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Evolve (A) vet nursing mock 7

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

1. A styptic is something used to control slight haemorrhage, for example if the quick of a claw is accidentally cut. Which of the following can be used for this purpose?

a)

Friar’s balsam

b)

Ferric chloride

c)

Silver nitrate

d)

All of the above

2.

2. A Robert Jones Bandage is commonly used for which type of injury?

a)

A non-displaced green stick fracture

b)

A de-gloving injury to the lower limb

c)

A decubitus ulcer

d)

A lacerated paw that is bleeding heavily

3.

3. Which piece of equipment does not require a PAT test

a)

Microscope

b)

Refractometer

c)

Centrifuge

d)

Laboratory fridge

4.

4. What is the maximum period of time that an intravenous catheter should remain indwelling

a)

24

b)

36

c)

48

d)

72

5.

5. How many drops per ml does a paediatric giving set deliver

a)

30

b)

60

c)

20

d)

40

6.

6. Which of the following models of nursing is also known as the "Self-Care" model?

a)

Orem

b)

Henderson

c)

Riehl-sisca

d)

Roper, Logan and Tierney

7.

7. Which of the following is defined by ‘the spread of disease from one animal to another’?

a)

Infection

b)

Zoonosis

c)

Contagion

d)

Contamination

8.

8. When a customer reports to you that they believe that there may have been a suspected adverse reaction to a medicine purchased from you, you should

a)

Report this to the manufacturer

b)

Advise them to use another product in future

c)

Report this to the Veterinary Medicines Directorate

d)

Report the problem to AMTRA

9.

9. An individual segment of a tapeworm is a

a)

Strobili

b)

Scolex

c)

Rostellum

d)

Proglottid

10.

10. A disease normally present within an area can be described as

a)

Pandemic

b)

Epidemic

c)

Epizootic

d)

Endemic

11.

11. To which of the following should client information not be disclosed?

a)

A court of law

b)

The Kennel Club

c)

A friend of the client

d)

A clients insurance company

12.

12. Which catheter is most appropriate to use as an indwelling catheter in the bitch?

a)

Tiemans

b)

Foley

c)

Jackson

d)

Metal Bitch

13.

13. Decubitus ulcers are most commonly seen

a)

In brachycephalic breeds

b)

On bony protuberances

c)

On the feet of perching birds

d)

In patients suffering with atopy

14.

14. Which type of bandage would be suitable to protect a decubitus ulcer

a)

A Robert Jones

b)

A pressure bandage

c)

A doughnut bandage

d)

A splint

15.

15. The person within the practice who is responsible for implementing the Local Rules for radiography is known as the

a)

Radiation Protection Officer

b)

Radiation Protection Adviser

c)

Radiation Protection Supervisor

d)

Radiation Protection Administrator

16.

16. Which of the following is NOT an example of a hospitalised acquired infection?

a)

MRSA

b)

C.Difficle

c)

Streptococcus

d)

Morbilivirus

17.

17. The normal temperature range for a cat is:

a)

38.0-38.5 (100.4-101.6)

b)

37.0-39.2 (98.7-100.5)

c)

38.5-40.2 (101.6-103.5)

d)

38.3-38.7 (100.9-101.7)

18.

18. The name given to water generated through chemical reactions within the body is

a)

Metabolic

b)

Chemical

c)

Total body

d)

Interstitial

19.

19. Which congenital abnormality poses no threat to the animal’s health?

a)

Atresia ani

b)

Polydactyly

c)

Open fontanelle

d)

Cleft palate

20.

20. The most suitable route for fluid therapy for a severely dehydrated puppy would be

a)

Subcutaneous

b)

Intraperitoneal

c)

Rectal

d)

Intraosseous

21.

21. Which of the following is not a closed wound?

a)

Contusion

b)

Haematoma

c)

Abrasion

d)

Bruising

22.

22. Icteric mucous membranes are

a)

Brick red

b)

Salmon pink

c)

Yellow

d)

Pale

23.

23. COSHH regulations were introduced in

a)

2000

b)

2001

c)

2002

d)

2003

24.

24. High-pitched inspiratory sounds generated from turbulent airflow in the extrathoracic airways is

a)

Stertor

b)

Stridor

c)

Rhoncus

d)

Crackles

25.

25. In parasitology the time between the ingestion of the infective stage, e.g egg, and the production of eggs by the adults is called the

a)

Prepatent period

b)

Infective stage

c)

Facultative period

d)

Patent stage

26.

26. The production of abnormally small amounts of urine is

a)

Dysuria

b)

Poikuria

c)

Stranguria

d)

Oliguria

27.

27. The correct name for the harvest mite is

a)

Trombicula autumnalis

b)

Chorioptes equi

c)

Psoroptes cuniculi

d)

Sarcoptes scabiei

28.

