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Pathology project

Total questions: 140

Worksheet time: 1hrs 27mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Addison's disease affects males and females_____ and can be diagnosed in any age group.

a)

equally

b)

the same

c)

differently

2.

Conn's syndrome is caused by an excessive secretion of?

(a)  

3.

What is the name of the lesions that produce no clinical symptoms when the lesion is small?

a)

adrenal cortex

b)

adrenal hyperplasia

c)

adrenal cysts

d)

adrenal glands

4.

This is very rare in adults and is usually caused by severe trauma or infection.

a)

adrenal adenoma

b)

hypertension

c)

adrenal insufficiency

d)

adrenal hemorrhage

5.

What is the most common primary adrenal tumor?

a)

neurblastomas

b)

benign nonfunctioning adenoma

c)

adrenal cyst

d)

metastasis

6.

Adrenal nodules are less than?

a)

4cm

b)

3mm

c)

3cm

d)

4mm

7.

What is the fourth most common site in the body for metastasis, after the lung, liver, and bones?

a)

adrenal glands

b)

kidneys

c)

pancreas

d)

duodenum

8.

Metastases to the adrenal gland typically causes________?

a)

adrenal adenoma

b)

muscle weakness

c)

adrenal hyperplasia

d)

adrenal insufficiency

9.

Addison's disease is characterized by (a)   with decreased production of cortisol and sometimes aldosterone.

10.

What is another name for retroperitoneal fibrosis?

(a)  

11.

This is an idiopathic condition characterized by thick sheets of fibrous tissue in the retroperitoneal cavity.

a)

adrenocortical insufficiency

b)

adrenal cortex

c)

adrenal cysts

d)

Retroperitoneal fibrosis

12.

What are the clinical signs and symptoms of adrenogenital syndrome?

a)

Symptoms and signs vary depending on the age and sex of the person

b)

hypertension, muscle weakness, renal stones

c)

irregular menses, hypertension, deepening voice

d)

none of the above

13.

What are the signs of adrenogenital syndrome in a new born?

a)

depends on the sex of the newborn

b)

There are no signs

c)

ambiguous genitalia, with or without adrenal hyperplasia

14.

What are the affects of adrenogenital syndrome on an adult woman?

(a)  

15.

What are the clinical signs and symptoms of Conn's syndrome? Check all that apply.

a)

Muscle weakness

b)

hypertension

c)

Abnormal electrocardiograms

d)

masculinizing affects

16.

If hyperaldosteronism is caused by an adenoma, it is (a)   ?

17.

What is the size of functional adrenal adenomas?

a)

usually large, and hyperechoic

b)

usually small, and hyperechoic

c)

usually large, and hypoechoic

d)

usually small, and hypoechoic

18.

What are the causes of Cushing's syndrome? Check all that apply

a)

excessive secretion of cortisol

b)

adrenal hyperplasia

c)

cortical adenoma

d)

adrenal carcinoma

e)

elevated ACTH

19.

Cushing's syndrome can also be caused by (a)   ?

20.

Who is affected most by adrenal cysts?

a)

men are more often affected than women

b)

women are more often affected than men

c)

children are more often affected than adults

21.

Sonographic appearance of adrenal cysts, check all that apply.

a)

typical cystic pattern

b)

strong posterior wall

c)

no internal echoes

d)

good through transmission

22.

What organs can be found in the anterior pararenal space?

a)

pancreas

b)

kidneys

c)

duodenal sweep

d)

ascending colon

e)

transverse colon

23.

What is another name for Addison's disease?

(a)  

24.

What is the most common primary retroperitoneal tumor?

a)

adrenal cysts

b)

pituitary tumor

c)

lymphoma

d)

adrenal adenoma

25.

What is the arrow pointing to?

(a)  

26.

What is the second most common primary retroperitoneal tumor(PRT)?

a)

Leiomyosarcoma

b)

Adrenal adenoma

c)

Pituitary adenoma

27.

What is the sonographic appearance of a leiomyosarcoma? Check all that apply.

a)

large complex mass

b)

some areas have necrosis

c)

cystic degeneration

d)

strong posterior wall

28.

