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21S - Foundations - Intro

Total questions: 110

Worksheet time: 1hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of these statements are true about the "right to remain silent."

a)

It is a right created by statute.

b)

It is a right that arises from the US Constitution.

c)

It is a right that arises from the right against self-incrimination.

d)

It is not a "right" at all.

2.

Which of these are true statements about the Hohfeldian analysis:

a)

It is named after some dead guy named Wesley

b)

It is a way to look at rights and duties

c)

It is limited to the Bill of Rights in the US Constitution

d)

None of these

3.

Which of these are building blocks of the Hohfeldian Analysis:

a)

Claims

b)

Duties.

c)

Liberties

d)

No-claims

4.

Which of these are true statements about the rights of George Floyd that were violated?

a)

Section 1983 of the Civil Rights Act gives George (and his family) the right to sue the police.

b)

It is a right that arises from the US Constitution

c)

The 14th Amendment extends to State action the 5th Amendment due process rights.

d)

It is a right that arises from the right against self-incrimination

e)

It is not a "right" at all - it is a moral issue, not a legal issue

5.

"The Law and Public Service program is designed for students interested in careers focused on _______ and ___________ issues and fire science."

a)

legal

b)

investigative

c)

local

d)

national

6.

The right to remain _____ comes from the _____ Amendment to the U.S. Constitution. This includes the right to avoid self _________.

a)

Wealthy

b)

Silent

c)

4th

d)

5th

e)

Incrimination

7.

The right to remain (a)   comes from the 5th Amendment to the U.S. Constitution. This includes the right to avoid self incrimination.

8.

The right to remain silent comes from the (a)   Amendment to the U.S. Constitution. This includes the right to avoid self incrimination.

9.

The right to remain silent comes from the 5th Amendment to the U.S. Constitution. This includes the right to avoid self (a)   .

10.

What does a public defender do?

a)

Defends people against police violence.

b)

Prosecutes defendants who are charged with crimes, but can't afford an attorney.

c)

Defends people who are charged with crimes, but can't afford an attorney.

d)

None of the above.

11.

Which of these are true statements about police searches:

a)

The Fourth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution limits the ability of police to search people

b)

The Fourth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution normally requires a warrant from a judge before police can conduct a search

c)

There are exceptions, including when it is not practical to get a search warrant before the evidence would be lost - for example if the evidence is in your car.

d)

The Fourth Amendment to the U.S. Constitution normally requires probable cause before judges can issue a search warrant

e)

Probable cause means more likely than not, regardless of who the judge is.

12.

Which of these are true statements about police searches:

a)

If a search violates the Fourth Amendment, and the police find something illegal during the search, they can not use the evidence in court

b)

The "exclusionary rule" is in the Fourth Amendment.

c)

If a search violates the Fourth Amendment, the police can't use anything that they learn as a result of the search

d)

The "fruit of the poisonous tree" refers to the analogy between Adam and Eve, and illegal police searches

13.

True or False. If you consent to a search of your car, the police don't need probable cause to search it.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Which of the following are true about the police's right to make "investigative stops."

a)

Police need probable cause before they can make an "investigative stop."

b)

Police need a "reasonable suspicion" for an investigative stop.

c)

Reasonable suspicion requires a particularized and objective basis to suspect legal wrongdoing.

d)

Seeing a truck licensed to a driver with a suspended license would not be a “a particularized and objective basis” to suspect a crime has been committed.

e)

Probable cause is a lower hurdle than reasonable suspicion.

15.

Which of these impact how high bail is set:

a)

the severity of the alleged offense

b)

the likelihood that the defendant will commit additional crimes after being released

c)

the chances that the defendant will flee the jurisdiction before trial

d)

Whether the case is in federal court or state court

e)

the 8th Amendment

16.

