapten
c)
Antiserum
d)
Purified antigen
12.
Compared to the secondary antibody response, the primary response
a)
attains a higher IgG titer.
b)
has a longer lag phase.
c)
persists for a longer plateau period.
d)
produces antibodies with a higher affinity for the antigen.
13.
The identification of bacteria by serologic tests is based on the presence of specific antigens. Which of the following bacterial components is least likely to contain useful antigens?
a)
Capsule
b)
Cell wall
c)
Flagella
d)
Ribosomes
14.
Each of the following statements concerning the Gram stain is correct except:
a)
a. Escherichia coli stains pink because it has a thin peptidoglycan layer
b)
b. Streptococcus pyogens stains blue because it has a thick peptidoglycan layer
c)
c Mycoplasma pneumoniae is not visible in the Gram’s stain because it does not have a cell wall
d)
d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis stains blue because it has a thick lipid layer
15.
An outbreak of sepsis caused by Staphylococcus aureus has occurred in the newborn nursery. You are called upon to investigate. According to your knowledge of the normal flora, what is the most likely source of the organism?
a)
Nose
b)
Colon
c)
Hand
d)
Throat
16.
Each of the following organisms is an important cause of urinary tract infections except:
a)
a. Klebsiella pneumoniae
b)
Escherichia coli
c)
c. Bacteriodes fragilis
d)
Proteus mirabilis
17.
A 30 year old woman has non-bloody diarrhea for the past 14 hours. Which one of the to following organisms is least likely to cause this illness?
a)
a. Streptococcus pyogens
b)
b. Clostridium difficile
c)
c. Shigella dysenteriae
d)
Salmonella enteritidis
18.
Each of the following agents is a recognized cause of diarrhea except
a)
a. Clostridium perfringens
b)
Vibrio cholerae
c)
c. Enterococcus faecalis
d)
Escherichia coli
19.
Each of the following statements about the classification of streptococci is correct except
a)
a. Pneumococci (Streptococcus pneumoniae) are alpha-hemolytic and can be serotyped on the basis of their polysaccharide capsule
b)
b. Enterococci are group D streptococci and can be classified by their ability to grow 6.5% sodium chloride
c)
c. Viridans streptococci are identified by Lancefield grouping, which is based on the C carbohydrate in the cell wall
d)
d. Although pneumococci and the viridans streptococci are alpha-hemolytic, they can be differentiated by the bile solubility test and their susceptibility to optochin
20.
Which of the following bacteria has the lowest 50% infective dose (ID50)?
a)
Campylobacter jejuni
b)
Salmonella typhi
c)
Vibrio cholerae
d)
Shigella sonnei
21.
Which of the following disease is best diagnosed by serologic means?
a)
a. Pulmonary tuberculosis
b)
Gonorrhea
c)
Actinomycosis
d)
Q Fever
22.
The order of reagents used in the Gram stain are:
a)
a. Crystal violet, safranin, alcohol, iodine
b)
b. Alcohol, crystal violet, iodine, safranin
c)
c. Crystal violet, iodine, alcohol, safranin
d)
d. Crystal violet, iodine, safranin, alcohol
23.
A bacteriological stain also known as Differential stain is used to identify acid-fast organisms, what is the name of the stain?
a)
Negative stain
b)
Gram stain
c)
c) Ziehl-Neelsen stain
d)
d) Schaeffer stain- Fulton stain
24.
A Capsule is a.........layer lying outside the bacterial cell and can be found both gram positive and gram negative bacteria
a)
a) Lipopolysaccharide layer
b)
Polysaccharide
c)
Phospholipid
d)
None of the Above
25.
Isolation of pure culture refers to ___________
a)
purification of culture
b)
b) introduction of inoculum
c)
c) separation of a single colony
d)
d) to grow microorganisms on a surface
26.
Negative staining is the technique where the background of a specimen is stained whereas positive staining stains the whole specimen. Which dye is required for the negative staining technique?
a)
Crystal violet
b)
India ink
c)
Methylene blue
d)
Iodine
27.
All of the following are common bacteriological stains, Except:
a)
Bismark Brown
b)
Eosin
c)
Methylene blue
d)
Safranin
28.
Which of the following is not a physical method for selection of pure culture?
a)
Heat treatment
b)
pH of the media
c)
Cell size and motility
d)
Use of dilute media
29.
Gram staining technique is used for the differentiation of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria. What color do gram-negative bacteria show when observed under the microscope after the staining procedure?
a)
Blue
b)
Pink
c)
Purple
d)
Violet
30.
MacConkey’s agar is both Selective and Differential media used primarily for the isolation of gram-negative bacteria. It consists of ...........which inhibits the growth of gram-positive bacteria.
a)
Blood
b)
Peptone
c)
Bile salts
d)
Tryptophan
31.