(a)   are seen more commonly in childhood and are usually located in the upper pole of the left kidney.

29.

What does this image represent?

(a)  

30.

Adrenal cysts may be ______, _______, or _______?

a)

multilocular

b)

functional

c)

unilocular

d)

unilateral

31.

What is more common in neonates who experience traumatic delivery with stress, asphyxia, and septicemia?

a)

adrenal hemorrhage

b)

adrenal glands

c)

adrenal insufficiency

32.

Adrenal glands in a neonate are very (a)   ?

33.

Adrenal tumors can cause what 3 things?

a)

Cushing's syndrome

b)

Conn's syndrome

c)

adrenal hemorrhage

d)

adrenogenital syndrome

34.

Metastases to the adrenal gland typically causes_____?

a)

Cushing's syndrome

b)

neuroblastomas

c)

pheochromocytoma

d)

adrenal insufficiency

35.

Pheochromocytes of the adrenal medulla may produce a tumor called a_______, which secretes epinephrine and norepinephrine in excessive quantities.

a)

pheochromocytoma

b)

cyst

c)

lymph node

d)

neurblastoma

36.

Pheochromocytoma clinical symptoms:

a)

intermittent hypertension

b)

severe headaches

c)

heart palpations

d)

excess perspiration

37.

What space do the adrenal glands lie in?

(a)  

38.

Blood and lymph nodes belong in which space?

(a)  

39.

Clinical symptoms adrenogenital syndrome in prepubescent boys includes:

a)

masculine development

b)

deepening voice

c)

increase in body hair

d)

weight gain

40.

What is the occurrence of Conn's syndrome?

(a)  

41.

Hyperplasia is more common in______?

a)

infants

b)

women

c)

men

d)

people over the age of 50

42.

Adrenal adenomas are more common in______?

a)

women

b)

infants

c)

men

d)

people over the age of 50

43.

What space do the kidneys lie in?

(a)  

44.

Larger neoplasms tend to be______ and _______ with a central area of necrosis hemorrhage.

(a)  

45.

More than 90% of fetal______ are located in the adrenal glands; 50% of these have cystic components.

a)

retroperitoneal fibrosis

b)

pheochromocytoma

c)

lipomas

d)

neurblastomas

46.

What is the most common tumor of infancy?

(a)  

47.

Bilateral involvement is seen in more than one half of patients with (a)   .

48.

(a)   adrenal glands are proportionally larger than in an adult.

49.

Signs and symptoms of adrenogenital syndrome include:

a)

irregular menses

b)

renal stones

c)

hypertension

d)

"buffalo hump"

e)

all of the above

50.

What is caused by either an adrenal tumor or hyperplasia?

a)

Cushing's syndrome

b)

Adrenogenital syndrome

c)

Conn's syndrome

51.

Gastric Bezoar that is made up of vegetable matter:

a)

Trichobezoars

b)

Concretions

c)

Phytobezoars

d)

Phicobazoars

52.

The end product of what the stomach converts food into is called:

(a)  

53.

All of the following are Clincals signs and symptoms common with the gastrointestinal problems except:

a)

nausea

b)

diarrhea

c)

inflammation

d)

vomitting

54.

What is being described? This occurs more often in women than men, may come from the pancreas of duodenum, and is usually found on the greater curvature of the stomach.

a)

leiomyosarcoma

b)

duplication cyst

c)

pseudocyst

d)

acute appendicitis

55.

Entrance of the esophagus into the stomach, circular muscle that acts as a sphincter, is generally closed:

a)

cardiac orifice

b)

pyloric sphincter

c)

hepatic flexure

d)

cholecystokinin

56.

What is being described? Pouchlike herniation through the muscular wall of a tubular organ, occurs in the stomach, the small intestine, and most commonly in the colon.

a)

acute appendicitis

b)

crohns disease

c)

polyps

d)

meckel diverticulitis

57.

This is a malignant tumor that can occur as a primary tumor of the gastrointestinal tract and is 3% of stomach tumors:

a)

leiomyosarcoma

b)

lymphoma

c)

gastric carcinoma

d)

metastatic disease

58.

All of the following are parts of the large intestine except:

a)

ileum

b)

rectum

c)

cecum

d)

anus

59.