Which of the following statements about stare decisis are true:

a)

It is the legal concept that courts should follow precedent, even if they don’t agree with it.”

b)

Stare decisis applies to all state courts and federal courts, except the U.S. Supreme Court. .

c)

A decision to overrule an earlier case “should rest on some special reason over and above the belief that [the] prior case was wrongly decided.

d)

None of these - "stare decisis" means court decisions ("decisis") must be specifically stated

17.

According to Kimberly Motley, the role of "justness" is:

a)

According to Kimberly Motley, the role of "justness" is:

b)

To minimize the obligations that people have

c)

To protect businesses, but not people

d)

To protect people, but not businesses

e)

To protect people, businesses, and NGOs

18.

Motley attributes her success to which of these:

a)

She works the system from the inside out

b)

She uses the laws as they were intended to be used

c)

She helps create new laws

d)

She helps her clients find a way around the law

19.

True or False. Freedom of the press makes governments more accountable and more transparent.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

"“Effective communication in the legal services environment." includes

a)

No breathing through your nose

b)

No breathing through your mouth

c)

No cussing

d)

None of these

21.

"Describe and follow ethical rules, including professionalism, integrity, competence, and confidentiality" - includes

a)

No breathing through your nose

b)

No breathing through your mouth

c)

No cussing

d)

None of these

22.

Which of these are violations of the Academic Honesty Policy

a)

Cheating on tests or assignments

b)

Sharing screenshots of tests or answer keys

c)

Plagiarism

d)

Sharing work without permission

23.

Which of these are consequences for violating the Academic Honesty Policy:

a)

the student will lose full credit for the assignment

b)

The student will not be permitted to redo the work in question

c)

It could cause the student to fail the course.

d)

None of these

24.

"Respect" in our classroom means:

a)

you don't talk when classmates are talking

b)

you don't talk when the teacher is talking

c)

you respect each others’ opinions, even if you disagree

d)

you present your opinion or positions with facts and logic – not with derogatory labels

25.

Which of these are widely accepted for learning law:

a)

Socratic method

b)

Case briefs - including QSAFD

c)

Case study method

d)

Students create outlines

e)

Learning Latin

26.

A strawman argument:

a)

is a fact or opinion that seems relevant to the issue, but really isn't

b)

is a fallacy that attacks a position the opponent doesn’t really hold.

c)

is a fallacy that happens when you mistake something for the cause just because it came first.

d)

is a logical fallacy that assumes a chain of future events without really proving their likelihood.

27.

A red herring :

a)

is a fact or opinion that seems relevant to the issue, but really isn't

b)

is a fallacy that attacks a position the opponent doesn’t really hold.

c)

is a fallacy that happens when you mistake something for the cause just because it came first.

d)

is a logical fallacy that assumes a chain of future events without really proving their likelihood.

28.

Post hoc ergo proctor hoc:

a)

is a fact or opinion that seems relevant to the issue, but really isn't

b)

is a fallacy that attacks a position the opponent doesn’t really hold.

c)

is a fallacy that happens when you mistake something for the cause just because it came first.

d)

is a logical fallacy that assumes a chain of future events without really proving their likelihood.

29.

Slippery slope:

a)

is a fact or opinion that seems relevant to the issue, but really isn't

b)

is a fallacy that attacks a position the opponent doesn’t really hold.

c)

is a fallacy that happens when you mistake something for the cause just because it came first.

d)

is a logical fallacy that assumes a chain of future events without really proving their likelihood.

30.

Ad hominem:

a)

is a logical fallacy that attacks the person, not the argument.

b)

is a logical fallacy that assumes there are only two possible answers.

c)

is a logical fallacy where a person’s argument is just repeating what they already assumed.

d)

is a logical fallacy that assumes a chain of future events without really proving their likelihood.

31.

False dichotomy:

a)

is a logical fallacy that attacks the person, not the argument.

b)

is a logical fallacy that assumes there are only two possible answers.

c)

is a logical fallacy where a person’s argument is just repeating what they already assumed.

d)

is a logical fallacy that assumes a chain of future events without really proving their likelihood.

