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Radiopharmaceuticals

Total questions: 73

Worksheet time: 1hrs 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Radiopharmaceuticals are also known as

a)

Radiotracers

b)

Radioactive molecule

c)

Radionuclide

d)

Radiochemical

2.

It is given in subpharmacologic doses and “traces” a particular physiological or pathologic process (2 answers)

a)

Radionuclide

b)

Radiopharmaceuticals

c)

Radiochemical

d)

Radiotracers

3.

Portray the physiology, biochemistry, or pathology of a body system without causing any perturbation of function

(a)  

4.

Most radiopharmaceuticals are a combination of the following molecules

a)

radioactive molecule

b)

radionuclides

c)

biologically active molecule

d)

radiotracers

5.

Which of the following are the functions of a biologically active molecule

a)

Permits external detection

b)

Acts as a carrier

c)

Determines localization and biodistribution

6.

What is the function of a radioactive molecule?

a)

Permits external detection

b)

Acts as a carrier

c)

Determines localization and biodistribution

7.

Examples of radiopharmaceuticals that do not require attachment to larger pharmaceutical component

a)

I-131

b)

I-123

c)

TI-201

8.

Refers only to radioactive atoms

a)

Radionuclide

b)

Radiochemical

c)

Radioactive molecule

d)

Radiopharmaceutical

9.

Radionuclide combined with chemical molecule i.e.

to confer localization properties

a)

Radiochemical

b)

Radiopharmaceutical

c)

Radionuclide

10.

Met legal requirements for administration to patients or subjects

a)

Radiopharmaceutical

b)

Radiochemical

c)

Radioactivity

11.

Radionuclide not contaminated by either stable or

radioactive nuclides of same element

a)

Carrier-free

b)

Specific activity

c)

Radiotracers

12.

Carrier material can influence biodistribution and efficiency of radiolabeling

a)

Carrier-free

b)

Neutron-rich radionuclides

c)

Proton-rich radionuclides

d)

Tc-99m

13.

Radioactivity per unit weight (mCi/mg)

a)

Specific activity

b)

Chemical purity

c)

Radionuclidic purity

14.

Carrier-free samples of a radionuclide have the

a)

highest specific activity

b)

lowest specific activity

15.

One of the design characteristics of radiopharmaceuticals is that decay should result in

a)

gamma emissions of suitable energy

b)

alpha emissions of suitable energy

c)

beta emissions of suitable energy

d)

positron emissions of suitable energy

16.

What is the suitable energy for gamma emissions using gamma cameras?

a)

100-200 keV

b)

500-700 keV

c)

101-201 keV

d)

150-200 keV

17.

True or False: Sufficient abundance of emissions for external detection is one of the design characteristics of radiopharmaceuticals

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Why is it important that radiopharmaceuticals should not contain particulate radiation (e.g. beta emissions)?

a)

Decreases radiation dose without adding diagnostic information

b)

Increases radiation dose without adding diagnostic information

c)

Manages radiation dose without adding diagnostic information

d)

Maintains radiation dose without adding diagnostic information

19.

What type of emission is suitable for therapeutic radiopharmaceuticals?

a)

Beta emissions

b)

Alpha emissions

c)

Gamma emissions

20.

Which of the following are design characteristics of radiopharmaceuticals

a)

Effective half-life

b)

Radionuclide Production

c)

Free of toxic or secondary effects

d)

Radionuclide Generator

e)

Should not dissociate in vitro or in vivo

21.

Which of the following are design characteristics of radiopharmaceuticals

a)

Proton bombardment

b)

Neutron bombardment

c)

Readily available

d)

Reasonable cost

e)

Rapid background clearance

22.

True or False: Naturally occurring radionuclides have long half-lives (>1000 years)

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Give an example of a heavy, toxic element that is a naturally occurring radionuclide

(a)  

24.

True or False: Naturally occurring radionuclides have clinical role in diagnostic nuclear medicine

a)

True

b)

False

25.

True or False: Most radiopharmaceuticals are not artificially produced

a)

True

b)

False

26.

What do you call the process of bombarding medium-weight nuclides with low-energy neutrons and occurs in nuclear reactors?

(a)  

27.

Neutron-rich radionuclides that undergo beta-minus decay

a)

Neutron bombardment

b)

Beta bombardment

c)

Proton bombardment

28.

Proton-rich radionuclides and occurs in cyclotrons or particle accelerators

a)

Proton bombardment

b)

Neutron bombardment

c)

Alpha bombardment

d)

Gamma bombardment

29.