What is being shown in the picture?

a)

lymphoma

b)

leiomyosarcoma

c)

leiomyoma

d)

mucolocele

60.

All are layers of the bowel except:

a)

mucosa

b)

jejunal

c)

mesothelium

d)

serosa

61.

This is the sixth leading cause of death and occurs more often in older men. Fifty percent of tumors occur on the pylorus while twenty-five percent occur on the body and or fundus of the stomach:

a)

gastric carcinoma

b)

Leiomyosarcoma

c)

lymphoma

d)

mocked diverticulitis

62.

How does the antrum of the stomach lie when compared to the liver? To the Splenic Vein?

a)

anterior, posterior

b)

posterior, posterior

c)

superior, inferior

d)

posterior, anterior

63.

A gross enlargement of the appendix from accumulation of mucoid substance within the lumen:

a)

fecaliths

b)

calculi

c)

mucocele

d)

diverticulum

64.

The valvulae conniventes may be seen as linear echo densities spaced 3 to 5 mm apart. This is called the ____________ and can be seen in the duodenum and jejnum

a)

keyboard sign

b)

cardia orifice

c)

ilocecal orifice

d)

mesothelium

65.

A polyp is a large, tumor like growth that projects from a mucous membrane surface.

a)

true

b)

false (small)

66.

What is/are the main function(s) of the Gastrointestinal tract?

a)

Ingest and Release bile

b)

Mixes chyme with digestive juices

c)

Breaks down food residue and Propels food to stomach

d)

Digestion and Absorption

67.

What are the three types of accessory digestive glands?

a)

Gastric glands, Salivary glands, Gallbladder

b)

salivary glands, pancreas, liver

c)

Liver, Stomach, Intestinal glands

d)

Pancreas, Intestinal glands, Salivary glands

68.

A Gastric Bezoar that contains hair balls in younger women:

a)

Trickebezoars

b)

Concretions

c)

Trichobezoars

d)

Phytobezoars

69.

This is the result of luminal obstruction and inflammation, leading to ischemia of the vermiform appendix:

a)

acute apodicticities

b)

mucolocele

c)

McBurney's sign

d)

Crohn's disease

70.

The digestive or alimentary tract is a tube that is _____ long, and extends from the ______ to the anus.

a)

8m, Pharynx

b)

8m, Mouth

c)

6m, Larynx

d)

12m, Nasopharynx

71.

The gastrointestinal tract is the smallest endocrine organ in the body.

a)

true

b)

false(largest)

72.

Where does the main function absorption mostly take place?

a)

ascending colon

b)

cecum

c)

duodenum

d)

stomach

73.

This is the second most common malignant tumor; it occurs in the fifth to sixth decade of life.

a)

lymphoma

b)

leiomyosarcoma

c)

gastric carcinoma

d)

leiomyoma

74.

This is a regional enteritis, a recurrent granulomatous inflammatory disease that affects the terminal ileum, colon, or both at any level:

a)

duplication cyst

b)

lymphoma

c)

mocked diverticulitis

d)

Crohn's disease

75.

What does the image below show:

a)

metastatic disease

b)

obstruction

c)

dilation

d)

leiomyosarcoma

76.

What are the parts of the small intestine:

a)

Ileum, Jejunum, Transverse colon

b)

Jejunum, Anus, Cecum

c)

Duodenum, Jejunum, Ileum

d)

Sigmoid colon, Duodenum, Vermiform Appendix

77.

The superior mesenteric artery has multiple branches to the small bowel, which include the:

a)

Inferior Pancreaticoduodenal, Splenic, Hepatic arteries

b)

Inferior Pancreaticoduodenal, Jejunal, Ileal arteries

c)

Ileal, Jejunal, Hepatic arteries

d)

Jejunal, Sigmoid, Splenic arteries

78.

__________ is released by the presence of fat in the intestine and regulates gallbladder contraction and gastric emptying.

a)

Electrolytes

b)

Bicarbonate

c)

Secretin

d)

Cholecystokinin

79.

The mass imaged below is generally globular or irregular, it occurs in the fifth to sixth decade of life:

a)

Lymphoma

b)

Meckel Diverticulitis

c)

Leiomyosarcoma

d)

Polyp

80.

