wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

AP Enviromental Science Baseline

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 5hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Unit 4.Which type of soil is rich in organic matter?

a)

Clay

b)

Humus

c)

Loam

d)

Sand

e)

Silt

2.

Unit 4. Which type of soil has the highest water-holding capacity?

a)

Clay

b)

Humus

c)

Loam

d)

Sand

e)

Silt

3.

Unit 4. Which type of soil contains the largest pores?

a)

Clay

b)

Humus

c)

Loam

d)

Sand

e)

Silt

4.

Unit 4. Which type of soil is found in the O horizon of soil?

a)

Clay

b)

Humus

c)

Loam

d)

Sand

e)

Silt

5.

Unit 4. Which type of soil is composed of the finest particles?

a)

Clay

b)

Humus

c)

Loam

d)

Sand

e)

Silt

6.

Unit 5. Which of the following federally owned lands are reserved for recreation and fishing, but not for commercial use?

a)

National forests

b)

Natural Resource Lands

c)

National Wildfire Refuges

d)

National Parks

e)

National Wilderness Preservation Areas

7.

Unit 5. Which of the following federally owned lands can be logged and fished?

a)

National forests

b)

Natural Resource Lands

c)

National Wildfire Refuges

d)

National parks

e)

National Wilderness Preservation Areas

8.

Unit 5. Which federally owned lands can provide domestic energy and mineral supply?

a)

National forests

b)

Natural Resource Lands

c)

National Wildfire Refuges

d)

National parks

e)

National Wilderness Preservation Areas

9.

Unit 5. Which of the following federally owned lands ban the use of motor vehicles from these hunting and fishing areas?

a)

National forests

b)

Natural Resources Lands

c)

National Wildlife Refuges

d)

National parks

e)

National Wilderness Preservation Areas

10.

Unit 5. Which of the following habitats provide protected breeding areas for many animals?

a)

National forests

b)

Natural Resource Lands

c)

National Wildlife Refuges

d)

National parks

e)

National Wilderness Preservation Areas

11.

Unit 5. Which of the following environmental disasters involves the death of thousands of people from inhaling pesticides when the chemical plant exploded?

a)

Chernobyl, Ukraine

b)

Love Canal. New York

c)

Bhopal, India

d)

London, England

e)

Chesapeake Bay, Maryland

12.

Unit 8. Which of the following environmental disasters caused leukemia in local children from the chemicals leaking out of a dump?

a)

Chernobyl, Ukraine

b)

Love Canal, New York

c)

Bhopal, India

d)

London, England

e)

Chesapeake Bay, Maryland

13.

Unit 6. Which of the following environmental disasters caused the death of many people of respiratory illnesses from the smog so thick produced by burning of coal?

a)

Chernobyl, Ukraine

b)

Love Canal, New York

c)

Bhopal, India

d)

London, England

e)

Chesapeake Bay, Maryland

14.

Unit 8. This estuary is eutrophied, and many plants and animals species are now unable to live there?

a)

Chernobyl, Ukraine

b)

Love Canal, New York

c)

Bhopal, India

d)

London, England

e)

Chesapeake Bay, Maryland

15.

Unit 6. Which of the following explosion in a nuclear reactor spread radioactive materials over thousands of hectares in this region?

a)

Chernobyl, Ukraine

b)

Love Canal, New York

c)

Bhopal, India

d)

London, England

e)

Chesapeake Bay, Maryland

16.

Unit 8. Which method can produce leachate?

a)

Landfill

b)

Incineration

c)

Chemical treatment

d)

Biological treatment

e)

Discharge into sewers and rivers

17.

Unit 9. Which method can reduce the acidity of a solution?

a)

Landfill

b)

Incineration

c)

Chemical treatment

d)

Biological treatment

e)

Discharge into sewers and rivers

18.

Unit 7. Which method can release toxic gases?

a)

Landfill

b)

Incineration

c)

Chemical treatment

d)

Biological treatment

e)

Discharge into sewers and rivers

19.

Unit 8. Which method can cause high biological oxygen demand (BOD)?

a)

Landfill

b)

Incineration

c)

Chemical treatment

d)

Biological treatment

e)

Discharge into sewers and rivers

20.

Unit 8. Which method involves the use of bacteria and fungi?

a)

Landfill

b)

Incineration

c)

Chemical treatment

d)

Biological treatment

e)

Discharge into sewers and rivers

21.

Unit 6. Which type of renewable energy can harm migratory birds?

a)

Solar energy

b)

Hydro fuel cells

c)

Tidal energy

d)

Geothermal Energy

e)

Wind energy

22.