What type of decays are for proton bombardment?

a)

Positron decay/electron capture

b)

Alpha decay only

c)

Alpha decay/Gamma decay

30.

Answers need for readily available radionuclide

a)

Radionuclide Generator

b)

Radiolabel

c)

Radiochemical purity

d)

Positron decay

31.

Longer-lived parent >>> shorter-lived daughter

a)

Radionuclide Generator

b)

Radionuclide Production

c)

Radionuclidic purity

32.

Most important generator for clinical applications

a)

Mo-99 / Tc-99m

b)

uranium

c)

radon

d)

radium

33.

What is the half life and mode of decay of Mo-99

a)

76 hr / beta

b)

66 hr / beta

c)

76 hr / gamma

d)

66 hr / gamma

34.

What is the half life and mode of decay of Tc-99m?

a)

10 hr / beta

b)

6 hr / beta

c)

10 hr / isomeric transition

d)

6 hr / isomeric transition

35.

What are the daughter products of Mo-99?

a)

I-131

b)

Tl-201

c)

Tc-99m

d)

Tc-99

36.

What are the daughter products of Tc-99m?

a)

I-131

b)

Tl-201

c)

Tc-99m

d)

Tc-99

37.

Which of the following is the principal photon energy of Tc-99m?

a)

1.40 keV

b)

150 keV

c)

145 keV

d)

140 keV

38.

Maximum buildup of Tc-99m activity occurs at

a)

2.3 hours

b)

23 hours

c)

24 hours

d)

20 hours

39.

True or False: Tc-99m yield amount decreases each day

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Mo-99 and Tc-99 usual impurties

a)

Chemical purity

b)

Radiochemical purity

c)

Radionuclidic purity

d)

Physical purity

41.

Al2O3 column packing material

a)

Chemical purity

b)

Radiochemical purity

c)

Radionuclidic purity

d)

Physical purity

42.

Impurities are not in +7 valence state

a)

Chemical purity

b)

Radiochemical purity

c)

Radionuclidic purity

d)

Physical purity

43.

No microorganisms and pyrogens

a)

Chemical purity

b)

Biological purity

c)

Radionuclidic purity

d)

Physical purity

44.

Absence of particulate contaminants

a)

Chemical purity

b)

Biological purity

c)

Radionuclidic purity

d)

Physical purity

45.

Which of the following is not a disadvantage of using I-131?

a)

Used in routine studies of the thyroid gland (1940s)

b)

Relatively high principal photon energy (364 keV)

c)

Long half-life (8 days)

d)

Presence of beta particle emissions

46.

First radiopharmaceutical of importance in clinical

nuclear medicine and remains important in nuclear medicine for therapeutics

a)

I-131

b)

I-123

c)

Mo-99

d)

Tc-99m

47.

Used in routine studies of the thyroid gland (1940s) and further used as radiolabel of various radiopharmaceuticals

a)

I-131

b)

I-123

c)

Mo-99

d)

Tc-99m

48.

All are advantages of substituting I-123 for I-131 for diagnostics except

a)

Shorter half-life (13.2 hr)

b)

Presence of beta particle emissions

c)

Principal photon energy (159 keV) better suited for gamma camera scintigraphy

d)

Decays by electron capture

e)

Favorable dosimetry

49.

Indium-111

a)

Principal photon energies 172 keV and 245 keV, better compared to I-131

b)

Transported and extracted like iron

c)

Early kidney and bowel excretion = difficult abdominal imaging

d)

Slow clearance from background = delayedimaging (48 – 72 hours)

50.

Indium-111

a)

Multiple photopeaks (93, 185, 300 keV)

b)

T1/2= 2.8 days, permits multiple-day sequential imaging

c)

Early kidney and bowel excretion = difficult abdominal imaging

d)

Slow clearance from background = delayedimaging (48 – 72 hours)

51.

inflammatory or infectious disease

a)

In-111 oxine leukocytes

b)

In-111 pentetreotide

c)

In-111 capromab pendetide

52.

Somatostatin receptor binding peptide


Binds to neuroendocrine tumors

a)

In-111 oxine leukocytes

b)

In-111 pentetreotide

c)

In-111 capromab pendetide

53.

Monoclonal antibody


For detection of recurrent prostate cancer

a)

In-111 oxine leukocytes

b)

In-111 pentetreotide

c)

In-111 capromab pendetide

54.

Which of the following describes Gallium-67 Citrate?

a)

Transported and extracted like iron (localizing in tumors and inflammatory conditions)

b)

For detection of recurrent prostate cancer

c)

Multiple photopeaks (93, 185, 300 keV)

d)

Slow clearance from background = delayed imaging (48 – 72 hours)

e)

Early kidney and bowel excretion = difficult abdominal imaging

55.