32.

Circular reasoning:

a)

is a logical fallacy that attacks the person, not the argument.

b)

is a logical fallacy that assumes there are only two possible answers.

c)

is a logical fallacy where a person’s argument is just repeating what they already assumed.

d)

is a logical fallacy that assumes a chain of future events without really proving their likelihood.

33.

Which of these are true statements about the Socratic Method:

a)

It is where students sit in concentric circles and discuss issues

b)

It is named after a Greek philosopher, and may be Socrates' most enduring contribution to philosophy

c)

It seeks to explore the foundations of students' views by asking CONTINUAL QUESTIONS

d)

It is used in most law schools

e)

It is used in the Paper Chase to “discover” that the contract damages are the difference between what the medical patient had before surgery (a burnt hand), and after surgery (a burnt and harry hand).

34.

Over the course of a semester, you will try to integrate the content of your (a)   and your briefs into a cohesive whole called an outline.

35.

Over the course of a semester, you will try to integrate the content of your notes and your (a)   into a cohesive whole called an outline.

36.

Over the course of a semester, you will try to integrate the content of your notes and your briefs into a cohesive whole called an (a)   .

37.

An (a)   is essential to establish a system that will allow you to recall the legal principals applicable to a given fact pattern.

38.

An outline is essential to establish a system that will allow you to recall the (a)   principals applicable to a given fact pattern.

39.

An outline is essential to establish a system that will allow you to recall the legal principals applicable to a given (a)   pattern.

40.

Dialogue is _____ and thrives on an _____ attitude.

a)

Collaborative

b)

Broadens

c)

Open minded

d)

Respects

e)

Answers

41.

Dialogue _____ a participant’s own point of view.

a)

Collaborative

b)

Broadens

c)

Open minded

d)

Respects

e)

Answers

42.

Dialogue _____ all participants.

a)

Collaborative

b)

Broadens

c)

Open minded

d)

Respects

e)

Answers

43.

Dialogue assumes that many people have pieces of _____.

a)

Collaborative

b)

Broadens

c)

Open minded

d)

Respects

e)

Answers

44.

Socratic Seminar Guidelines: _____ – no one can _____ while someone else is speaking.

a)

Build

b)

Speak

c)

Specific

d)

Listen

e)

Text

45.

Socratic Seminar Guidelines: Speakers must try to _____ on what others say.

a)

Build

b)

Speak

c)

Specific

d)

Listen

e)

Text

46.

Socratic Seminar Guidelines: Speakers must refer to the _____ parts of the _____ when their comment is directly tied to the article or opinion.

a)

Build

b)

Speak

c)

Specific

d)

Listen

e)

Text

47.

At the end of each unit we: take a _____.

a)

Questionnaire

b)

Quiz, Test, or Quest

c)

Homework

d)

Scores

e)

Review

48.

At the end of each unit we: fill out a _____ explaining what we learned, what worked and what didn’t work.

a)

Questionnaire

b)

Quiz, Test, or Quest

c)

Homework

d)

Scores

e)

Review

49.

At the end of each unit we: do reading _____ for the next section.

a)

Questionnaire

b)

Quiz, Test, or Quest

c)

Homework

d)

Scores

e)

Review

50.

At the end of each unit we: review a graph that shows the _____ for that unit.

a)

Questionnaire

b)

Quiz, Test, or Quest

c)

Homework

d)

Scores

e)

Review

51.

At the end of each unit we: _____ the quiz, quest, or test to learn from our misses.

a)

Questionnaire

b)

Quiz, Test, or Quest

c)

Homework

d)

Scores

e)

Review

52.

In a democracy, power is supposed to reside with:

a)

Congress

b)

The Courts

c)

The people

d)

The wealthy

e)

The president

53.

Power:

a)

Determines who gets to make the rules of the game

b)

Is key to being taken seriously

c)

Is something you need to understand to play the game

d)

Is necessarily good

e)

Is necessarily evil

54.