Inorganic materials:

a)

Concretions

b)

Trichobezoars

c)

Phytobezoars

d)

Persimmons

81.

Patients are asymptomatic when a polyp is small.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Carcinomas account for at least 90% to 95% of malignant tumors of the small intestine.

a)

True

b)

False

83.

Located on the abdominal wall under McBurney’s point:

a)

Small

b)

Appendix

c)

cecum

d)

colon

84.

The two surfaces of the stomach are the lesser and greater curvatures.

a)

true

b)

false

85.

What is the function of the esophagus?

a)

Breaks down food residue

b)

Propels food from the oral cavity

c)

Ingest, mixes food

d)

Propels food to the stomach

86.

__________ is released from the small bowel to stimulate the secretion of bicarbonate to decrease the acid content of the intestine.

a)

Secretin

b)

Cholecytokinin

c)

Bile salts

d)

Vitamins

87.

What is the image below showing:

a)

Metastatic Disease

b)

Dilation

c)

Meckel Diverticulitis

d)

Crohn's disease

88.

When pertaining to appendicitis, women ages 20 to 40 years of age are at low risk of having the condition be misdiagnosed on initial physical examination.

a)

True

b)

False

89.

What are the clinical signs and symptoms of a Lymphoma?

a)

Leukocytosis, Weight loss, Nausea

b)

Intestinal blood loss, Leukocytosis, Anorexia, Vomiting

c)

Intestinal blood loss, Weight loss, Abdominal pain, Anorexia

d)

Anorexia, inflammation, Fever

90.

A patient is presented with fever and right lower quadrant pain. What is most likely their diagnosis according to the pictures below:

a)

Acute Appendicitis

b)

Lymphoma

c)

Crohn's Disease

d)

Nephroblastoma

91.

Target or bull’s eye sign:

a)

Colon

b)

Small Bowel

c)

Duodenum

d)

Stomach

92.

Which layers of the bowel are hypoechoic?

a)

Serosa, Mucosa

b)

Submucosa, Serosa

c)

Mesothelium, Submucosa, Muscularis

d)

Serosa, Submucosa, Mucosa

93.

The gastrointestinal tract is part of the digestive system that is ______ the diaphragm.

a)

Above

b)

To the left

c)

To the right

d)

Below

94.

What is the most common tumor of the stomach?

a)

Leiomyoma

b)

Lymphoma

c)

Gastric Carcinoma

d)

Meckel Diverticulitis

95.

High intestinal obstruction-distention, vomiting, abdominal pain, hemorrhage and fistula formation may also occur- What are these clinical symptoms of?

a)

Gastric Bezoar

b)

Appendicitis

c)

Duplication Cyst

d)

Mucocele

96.

What is shown in the following picture?

a)

Poylp

b)

Duplication cyst

c)

Lymphoma

d)

Gastric Bezaor

97.

The most common laboratory datum for the gastrointestinal tract is:

a)

Chronic blood loss

b)

Blood in the stool

c)

Elevation on white blood count

d)

Increase in Carcinoembryonic Antigen

98.

May come from a melanoma or lung or breast cancer:

a)

Gastric Carcinoma

b)

Meckel Diverticulitis

c)

Metastatic Disease

d)

Leiomyoma

99.

The _________ layer of the bowel contains blood vessels and lymph channels.

a)

Serosa

b)

Mucosa

c)

Mesothelium

d)

Submucosa

100.

______ percent of tumors occur in the pylorus, while _____ percent occur in the body and fundus of the stomach.

a)

50,25

b)

75,25

c)

25,50

d)

15,85

101.

Malignant solid tumors are more likely found near the (a)   of the mesentery.

102.

What are lymphoceles?

a)

Collection of fluid that occurs after surgery in the pelvis, retroperitoneum, or recess cavities.

b)

Air interference may make it difficult to examine the

left upper quadrant.

c)

Extrahepatic loculated collections of bi

d)

Epiploic foramen usually seals off the lesser sac from inflammatory processes extrinsic to it.

103.

At least ___ of omental masses are malignant

a)

2/3

b)

1/3

c)

1/2

d)

3/4

104.

