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[Upvantage] Pre-test - Dentistry Licensure Exam

Total questions: 104

Worksheet time: 1hrs 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the major intracellular cation?

a)

sodium

b)

potassium

c)

magnesium

d)

chromium

2.

In a mesial step relationship of the primary dentition:

a)

the distal surface of the lower E is ahead of the distal surface of the upper E

b)

the distal surface of the lower E is found behind the distal surface of the upper E

c)

the mesial surface of the upper E is ahead of the distal surface of the lower E

d)

none of the above

3.

What is a small blister-like elevation of the skin or mucous membranes due to intraepithelial collection of fluid?

a)

papule

b)

nodule

c)

vesicle

d)

bulla

4.

A stainless steel crown should normally extend below the gingival crest approximately __ mm.

a)

1.0 mm

b)

1.5 mm

c)

2.0 mm

d)

2.5 mm

5.

Bitewing radiographs are a useful diagnostic tool for the detection of

a)

class I carious lesions

b)

proximal surface caries

c)

caries on the facial surface

d)

caries on the lingual surface

e)

all of the above

6.

Pepsinogen is found in the cells of the

a)

colon

b)

pancreas

c)

stomach

d)

duodenum

7.

The maxillary sinus opens into which of the following

a)

superior meatus

b)

middle meatus

c)

inferior meatus

d)

sphenoethmoidal recess

8.

The spinal accessory nerve exits from the cranial cavity through which of the following foramen?

a)

foramen magnum

b)

jugular foramen

c)

foramen rotundum

d)

foramen ovale

9.

What is the most abundant inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system?

a)

Glutamate

b)

GABA

c)

Glycine

d)

Acetylcholine

10.

Glucose, fructose, and galactose are classified as what?

a)

monosaccharides

b)

disaccharides

c)

oligosaccharides

d)

polysaccharides

11.

The coronary sinus receives most of the blood from the heart and empties into the:

a)

right ventricle

b)

left ventricle

c)

right atrium

d)

left atrium

12.

The trigeminal nerve arises from which ganglion?

a)

Gasserian ganglion

b)

Sphenopalatine ganglion

c)

Semilunar ganglion

d)

None of the above

13.

The tooth with the shallowest central fossa:

a)

Maxillary third molar

b)

Mandibular first molar

c)

Mandibular third molar

d)

Mandibular first premolar

14.

The only permanent tooth in the cuspid and premolar class that has the mesial slope of the buccal cusp longer than the distal slope.

a)

Maxillary cuspid

b)

Mandibular first premolar

c)

Maxillary first premolar

d)

Mandibular cuspid

15.

The anterolateral portion of the hard palate is called the

a)

fatty zone

b)

palatal zone

c)

glandular zone

d)

biologic zone

16.

In an ideal occlusion, buccal cusps of maxillary teeth occlude with what?

a)

grooves only

b)

marginal ridges only

c)

grooves and embrasures

d)

marginal ridges and embrasure

17.

Which of these distinct cross bands demarcate each sarcomere?

a)

A bands

b)

I bands

c)

Z lines

d)

M lines

18.

Cementum is the closes in composition to which of the following?

a)

Bone

b)

Enamel

c)

Dentin

d)

Pulp

19.

Which leukocyte is the predominant cell type in pus and is known as the hallmark of acute inflammation because of its fast immune response?

a)

basophil

b)

eosinophil

c)

neutrophil

d)

monocyte

20.

Metaplasia means

a)

increase in the number of cells

b)

increase in the size of cells

c)

transference of an adult form to a primitive form

d)

transference from one adult cell type to another adult cell type

21.

All of the following are seen in congenital syphilis except:

a)

perioral rhagades

b)

Hutchinson’s incisors

c)

8th nerve deafness

d)

locomotor ataxia

22.

Diapedesis is related to

a)

clotting

b)

pavementing

c)

neutrophil migration

d)

sickle cell anemia

23.

A boy, 22-months old, has been receiving radiation therapy for a neoplasm in the palate. Which of the following dental anomalies may occur as a result of the radiation therapy?

a)

microdontia

b)

dens in dente

c)

gemination

d)

mesiodens

24.

Ameloblastoma is found most often in the:

a)

hard palate

b)

soft palate

c)

anterior maxilla

d)

mandibular molar region

25.

The most common cause of mucocele

a)

sialolithiasis

b)

viral sialadenitis

c)

bacterial sialadenitis

d)

trauma

26.

A virus which persists in the oral tissues throughout the life of most individuals is

a)

Rubella virus

b)

Varicella virus

c)

Herpes zoster virus

d)

Herpes simplex virus

27.