In which of these sources of power do we use LAWS to encourage people to do what we want them to, and not do what we don't want them to do?

a)

Physical force

b)

Wealth

c)

State action

d)

Social norms

e)

Ideas

55.

Which of these sources of power was the primary factor in achieving marriage equality?

a)

Physical force

b)

Wealth

c)

State action

d)

Social norms

e)

Ideas

56.

Which of these are sources of power?

a)

Physical force

b)

Wealth

c)

State action

d)

Social norms

e)

Ideas

57.

To "read power" means to:

a)

To pay attention to as many "texts" of power as you can

b)

To map out who has what power, arrayed in what systems

c)

To find out who created the power, and who wants to keep it that way

d)

To study the strategies that others have used to gain power

e)

To read, so you may write

58.

Prinsky. Which of these are statements about the Governor's power is/are true:

a)

The governor's power comes from the state constitution

b)

The governor's power comes from the U.S. constitution

c)

The governor's power is limited by the state constitution.

d)

The governor's power is limited by the U.S. constitution

59.

Prinsky. Which of these are statements about the Judge's power is/are true:

a)

The judge's power comes from the state constitution

b)

The judge's power comes from the U.S. constitution

c)

The judge's power is limited by the state constitution.

d)

The judge's power is limited by the U.S. constitution

60.

Prinsky. Which of these are required to get a preliminary injunction.

a)

Likelihood of success on the merits

b)

Certainty that the plaintiff will win

c)

Irreparable harm if there is no order before the case is tried

d)

None of these

61.

In college, which of these can be consequences for academic dishonesty?

a)

Points deducted

b)

Fail assignment

c)

Fail course

d)

Suspended from School

e)

Expelled from school

62.

True or False. Even if you graduate law school and pass the bar, a history of academic misconduct can prevent you from being admitted to practice law.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

Which of these are true about academic integrity.

a)

It is only important in college.

b)

It is only important in high school.

c)

It is important to establish your integrity and discipline in high school.

d)

For most people, the temptation to cheat increases in college.

e)

For most people, the temptation to cheat increases in the work force.

64.

What Amendment is violated when police use excessive force?

a)

4th Amendment

b)

5th Amendment

c)

6th Amendment

d)

7th Amendment

e)

8th Amendment

65.

Excessive force by police violates: "The right of the people to be secure in their persons . . . against unreasonable searches and (a)   ."

66.

When suing a police officer for violating constitutional rights by hurting or killing someone during an arrest, a successful plaintiff must prove the officer's conduct:

a)

Was excessive force

b)

Was an unreasonable seizure

c)

Violated a clearly established right

d)

Was such that any reasonable official in the defendant’s shoes would have understood that he was violating a right

e)

Was not authorized by the Police Chief

67.

If you wanted to use the courts to abolish the qualified immunity defense in excessive force cases, which court would be required to reverse prior precedent?

(a)  

68.

In the 1966 case of Miranda v. Arizona, what crimes was the defendant charged with?

a)

Kidnapping

b)

Rape

c)

Breaking and entering

d)

Burglary

69.

In the 1966 case of Miranda v. Arizona, what court created a new rule about signed confessions?

(a)  

70.

In the 1966 case of Miranda v. Arizona, what court created a new rule about signed confessions?

(a)  

71.

Why, in the 1966 case of Miranda v. Arizona, did the court that created a new rule about signed confessions have jurisdiction to hear the case?

a)

Diversity jurisdiction

b)

Federal question jurisdiction

c)

Res judicata

d)

Writ of certiorari

72.

What is the name of the warning that police give, to satisfy the requirements announced in the 1966 case of Miranda v. Arizona?

(a)  

73.

Plaintiffs start a case in federal court by filing a _____.

a)

Motion to Dismiss

b)

Answer

c)

Complaint

d)

Liability

e)

Default Judgment

74.