28. The chemical composition of Trigene™ is

a)

Chlorinated phenol

b)

Quarternary ammonium compound

c)

Isopropyl alcohol

d)

Sodium dichloro-isocyanurate

29.

29. The soft, thinner hairs of a dogs coat are called

a)

Guard

b)

Lanugo

c)

Wool

d)

Primary

30.

30. Which of the following breeds is not an example of a silky coat

a)

Springer Spaniel

b)

Afghan Hound

c)

Old English Sheep Dog

d)

Yorkshire Terrier

31.

31. An example of a phenolic compound is

a)

Domestos

b)

Trigene

c)

Jeyes

d)

Virkon

32.

32. Which of the following is an example of iatrogenesis?

a)

Urinary tract infection from a catheter

b)

Bacterial replication

c)

Viral infection

d)

A hospital acquired infection

33.

33. Slugs and snails can act as intermediate hosts for which type of endoparasite

a)

Whipworms

b)

Lungworms

c)

Heartworms

d)

Pinworms

34.

34. An example of a whipworm is

a)

Toxocara leonina

b)

Ancylostoma caninum

c)

Uncinaria stenocephala

d)

Trichuris vulpis

35.

35. Autoclaves produce sterilisation by

a)

Heat and time

b)

Pressure and time

c)

Moisture and time

d)

Moisture and heat

36.

36. Aspergillosis is a fungal condition which may affect the

a)

Urethra

b)

Maxilla

c)

Alveolar bone

d)

Turbinate bones

37.

37. Basal energy requirement (BER) for dogs over 5kg is

a)

30 + (bodyweight in kg) x 70

b)

60 x (bodyweight in kg)

c)

30 x (bodyweight in kg) + 70

d)

60 + (bodyweight in kg)

38.

38. The correct name for hives is

a)

Impetigo

b)

Furunculosis

c)

Atopic dermatitis

d)

Urticaria

39.

39. A possible cause of hyperthermia is:

a)

Circulatory collapse

b)

Convulsions

c)

Impending parturition

d)

Shock

40.

40. What is the most common intravenous injection site used in horses

a)

Cephalic

b)

Saphenous

c)

Jugular

d)

Lateral thoracic

41.

Of the following pieces of legislation, which does not deal with the safe disposal of waste?

a)

Control of Pollution Act 1974

b)

Control of Substances Hazardous to Health Regulations 1999

c)

Controlled Waste Regulations 1992

d)

Environmental Protection Act 1990

42.

To reduce the possibility of hypostatic pneumonia in a recumbent patient, the patient should ideally be nursed in

a)

Any recumbency

b)

Sternal recumbency

c)

Left lateral recumbency

d)

Right lateral recumbency

43.

43. Which mite most commonly affects the fur in rabbits?

a)

Sarcoptes

b)

Microsporum

c)

Demodex

d)

Cheyletiella

44.

44. The average gestational length in the mare is

a)

200 days

b)

240 days

c)

300 days

d)

340 days

45.

45. Petechia can be defined as:

a)

Pinpoint haemorrhages

b)

The animal eating its own faeces

c)

The animal eating abnormal food stuffs

d)

An increased appetite

46.

46. The most common reason for delayed recovery from anaesthesia following surgery is

a)

Hypothermia

b)

Hypertension

c)

Hyperthermia

d)

Hypokalaemia

47.

47. Tachypnoea is breathing that is

a)

Fast

b)

Noisy

c)

Shallow

d)

Difficult

48.

48. Colostrum provides

a)

Protective maternal antibodies

b)

Complex carbohydrates

c)

Amino acids needed for respiration

d)

Essential fatty acids

49.

49. In hypovolaemic shock, therapy is aimed at

a)

Restoring intracellular fluid volume

b)

Restoring circulating blood volume

c)

Restoring circulating sodium chloride

d)

Replacing extracellular potassium depletion

50.

50. Which of the following should be carried out daily in an operating theatre?

a)

Wash down walls

b)

Check and clean instrument cupboard

c)

Damp-dust all surfaces and equipment

d)

Remove all theatre equipment prior to cleaning

51.

51. Of the following fungi, which is responsible for cases of ringworm in small animals?

a)

Malassezia pachydermatis

b)

Candid albicans

c)

Aspergillus fumigatus

d)

Tricophyton mentagrophytes

52.

52. A nosocomial infection

a)

Is infectious

b)

Is likely to occur in animals with a low immune system

c)

Is acquired in a hospital environment

d)

All of the above

53.

53. What is the maximum weight limit that a member of staff should be expected to lift single handed?

a)

10kg

b)

15kg

c)

10kg for women and 15kg for men

d)

No maximum

54.

54. Which muscle located cranial to the femur can be used for intramuscular injections

a)

Triceps brachii

b)

Supraspinatus

c)

Biceps femoris

d)

Quadriceps femoris

55.