Rubeola, pertussis, poliomyelitis, and mumps have in common the fact that all are

a)

Air-borne diseases

b)

Vector-borne diseases

c)

Characterized by a toxemia

d)

Primarily diseases of infants

e)

Prevented by active immunization

28.

Negri bodies are histologic structures characteristically found in

a)

Rabies

b)

Herpes zoster

c)

Rheumatic fever

d)

Herpes simplex

e)

Infectious mononucleosis

29.

Proximal caries typically progresses in a pattern characterized by a double cone of pyramid as it extends through the enamel and into the dentin. The apices of each cone are

a)

directed toward the pulp

b)

pointing in opposite directions

c)

touching each other at the dentoenamel junction

d)

directed toward the enamel surface

30.

The one constant contraindication for a composite restoration is _____.

a)

Occlusal factors

b)

Inability to isolate the operating area

c)

Extension onto the root surface

d)

Class I restoration with a high C-factor

31.

Pain following the placement of an amalgam restoration is most frequently related to

a)

heat

b)

cold

c)

occlusal pressure

d)

galvanic shock

32.

The generally accepted maximum thickness of a composite increment that allows for proper cure is ____.

a)

1 to 2 mm

b)

2 to 4 mm

c)

4 to 6 mm

d)

There is no maximum thickness restriction.

33.

The conduct of taking the medical history of a patient in a private practice is congruent to this process in public health

a)

Community survey

b)

Program plan

c)

Situational analysis

d)

Research

34.

Intervention in the disease process at a stage before the lesion occurs

a)

Primary prevention

b)

Secondary prevention

c)

Tertiary prevention

d)

Preventive dentistry

35.

Which of the following best describes an epidemic disease?

a)

A disease of significantly greater prevalence than normal

b)

Normal disease prevalence

c)

A disease occurring over a wide geographic area affecting an exceptional high proportion of the population

d)

A disease with insignificant prevalence

36.

Risk behaviors that can be modified for improved oral health include the following except

a)

Diet

b)

Oral hygiene

c)

Smoking

d)

Salivary production

37.

The process of enabling people to increase control over and to improve their health

a)

Situational Analysis

b)

Health Promotion

c)

Return Demonstration

d)

Integration

38.

Which of the following is the most probable cause of continuous sensitivity of an abutment tooth to heat, cold and pressure?

a)

impingement of gingival tissue

b)

occlusal trauma

c)

improper cementation technique

d)

failure to treat endodontically

39.

The greatest potential for wear exist between which of the following?

a)

tooth and gold

b)

porcelain and porcelain

c)

tooth and tooth

d)

tooth and porcelain

40.

A mandibular lingual bar major connector requires a minimum of ___ of vertical height between the gingival margin and the floor of the mouth.

a)

3mm

b)

5mm

c)

7mm

d)

9mm

41.

Centric occlusion is an example of a/an:

a)

tooth-to-tooth relation

b)

occlusal relation

c)

bone-to-bone relation

d)

balanced relation

42.

The walls of a full crown preparation should have

a)

a 2 °-5 ° convergence towards the occlusal

b)

an 8°-10° convergence towards the occlusal

c)

a 5°-8° divergence towards the occlusal

d)

walls parallel to each other

43.

How much labial tooth reduction is needed for a porcelain-fused-to-metal crown?

a)

0.25 – 0.5 mm

b)

0.5 – 1.0 mm

c)

1.0 – 1.5 mm

d)

1.5 – 1.75 mm

e)

1.75 – 2.0 mm

44.

The technique for making cast restorations is referred to as the

a)

lost wax technique

b)

molten gold technique

c)

inlay investment technique

d)

G.V. Black technique

e)

centrifugal casting technique

45.

Posterior teeth which are set edge to edge will most probably result into what?

a)

gagging

b)

cheek biting

c)

reduced taste

d)

speech aberrations

46.

Which is the minimal acceptable crown:root ratio?

a)

1:1

b)

1:2

c)

2:3

d)

1:3

47.

Which of the following describes a material with high compressive strength but low tensile strength?

a)

tough

b)

resilient

c)

ductile

d)

brittle

48.

What is the major composition of an inlay pattern wax?

a)

ceresin

b)

carnauba

c)

beeswax

d)

paraffin

49.

Glass ionomer as a restorative material is best suited or:

a)

Class IV restoration

b)

Class V restoration

c)

Class II restoration

d)

All of the above

50.

In an adult patient, the size of the film to use for lower premolar projection is:

a)

size #0

b)

#3

c)

#2

d)

#4

51.

Of the following, the shorter wavelength is given off by:

a)

radar

b)

visible light

c)

radiowaves

d)

electric wave

52.

While taking the radiograph, you did not place the center beam on the film in the patient’s mouth. What will show on the resulting film?

a)

elongation

b)

collimator cut off

c)

overlapping

d)

foreshortening

53.

