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Software Engineering MCQ Test 2

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What makes a good architecture?

a)

The architecture may not be the product of a single architect or a small group.

b)

The architect should have the technical requirements for the system and an articulated and prioritized list of qualitative properties

c)

The architecture may not be well documented

d)

All of the mentioned

2.

What does “Every software system has an architecture” implies?

a)

System itself is a component

b)

Architecture an exist independently of its description or specification

c)

All the system to be stable should posses an architecture

d)

None of the mentioned

3.

What is architectural style?

a)

Architectural style is a description of component types

b)

It is a pattern of run-time control

c)

It is set of constraints on architecture

d)

All of the mentioned

4.

Which of these steps defined by generic software engineering design process?

a)

Generic software engineering design process’s first job after the analysis is detailed design.

b)

Architectural design is followed by Detailed design.

c)

Attention is turned later to architectural design.

d)

a, b

5.

A project fails because of __________________.

a)

Problems faced by rules governing project

b)

Lack of anticipation of resources to accomplish tasks

c)

All of the mentioned

d)

None of the mentioned

6.

What is Architecture?

a)

Architecture is components

b)

.Architecture is connectors

c)

Architecture is constraints

d)

All of the mentioned

7.

Why is Software architecture so important?

a)

Communication among stakeholders

b)

Early Design decisions

c)

Transferable abstraction of a system

d)

.All of the mentioned

8.

Why is software architecture called vehicle for stakeholder communication?

a)

Each stakeholder of a software system is concerned with different characteristics of the system affected by architecture

b)

Architecture provides a common language in which different concerns can be expressed

c)

.All of the mentioned

d)

None of the mentioned

9.

Is it possible to make quality predictions about a system based solely on evaluation of its architecture?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

May be

d)

None of the mentioned

10.

Which structure’s view is orthogonal to the module and conceptual view?

a)

Module Structure

b)

Process Structure

c)

Uses Structure

d)

Data flow

11.

. Which of the following are considered for connectors?

a)

Connectors transfers data bidirectionally

b)

Connectors connect two component of type procedure

c)

All of the mentioned

d)

None of the mentioned

12.

Which of the following is true?

a)

Analysis – Solving problem

b)

Design – Understanding problem

c)

Analysis & Design

d)

None of the mentioned

13.

Which of the following is the worst type of module coupling?

a)

Control Coupling

b)

Stamp Coupling

c)

External Coupling

d)

Content Coupling

14.

Which of the following is the worst type of module cohesion?

a)

Logical Cohesion

b)

Temporal Cohesion

c)

Functional Cohesion

d)

Coincidental Cohesion

15.

Which of the following is the best type of module cohesion?

a)

Functional Cohesion

b)

Temporal Cohesion

c)

Non-Functional Cohesion

d)

Sequential Cohesion

16.

From the following which method will be adopted in Reuse process?

a)

Either by keeping requirements same and adjusting components.

b)

By keeping components same and modifying requirements

c)

Both a and b

d)

None of the above

17.

The data dictionary contains descriptions of each software

a)

control item

b)

data object

c)

diagram

d)

both a and b

18.

When a single item that triggers other data flow along one of many paths of a data flow diagram, ________ characterizes the information flow.

a)

high coupling

b)

poor modularity

c)

transaction flow

d)

transform flow

19.

In component-level design "persistent data sources" refer to

a)

Component libraries

b)

Databases

c)

Files

d)

both b and c

20.

Which of these is a graphical notation for depicting procedural detail?

a)

process diagram

b)

decision table

c)

ER diagram

d)

flowchart

21.

A program design language (PDL) is often a

a)

combination of programming constructs and narrative text

b)

legitimate programming language in its own right

c)

machine readable software development language

d)

useful way to represent software architecture

22.

Which of these criteria are useful in assessing the effectiveness of a particular design notation?

a)

maintainability

b)

modularity

c)

simplicity

d)

.all of the above

23.

Which of these framework activities is not normally associated with the user interface design processes?

a)

cost estimation

b)

interface construction

c)

interface validation

d)

user and task analysis

24.

