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AMC SHRADDHA PHARMACOLOGY FINAL ROUND

Total questions: 35

Worksheet time: 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

`Essential drugs’ are:

a)

Lifesaving drugs

b)

Drugs that meet the priority health care needs of the population

c)

Drugs that must be present in the emergency bag of a doctor

d)

Drugs that are listed in the pharmacopoia of aCountry

2.

The most important factor which governs diffusion of drugs across capillaries other than those in the brain is:

a)

Blood flow through the capillary

b)

Lipid solubility of the drug

c)

pKa value of the drug

d)

pH of the medium

3.

If the dose-response curves of a drug for producing different actions are widely separated on the dose axis, the drug is:

a)

Highly potent

b)

Highly efficacious

c)

Highly toxic

d)

Highly selective

4.

The choline ester resistant to both true and pseudocholinesteraseis:

a)

Methacholine

b)

Bethanechol

c)

Benzoylcholine

d)

Butyrylcholine

5.

The organophosphates produce irreversible inhibitionof cholinesterase because:

a)

They bind to an allosteric site of the enzyme resulting in unfavourable conformation of esteraticsite to bind acetylcholine

b)

Regeneration time of the phosphorylated enzyme is longer than the turnover time of the enzyme molecules

c)

Phosphorylation results in rapid degradation of enzyme molecules

d)

They are neither metabolized nor excreted from the body

6.

Which of the following is a prodrug of adrenaline used topically in glaucoma:

a)

Brimonidine

b)

Dipivefrine

c)

Phenylpropanolamine

d)

Dorzolamide

7.

High anticholinergic property is present in the following antihistaminic:

a)

Diphenhydramine

b)

Astemizole

c)

. Cetirizine

d)

Terfenadine

8.

Tachyphylaxisto many actions on repeated injection is a feature of the following autacoid:

a)

Histamine

b)

5-Hydroxytryptamine

c)

Bradykinin

d)

Prostaglandin E2

9.

Choose the ergot alkaloid that is well absorbed orally, has weak vascular but prominent uterine stimulant action:

a)

Ergometrine

b)

Ergotamine

c)

Dihydroergotamine

d)

Dihydroergotoxine

10.

The following antitussive is present in opium but has no analgesic or addicting properties:

a)

Noscapine

b)

Codeine

c)

Pholcodeine

d)

Ethylmorphine

11.

The rare but characteristic adverse effect of HMGCoAreductase inhibitors is:

a)

Onycolysis

b)

Myopathy

c)

Alopecia

d)

Oculomucocutaneous syndrome

12.

Choose the correct statement(s) about inhaled glucocorticoids in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD):

a)

They are indicated in COPD only for severe/advanced cases

b)

Instituted early they retard the progression of COPD

c)

Their use predisposes to respiratory infections

d)

Both 'A' and 'B'

13.

Indications of somatostatin include:

a)

Macroprolactinoma

b)

Zollinger Ellison syndrome

c)

Bleeding esophagealvarices

d)

Steatorrhoea

14.

Overtreatment with the following thyroid inhibitor results in enlargement of the thyroid:

a)

Lugol’s iodine

b)

Radioactive iodine

c)

Carbimazole

d)

All of the above

15.

The second generation sulfonylurea hypoglycaemicsdiffer from the first generation ones in that they:

a)

Are more potent

b)

Are longer acting

c)

Do not lower blood sugar in nondiabeticsubjects

d)

Are less prone to cause hypoglycaemicReaction

16.

Select the muscle relaxant that is used to control spasticity associated with upper motor neurone paralysis:

a)

Vecuronium

b)

Succinylcholine

c)

Chlorzoxazone

d)

Baclofen

17.

The following local anaesthetic raises BP instead of tending to cause a fall:

a)

Cocaine

b)

Dibucaine

c)

Lignocaine

d)

Procaine

18.

The following class of gastric antisecretory drug also reduce gastric motility and have primary effect on juice volume, with less marked effect on acid and pepsin content:

a)

Histamine H2 blockers

b)

Anticholinergics

c)

Proton pump inhibitors

d)

Prostaglandins

19.

Select the drug that antagonises diazepam action noncompetitively:

a)

Adenosine

b)

Flumazenil

c)

Bicuculline

d)

Valproic acid

20.

The following antiepileptic drug is most likely to impair learning and memory, and produce behavioural abnormalities in children:

a)

Valproic acid

b)

Phenobarbitone

c)

Phenytoin

d)

Ethosuximide

21.

Select the antiparkinsonian drug which directly activates dopaminergic D2 receptors in the striatum:

a)

Pramipexole

b)

Entacapone

c)

Benserazide

d)

Selegiline

22.

Which of the following is an atypical neuroleptic drug:

a)

Loxapine

b)

Olanzapine

c)

Pimozide

d)

Flupenthixol

23.

Select the anxiolytic benzodiazepine that has additional mild antidepressant property:

a)

Chlordiazepoxide

b)

Oxazepam

c)

Alprazolam

d)

Lorazepam

24.

Which antiemetic selectively blocks levodopa induced vomiting without blocking its antiparkinsonian action:

a)

Metoclopramide

b)

Cisapride

c)

Domperidone

d)

Ondansetron

25.

Strychnine produces convulsions by:

a)

Stimulating NMDA receptors

b)

Facilitating the excitatory transmitter glutamate

c)

Blocking the inhibitory transmitter GABA

d)

Blocking the inhibitory transmitter glycine

26.

The following angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor can reduce cardiac contractility:

a)

Captopril

b)

Enalapril

c)

Perindopril

d)

Lisinopril

27.

Digoxin is contraindicated in:

a)

Angina pectoris patients

b)

Ventricular tachycardia

c)

Hypertensive patients

d)

Complete heart-block

28.

Glyceryltrinitrate is used in CHF for:

a)

Routine treatment of mild to moderate chronic heart failure

b)

Rapid symptom relief in acute left ventricular failure

c)

Arresting disease progression

d)

Both 'A' and 'B'

29.

The most significant feature of the antiarrhythmic action of lignocaine is:

a)

Suppression of phase-4 depolarization in ventricular ectopic foci

b)

Prolongation of action potential duration

c)

Prolongation of effective refractory period

d)

Depression of membrane responsiveness

30.

Loss of taste sensation can be a side effect of the following antihypertensive drug:

a)

Clonidine

b)

Captopril

c)

Verapamil

d)

Prazosin

31.

The following drug is used to treat angioedema

a)

Danazol

b)

Flibanserin

c)

OCP

d)

Yohimbine

32.

Thiazide diuretics and furosemide have directionally

opposite effect on the net renal excretion of the

following substance:

a)

Uric acid

b)

Calcium

c)

Magnesium

d)

Bicarbonate

33.

Nonsteroidalantiinflammatory drugs reduce the diuretic action of furosemide by:

a)

Preventing prostaglandin mediated intrarenalhaemodynamic actions

b)

Blocking the action in ascending limb of loop of Henle.

c)

Enhancing salt and water reabsorption in distal tubule

d)

Increasing aldosterone secretion

34.

A patient of chronic renal failure maintained on intermittent haemodialysis has anaemia not responding to iron therapy. Which of the following additional drug is indicated:

a)

Epoetin

b)

Cyanocobalamin

c)

Folic acid

d)

Pyridoxine

35.

Which fibrinolytic agent(s) selectively activate(s) fibrin bound plasminogen rather than circulating plasminogen:

a)

Urokinase

b)

Streptokinase

c)

Alteplase

d)

Both ‘A’ and ‘C’