Which of the following statements describes Tl-201?

a)

Monoclonal antibody

b)

Behaves as potassium analog

c)

Inflammatory or infectious disease

d)

Myocardial scintigraphy

56.

Which of the following statements describes Tl-201?

a)

High net clearance

b)

Absence of ideal photopeak for imaging

c)

Multiple photopeaks (93, 185, 300 keV)

d)

Used for pulmonary ventilation imaging

57.

Which of the following statements describes Tl-201?

a)

5.2-day half-life – convenient to have on-hand

b)

Superior distribution in the lung periphery of patients with COPD compared to Tc-99m

c)

Gamma camera has difficulty distinguishing scattered events from primary photons

d)

Alternative Tc-99m

58.

Radioactive inert gases are used for

a)

inflammatory or infectious disease

b)

detection of recurrent prostate cancer

c)

myocardial scintigraphy

d)

pulmonary ventilation imaging

59.

Which of the following statements describe Xe-133?

a)

5.2-day half-life – convenient to have on-hand

b)

Expensive

c)

low principal energy (81 keV)

d)

Superior distribution in the lung periphery of patients with COPD compared to Tc-99m

e)

Allows postperfusion imaging and multiple view acquisition

60.

Which of the following statements describe Xe-127?

a)

higher photon energy than Xe-133 and Tc-99m

b)

expensive

c)

low principal energy (81 keV)

d)

superior distribution in the lung periphery of patients with COPD compared to Tc-99m

e)

theoretically can proceed with ventilation studies after Tc-99m perfusion imaging

61.

Which of the following statements describe Krypton-81m?

a)

higher photon energy than Xe-133 and Tc-99m

b)

high principal gamma emission (190 keV) and short

half-life (13 secs)

c)

allows postperfusion imaging and multiple view acquisition (no concern for retained activity)

d)

Rubidium-81/Krypton-81m generator system is expensive and needs to be frequently replaced (short half-life)

e)

theoretically can proceed with ventilation studies after Tc-99m perfusion imaging

62.

Which of the following statements describe radiopharmaceuticals for PET in terms of production?

a)

expensive and complex

b)

high principal gamma emission (190 keV) and short

half-life (13 secs)

c)

requires cyclotron or particle accelerator

d)

relatively elaborate radiochemical-handling equipment

e)

theoretically can proceed with ventilation studies after Tc-99m perfusion imaging

63.

It has a longer half-life (2-hours) than C-11, N-13, or O-15

(a)  

64.

F-18 fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG): glucose analog is used for

a)

Brain and heart imaging

b)

multiple view acquisition

c)

myocardial perfusion

imaging

d)

Whole body tumor imaging

65.

Which statements describe Rubidium-82

a)

Potassium analog, used for myocardial perfusion

imaging

b)

High principal gamma emission (190 keV) and short

half-life (13 secs)

c)

Theoretically can proceed with ventilation studies after Tc-99m perfusion imaging

d)

Available from a generator system (Strontium-82 parent (T1/2=25 days)

e)

Limited by high energy (3.15 MeV) of positron emissions

66.

Which of the following are special considerations when handling radiopharmaceuticals?

a)

Pediatric dose

b)

Accuracy

c)

Precision or Constancy

d)

Pregnancy

e)

Lactation

67.

Which of the following are special considerations when handling radiopharmaceuticals?

a)

Geometry

b)

Accuracy

c)

Precision or Constancy

d)

Adverse Reactions

e)

Medical Event (Misadministration)

68.

Referred to as absence of living microorganisms

a)

Apyrogenicity

b)

Sterility

c)

Accuracy

d)

Linearity

69.

Referred to as absence of metabolic products

a)

Apyrogenicity

b)

Sterility

c)

Accuracy

d)

Linearity

70.

Referred to as annual measurement against reference standard

a)

Apyrogenicity

b)

Sterility

c)

Accuracy

d)

Linearity

71.

Referred to as response to a range of measured activities (sequential measurement of Tc- 99m during decay)

a)

Apyrogenicity

b)

Sterility

c)

Accuracy

d)

Linearity

72.

Referred to as repeatedly measure the same specimen over time

a)

Precision or Constancy

b)

Sterility

c)

Accuracy

d)

Linearity

73.

Referred to as same amount of radioactivity contained in different volumes of sample

a)

Precision or Constancy

b)

Sterility

c)

Accuracy

d)

Geometry

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