Which of the following are pathways that bacteria can enter the liver and cause abscess formation?

a)

Through the portal system

b)

By way of ascending cholangitis of the common bile duct

c)

via the hepatic artery secondary to bacteremia

d)

By direct extension from an infection

e)

All the above

105.

What may develop because of iatrongenic, traumatic, or spontaneous rupture of the biliary tree?

a)

Lesser-Sac abscess

b)

Subphrenic abscess

c)

Kidney abscess

d)

Biloma abscess

106.

TRUE or FALSE

Renal abscesses are classified according to their location

a)

True

b)

False

107.

Decrease hematocrit level and red blood count usually suggest extrperitoneal hematoma

a)

True

b)

False

108.

What are the 3 neoplasms of the abdominal wall?

a)

Pseudocyst, Pancreatic Abscess, Gastric Outlet Obstruction

b)

Kidney Abscess, Renal carbuncle, Perinephric abscess

c)

Lipomas, Desmoid Tumors, Metastases

109.

TRUE or FALSE

The most common areas of weakness for an abdominal hernia is the stomach

a)

True

b)

False

110.

What does an incomplete regression of the uraschus during development cause?

a)

Abdominal Cyst

b)

Urinoma

c)

Lymphoceles

d)

Urachal Cyst

111.

What are the most common primary sites for peritoneal metastases?

a)

Ovaries

b)

Stomach

c)

Colon

d)

Liver

112.

Exhibits a uniformly thick, hypo-echoic, band-shaped structure that follows the convexity of the anterior and lateral abdominal wall, creating the omental band

(a)  

113.

What does the sandwich sign represent?

a)

Symmetry of the rectus sheath muscles

b)

A mass infiltrating the mesenteric leaves and encasing the superior mesenteric artery

c)

The contour of the underlying bowel and conform to the anterior

abdominal wall rather than produce distention

114.

which of these are within the peritoneal cavity?

a)

Lesser and greater omentum

b)

Mesenteries

c)

Ligaments

d)

Multiple fluid spaces (lesser sac, perihepatic and subphrenic spaces)

e)

all the above

115.

which of the following statements describes the visceral peritoneum?

a)

lines the walls of the cavity

b)

a smooth membrane that lines the entire abdominal cavity and is reflected over the contained organs

c)

covers the abdominal organs to a greater or lesser extent

d)

multiple peritoneal ligaments and folds that connect the viscera to each other and to the abdominopelvic walls

116.

in supine, what is the lowest part of the body?

a)

pelvis

b)

feet

c)

head

d)

abdomen

117.

what should be examined for pathologic fluid collection?

a)

suprahepatic spaces

b)

rectovesicle pouch

c)

pelvis and lateral flanks (gutters)

d)

infrahepatic spaces

118.

All of the following statements are true of the greater omentum EXCEPT?

a)

Helps prevent further spread of infected fluid by essentially “walling it off” from the rest of the body

b)

Profusely supplied with blood vessels by the epiploic branches of the gastroepiploic vessels

c)

Apronlike fold of peritoneum that hangs from the greater curvature of the stomach

d)

Double layer of peritoneum, extending from the liver to the lesser curvature of the stomach

119.

CHECK ALL THAT APPLY:

why is Distinguishing intraperitoneal fluid from pleural, subdiaphragmatic, subscapular, or retroperitoneal fluid necessary?

a)

for a differential diagnosis

b)

to locate a fluid pocket for aspiration or biopsy

c)

for measurements

d)

for a better image

120.

all of the following findings would suggest inflammatory or malignant ascites EXCEPT:

a)

Fine or coarse internal echoes

b)

Cystic with weak internal echoes or a fluid-fluid level if clots or debris are not present

c)

Unusual distribution, matting, or clumping of bowel loops

d)

Thickening of interfaces between the fluid and neighboring structures

121.

what are the factors that contribute to the formation of hepatorenal fluid collections?

a)

Generalized ascites

b)

Inflammatory fluid from acute cholecystitis

c)

Fluid resulting from pancreatic autolysis

d)

Blood from a ruptured hepatic neoplasm or ectopic gestation

e)

all the above

122.

which of the following statements defines an Abscess?

a)

collections of fluid within the liver that mimic loculated subphrenic fluid

b)

a cavity formed by necrosis within a solid tissue or a circumscribed collection of purulent material

c)

extrahepatic loculated collections of bile

d)

Encapsulated collection of urine

123.