Right-angle view refers to:

a)

three dimensional technique view

b)

panoramic view

c)

bisecting angle technique view

d)

paralleling angle technique view

54.

The Caldwell-Luc procedure is an approach to what?

a)

masticator space

b)

maxillary sinus

c)

ethmoid sinus

d)

submandibular space

55.

Which of the following is a mandibular forceps?

a)

69

b)

240

c)

18L

d)

151

56.

Which of the following best describes a closed fracture?

a)

lack of bone displacement

b)

intact periosteum

c)

lack of communication between the fracture site and an external surface

d)

overlap of fractural bone edges

57.

In mandibular third molar impactions, which is he LEAST difficult to remove?

a)

vertical impaction

b)

horizontal impaction

c)

distoangular impaction

d)

mesioangular impaction

58.

What type of palpation is usually done on the lips?

a)

bidigital

b)

bimanual

c)

bilateral

d)

percussion

59.

One or more significant unique signs or symptoms that distinguish one disease from another are referred to as

a)

pathogenesis

b)

pathognomonic

c)

prognosis

d)

objective signs or symptoms

60.

What is a small blister-like elevation of the skin or mucous membranes due to intraepithelial collection of fluid?

a)

papule

b)

nodule

c)

vesicle

d)

bulla

61.

Angular cheilosis may be the result of infection, loss of vertical dimension, hypovitaminosis B3, or iron deficiency anemia. When it is the result of infection, the biologic agent most often responsible is?

a)

actinomyces bovis

b)

a group A coxsackievirus

c)

candida albicans

d)

viridans streptococcus

62.

Which of the following is more selective for inhibition of COX-2 than of COX-1?

a)

aspirin

b)

celecoxib

c)

fentamates

d)

etodolac

63.

In prescription writing, b.i.d. is the abbreviation for what?

a)

twice a day

b)

thrice a day

c)

every other day

d)

every 4 hours

64.

Drug that does not cause sedation but effective in controlling epilepsy?

a)

Valproic acid

b)

Phenytoin

c)

Carbamazepine

d)

Clomezepan

65.

What is the generic name of Ponstan 250?

a)

Mefenamic acid

b)

Ibuprofen

c)

Paracetamol

d)

Chlorphenamine maleate

66.

Most common route for drug elimination:

a)

liver

b)

kidney

c)

lungs

d)

heart

67.

Which of the following is not an NSAID?

a)

Aspirin

b)

Acetaminophen

c)

Mefenamic Acid

d)

Ibuprofen

68.

Epinephrine is added to local anesthetics because of their:

a)

ability to increase the potency of local anesthetics

b)

ability to decrease the pain caused by injection of local anesthetics

c)

ability to decrease the possibility of an allergic reaction to local anesthetics

d)

vasoconstrictive property

69.

The efficiency of local anesthesia is increased in the maxilla because?

a)

no muscle attachment

b)

porous bone

c)

small nerves present

d)

large apical foramina

70.

Refers to loss of sensation of pain, temperature, pressure, motor function over a specific area without a loss of consciousness:

a)

regional analgesia

b)

regional anesthesia

c)

field block

d)

analgesia

71.

Commercially available anesthetics are usually:

a)

acidic

b)

basic

c)

neutral

d)

hypotonic

72.

The most commonly used amide local anesthetic is:

a)

prilocaine

b)

bupivacaine

c)

lidocaine

d)

etidocaine

73.

Which is considered to be the basic fear of most children under 2 years of age?

a)

separation from the parent

b)

injection of local anesthesia

c)

the instruments to be used

d)

the dental treatment to be done

74.

Which is considered to be the most important dental arch dimension?

a)

arch length

b)

arch perimeter

c)

intercanine dimension

d)

bi-molar width

75.

Which of the following is a contraindication for pulpotomy?

a)

vital primary tooth with caries

b)

no swelling

c)

no pathologic radiolucencies

d)

history of spontaneous pain

76.

A stainless steel crown should normally extend below the gingival crest approximately __ mm.

a)

1.0 mm

b)

1.5 mm

c)

2.0 mm

d)

2.5 mm

77.

In local anesthesia administration, what is the usual location of the mandibular foramen in children below 6 years old?

a)

above the plane of occlusion

b)

about even with the plane of occlusion

c)

below the plane of occlusion

d)

any of the choices above

78.

What is usually a reflection of the antero-posterior dental relationship?

a)

axial inclination

b)

overbite

c)

overjet

d)

all of the above

79.

A large SNB value in a cephalometric (Steiner’s) analysis is indicative of a

a)

normal skeletal proportion

b)

Class II skeletal proportion

c)

Class III skeletal proportion

80.