Defendants have 30 days to file an _____ or _____.

a)

Motion to Dismiss

b)

Answer

c)

Complaint

d)

Liability

e)

Default Judgment

75.

If the defendant doesn’t respond to the Complaint, the plaintiff can get a _____ _____.

a)

Motion to Dismiss

b)

Answer

c)

Complaint

d)

Liability

e)

Default Judgment

76.

If the defendant doesn’t respond to the Complaint, the defendant is treated as admitting _____.

a)

Motion to Dismiss

b)

Answer

c)

Complaint

d)

Liability

e)

Default Judgment

77.

When ruling on a motion to dismiss, the judge takes the facts alleged in the complaint as _____.

a)

Denied

b)

Granted

c)

Law

d)

True

78.

When ruling on a motion to dismiss, the judge decides whether the plaintiff’s claim would fail as a matter of _____, even if all the allegations in their complaint are proved true at trial.

a)

Denied

b)

Granted

c)

Law

d)

True

79.

If the motion to dismiss is _____, the case is over.

a)

Denied

b)

Granted

c)

Law

d)

True

80.

If the motion to dismiss is _____, the case moves forward toward trial.

a)

Denied

b)

Granted

c)

Law

d)

True

81.

The 14th Amendment extends the Bill of Rights protections to the conduct of _____ employees.

a)

Federal

b)

State

c)

14th

d)

1983

82.

To protect former slaves from the backlash of southern states, the ____ Amendment was passed.

a)

Federal

b)

State

c)

14th

d)

1983

83.

To protect former slaves from the backlash of southern states, Congress also passed what is now Section _____ of the Equal Protection Act.

a)

Federal

b)

State

c)

14th

d)

1983

84.

The three ways that a case can end before trial are:

a)

Motion for Summary judgment

b)

Motion to Dismiss

c)

Motion to Strike

d)

Writ of Certiorari

e)

Settlement

85.

This allows you to challenge a jury verdict:

a)

Motion for Summary judgment

b)

Motion to Dismiss

c)

Motion to Strike

d)

Appeal as of right

e)

Settlement

86.

For these, the judge assumes that the facts in the Complaint are true.

a)

Motion for Summary judgment

b)

Motion to Dismiss

c)

Motion to Strike

d)

Appeal as of right

e)

Settlement

87.

For these, the judge uses the undisputed facts that are established in the case through discovery.

a)

Motion for Summary judgment

b)

Motion to Dismiss

c)

Motion to Strike

d)

Appeal as of right

e)

Settlement

88.

Which of these apply in a jury trial in a criminal case:

a)

The burden of proof is beyond a reasonable doubt

b)

The jury decides if there is probable cause to believe the accused committed the crime

c)

The jury decides if the defendant is guilty

d)

The jury must be unanimous

e)

The jury has the right to subpoena witnesses and information

89.

Which of these apply in a grand jury proceeding:

a)

The burden of proof is beyond a reasonable doubt

b)

The jury decides if there is probable cause to believe the accused committed the crime

c)

The jury decides if the defendant is guilty

d)

The jury must be unanimous

e)

The jury has the right to subpoena witnesses and information

90.

Which of these apply in a grand jury proceeding:

a)

The judge rules on evidentiary objections

b)

The defendant has a right to defense by an attorney

c)

The rules of evidence apply

d)

The proceedings are open to the public

e)

The jury decides if the accused should be indicted

91.

Which of these apply in a criminal jury trial:

a)

The judge rules on evidentiary objections

b)

The defendant has a right to defense by an attorney

c)

The rules of evidence apply

d)

The proceedings are open to the public

e)

The jury decides if the accused should be indicted

92.

Which of these apply in a civil case brought against police officers:

a)

The plaintiff/prosecutor must show that the police used excessive force

b)

The plaintiff/prosecutor must show that the police knew they were violating a constitutional right

c)

The claim is under Section 1983 of the Civil Rights Act

d)

The claim is for an unreasonable seizure in violation of the 4th Amendment – which the 14th Amendment applies to state governments

e)

The plaintiff must prove their case beyond a reasonable doubt

93.