Unit 6. Which renewable energy produces water and electricity?

a)

Solar energy

b)

Hydrogen fuel cells

c)

Tidal energy

d)

Geothermal energy

e)

Wind energy

23.

Unit 6. Which renewable energy source relies on water flowing in and out of bays?

a)

Solar energy

b)

Hydrogen fuel cells

c)

Tidal energy

d)

Geothermal energy

e)

Wind energy

24.

Unit 6. Which renewable source converts radiant energy into heat or electricity?

a)

Solar energy

b)

Hydrogen fuel cells

c)

Tidal energy

d)

Geothermal energy

e)

Wind energy

25.

Unit 6. Which renewable energy source utilizes heat or steam from deep underground?

a)

Solar energy

b)

Hydrogen fuel cells

c)

Tidal energy

d)

Geothermal energy

e)

Wind energy

26.

Unit 7. Which air pollution is a gas that originates from the combustion of coal?

a)

O3

b)

SO2

c)

Pollen

d)

Soot

e)

Hydrocarbons

27.

Unit 7. Which of the following is produced by plants and can cause allergic reaction?

a)

O3

b)

SO2

c)

Pollen

d)

Soot

e)

Hydrocarbons

28.

Unit 9. Which of the following can be destroyed by CFCs?

a)

O3

b)

SO2

c)

Pollen

d)

Soot

e)

Hydrocarbons

29.

Unit 8. Which of the following comes from spilled gasoline?

a)

O3

b)

SO2

c)

Pollen

d)

Soot

e)

Hydrocarbons

30.

Unit 7. Small particles of which of the following can cause irritation to both eyes and lungs?

a)

O3

b)

SO2

c)

Pollen

d)

Soot

e)

Hydrocarbons

31.

Unit 7. Exposure to which of the following noises would cause the most damage to a person's hearing?

a)

A vacuum cleaner

b)

A chain saw

c)

A factory

d)

The firing of a rifle

e)

A lawn mower

32.

Unit 3. The phrase that best defines population density is

a)

the number of individuals in a certain geographic area

b)

the rate of which a population increases

c)

the maximum number of individuals that a habitat can sustain

d)

the time it takes for a population to increase to carrying capacity

e)

one way that populations can be grouped in a certain geographic area

33.

Unit 6. The graph represents possible depletion curves of a nonrenewable resource. Curve C best describes the resource as it?

a)

has just been discovered and no technology exists to use the resource

b)

is quickly used up and is not recycled

c)

is newly discovered and in high demand

d)

has expanding reserves and consumption is reduced

e)

has some recycling and no reserves are being discovered

34.

Unit 5. The shrinking of the Aral Sea and the ecological disaster that followed was mainly caused by..

a)

the diversion of the sea's two feeder rivers for agricultural use

b)

withdrawing groundwater from the area

c)

a major earthquake that hit the region

d)

the loss of swamplands in the area

e)

the massive use of pesticides

35.

Unit 5. Which of the following is a negative impact of overfishing a particular species of edible fish?

I. Loss of so many fish that there is no longer a breeding stock

II. The removal of non-target species

III. The reduction of other species that rely on the edible species as food

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II only

d)

II and III only

e)

I, II, and III

36.

Unit 5. Which type of irrigation results in the greatest amount of water lost to evaporation?

I. Flood irrigation

II. Drip irrigation

III. Low-pressure central pivot irrigation

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and III only

e)

II and III only

37.

Unit 3. The population is growing at its highest rate at which letter?

a)

A

b)

K

c)

D

d)

B

e)

C

38.

Unit 3. Which of the following phrases best describes line K in the graph?

a)

The rate of population growth

b)

The carrying capacity of the environment

c)

The time it takes for the population to double in size

d)

The number of individuals in the population at the beginning of the study

e)

The birth rate of the population

39.

Unit 3. The best label for the axis labeled 2 in the graph above is

a)

Time

b)

population number

c)

logistic growth rate

d)

environmental resistance

e)

birth rate

40.

Unit 3. Which of the following statements is true concerning the events occurring at point D in the graph above?

a)

Environmental resistance is high

b)

Environmental resistance is low

c)

The population will continue to fall

d)

The prey population will soon rise

e)

The population is above its carrying capacity

41.

Unit 1. The long-term storage of phosphorus and sulfur is in which of the following forms?

a)

Bacteria

b)

Rocks

c)

Water

d)

Plants

e)

Atmosphere

42.

Unit 4. The movement of sections of the Earth's lithosphere is known as

a)

mass depletion

b)

plate tectonics

c)

background extinction

d)

migration

e)

emigration

43.