The most favorable sequence of eruption of the primary teeth is

a)

ABCDE

b)

ABDCE

c)

ADBCE

d)

ACBDE

81.

Gonion, menton, pogonion are cephalometric landmarks located in what bone

a)

mandible

b)

cranial vault

c)

maxilla

d)

cranial base

82.

Among the choices below, which is considered to be the best space maintainer?

a)

Band and loop

b)

Lingual holding arch

c)

Space saddle appliance

d)

Primary first molar

83.

Vinculum, oblige, obligor, and object are elements of a

a)

creditor

b)

obligation

c)

debtor

d)

contract

84.

The Board of Dentistry has the power to suspend or revoke the validity if the certificate of registration due to unprofessional or unethical conduct or due to malpractice. This exercise of power of the Board shall be appealable to the:

a)

Chairman of the Board of Dentistry

b)

PDA President

c)

PRC Chairman

d)

President of the Philippines

85.

A violation of the regulatory code is by:

a)

Newspaper announcement when opening a new clinic

b)

Bold letter advertising in the telephone directory

c)

Display of school diploma and diplomas issued by a specialty council

d)

Use of title in calling cards such as DDM or DDS

86.

Labor code that states that regular working hours for dental employees per week

a)

50

b)

40

c)

48

d)

35

87.

First Philippine Dental Law

a)

RA 593

b)

RA 3680

c)

RA 2205

d)

RA 3538

88.

In case the treatment by a dentist of a specific case fails, he can still be paid if the degree of failure was

a)

not shared with the patient

b)

unrecognized

c)

not accepted by the patients

d)

accepted by the patients

89.

During that course of the treatment of a patient, the dentist accidentall injures the patient. If the dentist is prosecuted, he needs to present evidence that:

a)

The act was performed with due care

b)

He had no intention to cause the physical injury

c)

The act was lawful

d)

He is not a registered dentist.

90.

The primary goal of a professional is:

a)

personal satisfaction

b)

service

c)

economic gain

d)

professional statue

91.

An express fee is

a)

A state fee is agreed upon by both parties ether in writing or orally

b)

not discussed by the parties

c)

a verbal agreement

d)

a written agreement

92.

This does not represent an example of a malpractice act:

a)

authorized extraction

b)

negligent after care

c)

des-cut tongue

d)

nerve injury

93.

An 8-year old girl presents to the office with an Ellis class II fracture. In an effort to determine a pulpal diagnosis, which of the following tests is the least accurate?

a)

Percussion

b)

Palpation

c)

Electrical pulp test

d)

Cold test

94.

Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis pain in which of the following sites is most likely to radiate to the ear?

a)

maxillary premolar

b)

maxillary molar

c)

mandibular molar

d)

mandibular premolar

95.

Which of the following are used primarily to enlarge the root canal orifices and remove the cervical or lingual bulge usually seen on anterior teeth?

a)

Highspeed burs

b)

Endodontic excavator

c)

Gates glidden drills

d)

Endodontic explorer

96.

Which is the earliest and most common symptom associated with an inflamed pulp?

a)

Dull pain during mastication

b)

Pain upon percussion

c)

Sensitivity to any thermal stimuli

d)

Tooth mobility

97.

How are endodontic files sterilized?

a)

Dry heat sterilization for 1 ½ hours

b)

Autoclave for 20 minutes

c)

Immerse for 1 minute in full strength NaOCl

d)

Glass bead sterilization for 15 seconds

98.

For a patient affected with gingivitis, what is the recommended interval for maintenance appointments?

a)

1 month

b)

3 months

c)

6 months

d)

1 year

99.

What is the principle connective tissue cell present in the periodontal ligament?

a)

Cementoblasts

b)

Fibroblasts

c)

Osteoblasts

d)

all of the above

100.

Appear almost immediately after the cleaning of a tooth, the film of salivary origin which coats the surface is called:

a)

plaque

b)

materia alba

c)

pellicle

d)

levans

101.

Clinical examination reveals a probing pocket depth of 5mm on the mid-buccal of tooth #46. The free gingival margin is 2mm apical to the CEJ. How much attachment loss has occurred on the mid-buccal of this tooth?

a)

2mm

b)

5mm

c)

7mm

d)

8mm

102.

Bleeding on probing indicates

a)

gingival fibrosis

b)

crestal bone loss

c)

food impaction

d)

ulceration of sulcular epithelium

103.

Which of the following is the most important preventive and therapeutic procedure in periodontal therapy?

a)

Professional instrumentation

b)

Subgingival irrigation with chlorhexidine

c)

Patient-administered plaque control

d)

Surgical intervention

104.

For an edentulous maxilla with a fixed prosthesis as final restoration, what is the minimum number of implants to be placed?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6