55. All of the following statements about hypochlorites (bleaches) are true except

a)

They are suitable for skin usage

b)

They are cheap

c)

They are good against fungi, bacteria and viruses

d)

They are suitable for use in food areas

56.

56. What is epistaxis?

a)

Bleeding from the rectum

b)

Bleeding from the mouth

c)

Discharge from the eye

d)

Bleeding from the nose

57.

57. The cycle of infectious disease follows which order

a)

Prodromal stage, incubation period, illness stage, decline stage

b)

Incubation period, prodromal stage, illness stage, decline stage

c)

Incubation period, decline stage, illness stage, prodromal stage

d)

Incubation period, illness stage, decline stage, prodromal stage

58.

58. The normal rectal temperature of a guinea pig is

a)

37 – 38 °C

b)

38 – 39 °C

c)

39 – 40 °C

d)

40 – 41 °C

59.

59. The normal pulse rate for a rabbit is

a)

205 – 235

b)

60 – 120

c)

100 – 150

d)

300 – 600

60.

60. Which one of the following is the best way to describe the handling of rabbits?

a)

Lift by the ears and then cradle close to the body

b)

Carry in dorsal recumbency to keep them relaxed

c)

Support the spine by cradling close to the body

d)

Lift by the scruff of the neck and then cradle close to the body

61.

61. An animal with laryngeal paralysis would show which of the following signs?

a)

Exercise intolerance

b)

A change in bark

c)

Respiratory stertor

d)

All of the above

62.

62. Which care model was developed for Veterinary Nursing

a)

Orem

b)

Roper, Logan and Tierney

c)

Orpet and Jeffrey

d)

Medical

63.

63. What is the 4th step of risk assessment

a)

Review

b)

Record

c)

Identify

d)

Evaluate

64.

64. When the medicine order arrives

a)

Vaccines should be put in a locked cupboard

b)

Controlled drugs should be counted and recorded in a spiral bound notebook

c)

New supplies should be put at the back of the shelves so that they are used last

d)

Refrigerator items should be put away immediately

65.

65. The Act which states that employees have a duty to take responsible care to avoid injury to themselves or others at work is the

a)

Misuse of Drugs Act

b)

Employers' Liability Act

c)

Employment Rights Act

d)

Health and Safety at Work Act

66.

66. What is a bacterial endospore

a)

A dormant form of bacteria

b)

A virulent form of bacteria

c)

A bacteria cell immediately prior to replication

d)

A bacteria cell immediately after replication

67.

67. Commonly what shape is the bacilli bacteria

a)

Round & flat

b)

Spherical

c)

Rod shaped

d)

Spiral

68.

68. Of the following diseases which is zoonotic

a)

Parvo Virus

b)

Canine Influenza

c)

Distemper

d)

Leptospirosis

69.

69. Which disease affects the adrenal gland

a)

Cushings

b)

Cardiomyopathy

c)

Hyperthyroidism

d)

Diabetitus Mellitus

70.

70. How long does the Inflammatory phase of wound healing last?

a)

1-2 days

b)

1-14 days

c)

0-5 days

d)

10-20 days

71.

71. Good ventilation in kennels may help to prevent the spread of

a)

Ringworm

b)

Parvovirus

c)

Feline influenza

d)

Fleas

72.

72. The fluid formed as a result of inflammation that contains white cells and proteinaceous debris is

a)

Transudate

b)

Modified transudate

c)

Exudate

d)

Chyle

73.

73. For how long can a fresh open wound be considered contaminated but not infected?

a)

6 hours

b)

10 hours

c)

14 hours

d)

24 hours

74.

74. The intermediate host of Dipylidium caninum is often:

a)

The sucking louse

b)

Tick

c)

Flea

d)

Dipteran fly

75.

75. Why is it important to flush feeding tubes with water after the administration of a feed

a)

To ensure hygiene of the tube

b)

To ensure the patient is hydrated

c)

To prevent obstruction of the tube

d)

To prevent air entering the stomach

76.

76. Which of the following species are poikilothermic

a)

Reptile

b)

Feline

c)

Equine

d)

Canine

77.

77. Toxocara cati is an example of:

a)

An ascarid

b)

A nematode

c)

A helminth

d)

All of the above

78.

78. Otitis externa is inflammation of

a)

The ear canal

b)

The middle ear

c)

The outer surface of the pinna

d)

The inner surface of the pinna

79.

79. Which one of the following is not a clinical sign of dehydration?

a)

Loss of skin elasticity

b)

Pitting Oedema

c)

Sunken eyes

d)

Tented skin

80.

80. Which method of urine collection will be used for a sterile sample

a)

Micturition

b)

Manual expression

c)

Catheterisation

d)

Cystocentesis