Unit 5. Which of the following best defines the Green Revolution?

a)

An international effort to stop the construction of nuclear power plants

b)

A group whose goal is to improve how nations affect the environment

c)

Increasing the yield of farmland by using more fertilizer, better irrigation, and faster growing crops

d)

A method of getting more people to recycle paper and cardboard

e)

A method that makes a viable soil conditioner by using household waste

44.

Unit 3. Which of the following best defines the phrase "infant mortality rate"?

a)

How many children live in each square hectare

b)

The number of births in a population

c)

The number of infant deaths per 1,000 people aged zero to one

d)

The difference between the birth rate and the death rate in a population

e)

The total number of children in a population

45.

Unit 8. The release of chemicals from underground storage tanks is most likely to pollute which of the following?

a)

A landfill

b)

The atmosphere

c)

The ecotone

d)

Aquifers

e)

The hydrosphere

46.

Unit 9. The United States Congress failed to ratify which of the following international agreements that is designed to control the release of carbon dioxide?

a)

CITES agreement

b)

Kyoto Protocol

c)

Montreal Protocol

d)

Clean Air Act

e)

RCRA

47.

Unit 6. Which of the following is the most sustainable way to ensure sufficient energy for the future?

a)

Find more fossil fuels

b)

Develop more effective solar power generators

c)

Build more nuclear reactors

d)

Reduce waste and inefficiency in electricity use and transmission

e)

Increase the amount of electricity generated using natural gas

48.

Unit 7. Which of the following best describes the goals of the CAFE standards?

a)

Reduce pollution by coal-fired power plants

b)

Increase habitat diversity in certain areas

c)

Improve the quality of air around cities

d)

Protect certain endangered species

e)

Improve the fuel efficiency of automobiles in the United States

49.

Unit 5. Which of the following best describes the use of DDT?

a)

It supplies needed nitrogen to plants

b)

It kills weeds and unwanted plants

c)

It decreases the amount of pollution from car exhaust

d)

It is a chemical involved in photosynthesis

e)

It is an insecticide

50.

Unit 2. Which of the following best explains why pesticides become ineffective over time?

a)

Pesticides do not become ineffective over time.

b)

Pests acquire resistance to the pesticide during exposure to the pesticide.

c)

Pests develop immunity to the pesticide during exposure to the pesticide.

d)

Pests resistant to the pesticide survived and passed on their resistance to the next generation.

e)

Pests acquired resistance to the pesticide and passed on their resistance to the next generation.

51.

Unit 8. For every ton of plastic recycled, 0.3 fewer tons of plastic is required to be manufactured. If 150 million tons of plastic are produced and 50 million tons of plastic are recycled each year in North America, how many tons of plastic needs to be newly manufactured each year?

a)

1.5 million tons

b)

15 million tons

c)

115 million tons

d)

135 million tons

e)

150 million tons

52.

Unit 4. All of the following statements about the degradation of soil by climate change are true EXCEPT

a)

Increased flooding in coastal areas leads to soil desalinization

b)

Increased global temperature produces more deserts

c)

Decreased precipitation produces more deserts.

d)

Increased evaporation of water leads to soil salinization

e)

Increased global temperature leads to increased loss of organic material in soil.

53.

Unit 5. According to the diagram above, cooking, showering and using toilets accounted for approximately what percent of total water use?

a)

92 percent

b)

46 percent

c)

40 percent

d)

6 percent

e)

1 percent

54.

Unit 9. One result of increased troposphere temperatures that are observed today is

a)

an increase in skin cancers in people

b)

an increase in the average global sea level of 10 to 20 cm

c)

more radon seepage into people's home

d)

a deeper permafrost in Artic regions

e)

lakes and ponds remaining frozen longer into the spring

55.

Unit 7. All of the following are major components of air pollution EXCEPT

a)

sulfur dioxide

b)

lead

c)

arsenic

d)

particulates

e)

ozone

56.

Unit 5. Which of the following is the root cause of habitat loss, especially in less developed nations?

a)

road building

b)

poverty

c)

conversion of forest to farmland

d)

capturing exotic animals for resale

e)

a warm, moist habitat

57.

Unit 3. All of the following are causes of urban sprawl EXCEPT

a)

increased number of roads

b)

higher crime rates in urban areas

c)

higher levels of air and noise pollution in cities

d)

increased oil prices

e)

decreased cost of living in suburban areas

58.

Unit 4. The motion of tectonic plates accounts for most of Earth's

a)

CO2 emissions

b)

formation of rivers

c)

change of seasons

d)

volcanic activity

e)

oil formations

59.