All of the following are lactose fermenting bacteria, except
a)
a) Klebsiella pneumoniae
b)
Escherichia coli
c)
c) Enterobacter aerogenes
d)
d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
32.
Which of the given bacteria has flagella and shows positive motility test?
a)
a) Staphylococcus aureus
b)
Yersinia pestis
c)
c) Klebsiella pneumoniae
d)
Proteus vulgaris
33.
The biochemical test helps in identification and classification of microorganisms, there are many different types of this test, which of the following tests show a negative result for Escherichia Coli?
a)
Lactose
b)
Indole
c)
Citrate
d)
Glucose
34.
The cultural characteristics of Clostridium perfringens, when grown on Blood agar, are all of the given below, Except?
a)
Microaerophilic
b)
Spore-forming
c)
c) Lecithinase positive
d)
Stormy fermentation
35.
…................is a rod-shaped gram-positive, a non-spore forming organism that can cause foodborne illness in human and animals. It can grow at very low temperature on a wide variety of food including raw meat, raw vegetables, unpasteurized milk, cheese, etc., and is considered one of the most virulent foodborne pathogenic bacteria.
a)
Bacillus cereus
b)
b) Listeria monocytogens
c)
c) Clostridium botulinum
d)
d) Lactobacillus acidophilus
36.
Which of the given organism when grown in blood agar media is classified according to its hemolytic properties?
a)
Bacillus anthracis
b)
Proteus vulgaris
c)
c) Streptococcus pyogens
d)
d) Staphylococcus epidermidis
37.
All of the statements for Bacillus anthracis are true except
a)
a) Grows aerobically as well as anaerobically
b)
b) Nonhemolytic colonies on Blood agar
c)
c) Major foodborne pathogen
d)
d) Endospore-forming bacteria
38.
Which of the following bacteria is a part of human gut and mouth flora and is also used in making some fermented dairy products?
a)
Candida albicans
b)
b) Lactobacillus acidophilus
c)
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d)
Micrococcus luteus
39.
…............is part of human normal gut flora and also a clinically important pathogen, it's infection can lead to symptoms such as itchy skin, itchy genital area, white coat on the tongue and mouth ulcers, constipation. When grown in the lab, the organism produces green pigmented colonies on CHROMagar.
a)
a) Streptococcus mutans
b)
b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c)
Proteus mirabilis
d)
Candida albicans
40.
Which of the following organism of the Enterobacteriaceae family have the characteristics of swarming growth on culture media, produces urease enzyme, do not usually ferment lactose and is mainly the cause of urinary tract infections and nosocomial infections?
a)
Proteus spp
b)
Salmonella spp
c)
Lactobacillus spp
d)
Klebsiella spp
41.
…......... is a blood agar media prepared by slowly heating the media at 80 degree Celsius until it becomes brown, it is used for the isolation of some important pathogenic organisms such as Haemophilus spp and Neisseria gonorrhoea.
a)
Potato dextrose agar
b)
Chocolate agar
c)
Nutrient agar
d)
Mac Conkey agar
42.
All of the statements are true for Corynebacterium spp, except
a)
a) Requires selective media containing tellurite
b)
Gram-positive
c)
c) Colonies appear black or gray
d)
Motile
43.
Mannitol Salt agar is both selective and differential media, it is used for the isolation of ................, the high salt concentration inhibits the growth of gram-negative bacteria.
a)
Micrococcus spp
b)
b) Streptococcus spp
c)
c) Staphylococcus spp
d)
d) Corynebacterium spp
44.
In physical method of selection, endospore-forming bacteria can be obtained by heating the mixed culture to _____________
a)
a) 70 degree C for 10 minutes
b)
b) 80 degree C for 10 minutes
c)
c) 60 degree C for 10 minutes
d)
d) 90 degree C for 10 minutes
45.
Disease-producing species occurring in a mixed culture can be selected by taking advantage of _________
a)
a) its pathogenic properties
b)
b) special carbon source
c)
c) special nitrogen source
d)
toxic chemicals
46.
Lipopolysaccharide in cell walls is characteristic of?
a)
a) Gram-positive bacteria
b)
b) Gram-negative bacteria
c)
Fungi
d)
Algae
47.
Growth of microbes in a solid media is identified by the formation of?
a)
a) pellicle at the top of media
b)
colonies
c)
c) sediment at the bottom
d)
turbidity
48.
What are the blood serum proteins produced by animals called?
a)
Enzymes
b)
Antibodies
c)
Amino acids
d)
Toxins
49.
Bacteria with less than a complete twist or comma shaped is known as?
a)
spirilla
b)
helical
c)
vibrioid
d)
spirochetes
50.
In the classification of bacteria according to shape, which among the following refers to cuboidal arrangement of bacterial cells?
a)
Tetrads
b)
Staphylococci
c)
Sarcinae
d)
Streptococci