In component design, elaboration requires which of the following elements to be described in detail?

a)

Attributes

b)

Interfaces

c)

Operations

d)

All of the above

25.

Which of these is a graphical notation for depicting procedural detail?

a)

process diagram

b)

decision table

c)

ER diagram

d)

flowchart

26.

Which of the following is/are White box technique?

a)

Statement Testing

b)

Decision Testing

c)

Condition Coverage

d)

All of the mentioned

27.

What are the various Testing Levels?

a)

Unit Testing

b)

System Testing

c)

Integration Testing

d)

All of the mentioned

28.

Alpha testing is done at

a)

Developer’s end

b)

User’s end

c)

Developer’s & User’s end

d)

None of the mentioned

29.

The testing in which code is checked

a)

Black box testing

b)

White box testing

c)

Red box testing

d)

Green box testing

30.

Testing done without planning and Documentation is called

a)

Unit testing

b)

Regression testing

c)

Adhoc testing

d)

None of the mentioned

31.

Acceptance testing is also known as

a)

Grey box testing

b)

White box testing

c)

Alpha Testing

d)

Beta testing

32.

SPICE stands for

a)

Software Process Improvement and Compatibility Determination

b)

Software Process Improvement and Control Determination

c)

Software Process Improvement and Capability Determination

d)

None of the mentioned

33.

Which of the following is not used in measuring the size of the software ?

a)

KLOC

b)

Function Points

c)

Size of module

d)

None of the mentioned

34.

Software Debugging is a set of activities that can be planned in advance and conducted systematically

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Can't say

d)

None of the above

35.

Which of the following is not a software testing generic characteristics?

a)

Different testing techniques are appropriate at different points in time

b)

Testing is conducted by the developer of the software or an independent test group

c)

Testing and debugging are different activities, but debugging must be accommodated in any testing strategy

d)

None of the mentioned

36.

By collecting ________ during software testing, it is possible to develop meaningful guidelines to halt the testing process

a)

Failure intensity

b)

Testing time

c)

Metrics

d)

All of the mentioned

37.

Testing of individual components by the developers are comes under ________________ .

a)

Integration testing

b)

Validation testing

c)

Unit testing

d)

None of mentioned

38.

Verification is __________________ .

a)

Making sure that it is what the user really wants

b)

Checking that we are building the right system

c)

Checking that we are building the system right

d)

Performed by an independent test team

39.

Software mistakes during coding are known as _________ .

a)

errors

b)

bugs

c)

failures

d)

defects

40.

Software safety is equivalent to software reliability.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

According to ISO 9001, inspection and testing comes under which management responsibility?

a)

Process control

b)

Document control

c)

Control of nonconforming products

d)

Servicing

42.

Which of the following is not regression test case?

a)

A representative sample of tests that will exercise all software functions

b)

Additional tests that focus on software functions that are likely to be affected by the change

c)

Tests that focus on the software components that have been changed

d)

Low-level components are combined into clusters that perform a specific software sub-function

43.

Which of the following is one of the steps in the integration testing of OO software

a)

cluster testing

b)

thread-based testing

c)

use-based testing

d)

none of the mentioned

44.

Defects are less costly if detected in which of the following phases

a)

Coding

b)

Design

c)

Requirements Gathering

d)

Implementation

45.

Test Readiness review is conducted by the

a)

Project manager

b)

Test manager

c)

Quality assurance personnel

d)

User/Customer

46.

Which of the following is a part of testing OO code?

a)

Validation tests

b)

Integration tests

c)

Class tests

d)

System tests

47.

In which of the following testing strategies, a smallest testable unit is the encapsulated class or object?a.

a)

Unit testing

b)

Integration testing

c)

System testing

d)

None of the mentioned

48.

A Non-Functional Software testing done to check if the user interface is easy to use and understand

a)

Usability Testing

b)

Security Testing

c)

Unit testing

d)

Block Box Testing

49.

What do you understand by V&V in software testing?

a)

Verified Version

b)

Version Validation

c)

Verification and Validation

d)

Version Verification

50.

A set of inputs, execution preconditions and expected outcomes is known as a

a)

Test plan

b)

Test case

c)

Test document

d)

Test Suite