Unit 3. "K" and "r" are used to describe which of the following aspects of populations?

a)

The place in a habitat where these organisms live

b)

The number of males and females in the population

c)

The number of predators each population has

d)

The reproductive tactics used by populations

e)

The time it takes a population to double

60.

Unit 4. Conventional heating and cooling of the atmosphere transfers which of the following to other parts of the Earth?

I. Heat

II. Moisture

III. Nutrients

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and II only

e)

I, II, and III

61.

Unit 4. Which of the following gives the correct sequence in the rock cycle shown above?

a)

Rock A- Metamorphic / Rock B - Igneous / Rock C- Sedimentary

b)

Rock A - Sedimentary / Rock B - Metamorphic / Rock C-Igneous

c)

Rock A-Igneous / Rock B-Sedimentary / Rock C - Metamorphic

d)

Rock A - Metamorphic / Rock B - Sedimentary / Rock C - Igneous

e)

Rock A - Sedimentary / Rock B - Igneous / Rock C - Metamorphic

62.

Unit 4. Which of the following rock types would contain the greatest number of fossils?

a)

Igneous rock only

b)

Metamorphic rock only

c)

Sedimentary rock only

d)

Igneous and metamorphic rock

e)

Sedimentary and igneous rock

63.

Unit 4. The North Atlantic Current provides which of the following for Europe and North America?

a)

Fish to feed predators such as killer whales

b)

Warm water that moderate land temperatures

c)

Large amounts of CO2 to promote photosynthesis

d)

Cold saltwater to help from icebergs

e)

Mineral-rich water to reduce depleted mineral reserve

64.

Unit 7. Which of the following indoor air pollutants is composed of microscopic mineral fibers that can produce lung cancer in humans?

a)

Nitrogen oxides

b)

Carbon monoxide

c)

Asbestos

d)

Radon

e)

Formaldehyde

65.

Unit 1. Which of the following is an example of commensalism?

a)

Cheetahs and antelope

b)

Mycorrhizae and plant roots

c)

Humans and tapeworms

d)

Hawks and mice

e)

Barnacles and whales

66.

Unit 9. Which two countries together are responsible for 40% of global greenhouse gas emissions?

a)

United States and Great Britain

b)

United States and China

c)

China and India

d)

Great Britain and Russia

e)

Russia and Australia

67.

Unit 6. Nuclear reactors use which of the following to absorb neutrons in the reactor core?

a)

Steam condenser

b)

Control rods

c)

Heat exchanger

d)

Fuel rods

e)

Turbines

68.

Unit 5. Riparian areas are vital to the preservation of high-quality

a)

mountain slopes

b)

grazing land

c)

feedlots

d)

rivers and streams

e)

ocean beaches

69.

Unit 5. Which of the following fishing techniques is most damaging to ocean bottom ecosystems?

a)

Trawling

b)

Drift nets

c)

Long lines

d)

Purse-seine

e)

Fish farming

70.

Unit 9. Which of the following treaties is responsible for lower levels of CFC production world wide?

a)

Montreal Protocol

b)

Kyoto Protocol

c)

Clean Air Act

d)

The Rio Earth Summit of 1972

e)

Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation of Liability Act

71.

Unit 8. DDT is an insecticide sprayed to control insects. Years after is was introduced, DDT was found in large predatory birds, such as the osprey. Which of the following processes caused the DDT to be found in the osprey?

I. Biomagnification

II. Bioremediation

III. Bioaccumulation

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and III only

e)

I, II, and III

72.

Unit 6. Doing which of the following could most effectively reduce acid rain and acid deposition?

a)

Reducing the use and waste of electricity

b)

Making taller smokestacks

c)

Burning coal twice

d)

Adding lime to acidified lakes

e)

Moving power plants to desert areas

73.

Unit 6. Which of the following forms of radiation is most harmful to humans?

a)

Alpha

b)

Gamma

c)

Beta

d)

Infrared

e)

Radon

74.

Unit 1. Which of the following ecosystems does NOT use solar energy as its ultimate energy source?

a)

Pond

b)

Deep-sea hydrothermal vent

c)

Rain forest

d)

Tundra

e)

Coniferous Forest

75.

Unit 7. All of the following are true about CO2 sequestering EXCEPT

a)

It can be accomplished by pumping CO2 into carbonated beverages

b)

It can be accomplished by pumping CO2 into crop lands

c)

It can be accomplished by pumping CO2 deep under the ocean floor

d)

It can be accomplished by pumping CO2 deep underground into dried-up oil wells

e)

It can be accomplished by pumping CO2 into immature forests

76.