CHECK ALL THAT APPLY:

what are the differential diagnoses for a lesser-sac abscess?

a)

pseudocyst

b)

pancreatic abscess

c)

gastric outlet obstruction

d)

fluid-filled stomach

124.

CHECK ALL THAT APPLY:

types of kidney abscesses

a)

Renal carbuncle

b)

Perinephric abscess

c)

Biloma Abscess

d)

Subphrenic Abscess

125.

Benign solid tumors are more often found in the (a)   near the bowel.

126.

origins of abdominal cysts include:

a)

Embryologic

b)

Traumatic or acquired

c)

Neoplastic

d)

Infective and degenerative origins

127.

what statement best defines a urinoma?

a)

Collection of blood between the bladder and lower-uterine segment, resulting from a lower-uterine transverse cesarean section and bleeding from the uterine vessels

b)

Collection of fluid that occurs after surgery in the pelvis, retroperitoneum, or recess cavities

c)

extrahepatic loculated collections of bile

d)

Encapsulated collection of urine

128.

TRUE or FALSE

Symmetry of the rectus sheath muscles is a key factor in determining whether an abdominal wall mass is present

a)

True

b)

False

129.

what is the cause of a Subfascial Hematoma?

a)

a disruption of the inferior epigastric vessels or their branches during a cesarean section

b)

displacement of organs

c)

accumulation of fluid

d)

hypertension

130.

inflammatory lesion masses generally are very _____ and easy to locate and needle aspirate with ultrasound guidance?

a)

superficial

b)

deep

131.

a benign fibrous neoplasm of aponeurotic structures is known as a?

(a)  

132.

TRUE or FALSE

the following statements defines an abdominal hernia

"Protrusion of a peritoneal-lined sac through a defect in the weakened abdominal wall"

a)

True

b)

False

133.

CHECK ALL THAT APPLY:

what are the most common areas of weakness for an abdominal hernia?

a)

femoral and inguinal rings

b)

peritoneal cavity

c)

abdominal wall

d)

umbilical areas

134.

which of the following is a sonographic finding of an urachal cyst?

a)

Many appear predominantly fluid-filled with irregular borders; they can also be complex with debris floating within the cystic mass, or they may show a more solid pattern

b)

Loculated ascites tends to be more irregular in outline, show less mass effect, and may change shape slightly with positional variations

c)

Cystic mass is found between the umbilicus and the bladder; the mass may be small or giant, multiseptated, and extend into the upper abdomen

d)

Sharp margins

135.

Sonographic findings for abscess collections include all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

Texture varies, depending on the length of time the abscess has been forming and the space available for the abscess to localize.

b)

Many appear predominantly fluid-filled with irregular borders; they can also be complex with debris floating within the cystic mass, or they may show a more solid pattern.

c)

If the collection is in pelvis, careful analysis of bowel patterns and peristalsis should be made in an attempt to separate the bowel from the abscess collection.

d)

Generally, they appear as a densely echogenic mass with or without acoustic shadowing and otherwise increased through-transmission

136.

The accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity is known as ?

a)

Hepatorenal Recess

b)

ascities

c)

Abscess

d)

Peritonitis

137.

what does the amount of intraperitoneal fluid depend on?

(a)  

138.

CHECK ALL THAT APPLY:

If an abscess is suspected the sonographer should evaluate which of the following areas:

a)

Subdiaphragmatic area (liver and spleen)

b)

Morison’s pouch

c)

Greater omentum

d)

Splenorenal Ligament

139.

TRUE OR FALSE:

Subfascial Hematoma's develop from cellular implantation across the peritoneal cavity

a)

True

b)

False

140.

which of the following statements is a true sonographic appearance for desmoid tumors

a)

reverberation artifact

b)

irregular and ill-defined walls

c)

echogenic to hyerechoic

d)

Peritoneal lining not seen as a distinct structure unless it is thickened