Which of these apply in a criminal case brought against police officers:

a)

The plaintiff/prosecutor must show that the police used excessive force

b)

The plaintiff/prosecutor must show that the police knew they were violating a constitutional right

c)

The claim is under Section 1983 of the Civil Rights Act

d)

The claim is for an unreasonable seizure in violation of the 4th Amendment – which the 14th Amendment applies to state governments

e)

The plaintiff must prove their case beyond a reasonable doubt

94.

Who has the power to determine whether the Senate will hold a confirmation hearing:

a)

Confirm

b)

Nominate

c)

Simple majority

d)

Majority leader

e)

Appointment

95.

What role does the president play in the process of appointing a U.S. Supreme Court Justice?

a)

Confirm

b)

Nominate

c)

Simple majority

d)

Majority leader

e)

Appointment

96.

What role does the Senate play in the process of appointing a U.S. Supreme Court Justice?

a)

Confirm

b)

Nominate

c)

Simple majority

d)

Majority leader

e)

Appointment

97.

What is the last step in the process of having a new justice on the U.S. Supreme Court?

a)

Confirm

b)

Nominate

c)

Simple majority

d)

Majority leader

e)

Appointment

98.

What was a tactic that the minority party used to have (but doesn’t have any more) to stop an appointment to the U.S. Supreme Court?

a)

Filibuster

b)

Nuclear option

c)

Super majority

d)

Expressio unis est exclusio alterius

e)

Cloture

99.

What tactic eliminated the ability of the minority party to stop an appointment to the U.S. Supreme Court?

a)

Filibuster

b)

Nuclear option

c)

Super majority

d)

Expressio unis est exclusio alterius

e)

Cloture

100.

What is it called when there are enough votes to stop a Filibuster?

a)

Filibuster

b)

Nuclear option

c)

Super majority

d)

Expressio unis est exclusio alterius

e)

Cloture

101.

This term describes the votes that used to be necessary to stop a Filibuster.

a)

Filibuster

b)

Nuclear option

c)

Super majority

d)

Expressio unis est exclusio alterius

e)

Cloture

102.

What rule of construction (interpretation of language) allowed the Senate to change their own 60% rule with a simple majority?

a)

Filibuster

b)

Nuclear option

c)

Super majority

d)

Expressio unis est exclusio alterius

e)

Cloture

103.

True or False. Under the doctrine of stare decisis, courts routinely overturn controlling precedent if they disagree with it.

a)

True

b)

False

104.

True or False. Under the doctrine of stare decisis, courts only overturn controlling precedent if there are special circumstances.

a)

True

b)

False

105.

The U.S. Supreme Court normally must follow the precedent that is established by:

a)

The U.S. Supreme Court

b)

U.S. Circuit Courts

c)

U.S. District Courts

d)

None of these

106.

U.S. Circuit Courts normally must follow the precedent that is established by:

a)

The U.S. Supreme Court

b)

U.S. Circuit Courts

c)

U.S. District Courts

d)

None of these

107.

U.S. District Courts normally must follow the precedent that is established by:

a)

The U.S. Supreme Court

b)

U.S. Circuit Courts

c)

U.S. District Courts

d)

None of these

108.

This type of evidence is defined as evidence that is favorable to the defendant in a criminal case:

a)

Exculpatory

b)

Incriminatory

c)

Circumstantial

d)

Testimony

e)

Documents

109.

This type of evidence is defined as evidence that is unfavorable to the defendant in a criminal case:

a)

Exculpatory

b)

Incriminatory

c)

Circumstantial

d)

Testimony

e)

Documents

110.

The prosecutor in a criminal case has a duty to turn over this type of evidence to the defendant:

a)

Exculpatory

b)

Incriminatory

c)

Circumstantial

d)

Testimony

e)

Documents