Unit 9. Which of the following is NOT true concerning invasive species?

a)

They can outcompete native species in a habitat.

b)

They can reproduce more rapidly than native species.

c)

They are highly specialized and have narrow niches.

d)

They alter the biodiversity of the area they are invading.

e)

They are introduced into a habitat and are not native.

77.

Unit 1. The Second Law of Thermodynamics is best described by which of the following?

a)

The amount of solar radiation going into an ecosystem is equal to the total amount of energy going out of that system.

b)

The amount of carbon in the atmosphere has increased due to the combustion of fossil fuels

c)

As electricity is transmitted through wires, some of the power is lost to the environment as heat.

d)

Wind-generated electricity has more power than electricity generated at a hydropower plant.

e)

The amount of electricity used to light a light bulb is less than the amount of light that the bulb produces.

78.

Unit 5. Salinization of soil can be caused by all of the following EXCEPT

a)

flooding in coastal areas

b)

rising temperatures

c)

excessive irrigation

d)

drip irrigation

e)

lack of precipitation

79.

Unit 3. Which of the following is true about early-loss populations, such as fish?

a)

The chances of an adult dying are about the same as a child dying.

b)

The maturation process is slow.

c)

The populations are close to the carrying capacity.

d)

They are specialists.

e)

Many individuals die at an early age.

80.

Unit 2. A farmer stops farming a certain tract of land, and small bushes soon grow there. The land then progresses to the deciduous tree stage. This process is known as

a)

pioneer succession

b)

wetland succession

c)

secondary succession

d)

primary succession

e)

regressive succession

81.

Unit 2. According to the diagram, low species diversity and small-sized plants are characteristic of which stage of succession?

I. Late stage succession

II. Midstage succession

III. Early stage succession

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and III only

e)

I, II, and III

82.

Unit 5. In this method of land preservation, countries promise they will preserve important habitats in return for the forgiveness of loans to other countries.

a)

Ecotourism

b)

Establishment of biological reserves

c)

Small-scale sustainable farming

d)

Debt for nature swaps

e)

Phase-out economic practices such as farm subsidies

83.

Unit 9. Ozone depletion is occurring most rapidly in the Earth's polar regions because

a)

there are more researchers studying the problem at the poles than at the equator.

b)

the atmosphere is thicker at the poles, so ozone destruction is easier to observe

c)

large amounts of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) can accumulate on ice crystals formed in the cold atmosphere

d)

the upper atmosphere winds form a pattern of high- and low- pressure systems that can cause the destruction of ozone

e)

the solar UV radiation is stronger at the poles, promoting the breakdown of ozone

84.

Unit 2. Smaller forest fires are beneficial to forests for all of the following reasons EXCEPT

a)

removal of competing plants

b)

combustion of dried leaves or needles, which reduces the threat of large fires

c)

burning the crowns of trees

d)

germinating seeds of certain plant species

e)

making burned matter available as a nutrient

85.

Unit 6. What are the negative impacts of dams on ecosystems?

I. Loss of silt in the river downstream from the damn

II. Generation of low pollution electricity

III. Loss of terrestrial biodiversity in areas surrounding the dam

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

III only

d)

I and III only

e)

I, II, and III

86.

Unit 2. Which of the following best illustrates the process of evolution?

a)

A parasite population becomes resistant to a drug

b)

Rabbits can have brown fur in the summer and white fur in winter

c)

Frogs burrow deep into the mud during winter

d)

A baby is born and has a different color hair than its parents

e)

A squid changes color to hide from predators

87.

Unit 6. Which of the following is a renewable energy source?

a)

Crude oil

b)

Coal

c)

Natural gas

d)

Nuclear energy

e)

Hydrogen cells

88.

Unit 9. The energy necessary to produce stratospheric ozone comes from which of the following?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Sunlight

c)

Radioactive decay

d)

Magma

e)

Wind

89.

Unit 9. Which of the following chemicals can cause lung irritation in the troposphere but is very helpful to humans in the stratosphere?

a)

O2

b)

O3

c)

Chlorofluorocarbons

d)

H2SO4

e)

DDT

90.

Unit 7. Which of the following best describes the differences between primary pollutant and a secondary pollutant?

a)

Primary pollutants rise up the smokestack before secondary pollutants are formed.

b)

Primary pollutants are formed from secondary pollutants interacting in the water.

c)

Secondary pollutants are formed from primary pollutants interacting in the atmosphere

d)

Secondary pollutants are made by cars, while secondary pollutants are made by the burning of wood.

e)

Secondary pollutants are directly created by the burning of coal and primary pollutants from the burning of oil