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PARASITOLOGY COMPREHENSIVE EXAM

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following methods can be used for the diagnosis of Trichinosis?

I. Muscle Biopsy

II. Direct Fecal Smear

III. Harada Mori Culture

IV. Beck’s Xenodiagnosis

a)

I Only

b)

I and II

c)

I and III

d)

I and IV

2.

What is/are the vectors of Mansonella ozzardi ?

I. Simulium blackfly

II. Culicoides midges

III. Chrysops

IV. Anopheles

a)

I Only

b)

I and II

c)

I and III

d)

I and IV

3.

A lemon shaped ova with pluglike translucent polar prominences is that of

a)

Giant Intestinal Roundworm

b)

Pudoc Worm

c)

Hookworm

d)

Trichina Worm

e)

Whipworm

4.

What is the infective stage of Toxocara canis?

a)

Embryonated egg

b)

Rhabditiform larvae

c)

Filariform larvae

d)

Encysted larvae

5.

Autoinfection in threadworm infection occurs when

a)

Rhabditiform larvae develop into filariform stage inside the intestines

b)

Eggs are passed down in the feces and is accidentally swallowed promoting new cycle

c)

Gravid female migrates back from the perianal area back into the rectum after laying eggs

d)

Humans accidentally swallow rhabditiform larvae present in human excreta

e)

Gravid female present in human excreta is accidentally swallowed

6.

What is the infective stage of filarial worms?

a)

Ova

b)

Encysted larvae

c)

3rd stage larvaae

d)

Coracidium

e)

Rhabditiform larvae

7.

Sheathed microfilaria that exhibit nocturnal periodicity

a)

Wuchereria bancrofti

b)

Brugia malayi

c)

Onchocerca volvolus

d)

Wuchereria bancrofti and Brugia malayi

e)

Wuchereria bancrofti, Brugia malayi and Onchocerca volvolus

8.

Sheathed microfilaria that exhibits diurnal periodicity

a)

Malayan filaria

b)

Bancrofts filaria

c)

Eyeworm

d)

Malayan filaria and Bancrofts filaria

e)

Malayan filaria, Bancrofts filaria and Eyeworm

9.

Dracunculus medinensis can be acquired through

a)

Skin penetration of 3rd stage larvae

b)

Ingestion of water contaminated with embryonated ova

c)

Skin penetration of filariform larva

d)

Ingestion of freshwater fleas contaminated with 3rd stage larva

e)

Ingestion of fliariform larva

10.

What is the specimen of choice for the recovery of “Guinea worm”?

a)

Skeletal muscle

b)

Feces

c)

Infected ulcer

d)

CSF

e)

Corneal scrappings

11.

This condition occurs if infective pinworm eggs coming from the same individual are ingested via hand to mouth contamination

a)

Retroinfection

b)

Autoreinfection

c)

Hyperinfection

d)

Superinfection

12.

Infection with this nematode is characterized by intense itching and inflammation of the anal and/or vaginal area

a)

Guinea worm

b)

Trichina worm

c)

Giant intestinal roundworm

d)

Threadworm

e)

None of the following choices

13.

The adult female of this nematode measures 22 to 35cm in length and resembles a pencil lead in thickness

a)

Trichuris trichiura

b)

Ancylostoma duodenale

c)

Ascaris lumbricoides

d)

Enterobius vermicularis

e)

Strongyloides stercoralis

14.

Eggs of this nematode has a tendency to survive in 10% formalin fixative used in stool processing

a)

Ascaris lumbricoides

b)

Enterobius vermicularis

c)

Trichuris trichiura

d)

Strongyloides stercoralis

e)

Ancylostoma duodenale

15.

The only difference between the eggs of Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodenale

a)

Size

b)

Presence and absence of embryonic cleavage

c)

Shell appearance

d)

All of the given choices

16.

Persons walking with bare foot or with no foot protection are at risk of acquiring

a)

Hookworm

b)

Threadworm

c)

Whipworm

d)

Hookworm and Threadworm

e)

Hookworm, Threadworm and Whipworm

17.

Hookworm/s responsible for the appearance of lesions resembling creeping worms through the skin.

I. Ancylostoma braziliense

II. Necator americanus

III. Ancylostoma caninum

IV. Ancylostoma duodenale

a)

I Only

b)

I and II

c)

I and III

d)

I, III and IV

18.

Identify this Cestode:

Scolex:

Number of Sucking Grooves: 2

Shape of Sucking Groove: Almond

Proglottid

Shape: Wider than long

Location and Appearance: Central Rosette

a)

Dog tapeworm

b)

Dwarf tapeworm

c)

Broad Fish Tapeworm

d)

Pumpkin Seed Tapeworm

19.

Ocular coenurosis characterized by poor vision and opthalmic pain is a condition associated with

a)

Taenia solium

b)

Taenia saginata

c)

Taenia multiceps

d)

Taenia visceralis

20.

Asian taenia can be acquired following

a)

Skin penetration of the cysticercoid larvae

b)

Ingestion of raw pig liver contaminated with cyscticercoid

c)

Accidental ingestion of rat feces contaminated with cysticercoid

d)

Ingestion of dog meat contaminated with cysticercoid

21.

Which of the following is the correct sequence for the life cycle of Diphyllobothrium latum?

a)

Plerocercoid - Coracidium - Procercoid - Adult

b)

Procercoid - Plerocercoid - Coracidium - Adult

c)

Coracidium - Procercoid - Plerocercoid - Adult

d)

Procercoid - Coracidium - Plerocercoid - Adult

22.

The eggs of Diphyllobothrium latum contains

a)

Egg packets and hexacanth embryo

b)

Operculum and abopercular knob

c)

Radial stiations and terminal spine

d)

Polar thickenings and filaments

23.

What is the diagnostic stage of Echinoccocus granulosus

a)

Eggs

b)

Adults

c)

Hydatid cyst

d)

Proglottids

24.

This is defined as the components found in the fluid of older Echinococcus granulosus cyst that typically include daughter cyst, free scolices, hooklets and miscellaneous nondescript materials

a)

Hydatid sand

b)

Brood capsules

c)

Oncosphere

d)

Bladder

25.

The direct life cycle of dwarf tapeworm occurs when

a)

Infection starts through accidental ingestion of rat feces containing egg

b)

Infection starts through accidental ingestion of fleas containing cycticercoid larvae

c)

Infection starts through accidental ingestion of rice beetle containing proglottids

d)

Infection starts through accidental ingestion

26.

What are the morphologic structures that can be retrieved in fecal specimens of patients with Hymenolepis diminuta infection?

a)

Eggs

b)

Proglottids

c)

Proglottids

d)

Eggs and Proglottids

e)

Eggs, Proglottids and Proglottids

27.

Which of the following statement/s describe/s Hymenolepis nana?

a)

Considered as the smallest tapeworm infecting humans

b)

The scolex is subglobular with four cup-shaped suckers

c)

Rostellum is armed with 20 to 30 Y-shaped hooklets

d)

2 of these

e)

All of the given choices

28.

The segments of this cestode appear like grains of rice when passed out with the feces

a)

The segments of this cestode appear like grains of rice when passed out with the feces

b)

Hymenolepis nana

c)

Hymenoplepis diminuta

d)

Diphyllobothrium latum

e)

Taenia saginata

29.

What is the intermediate host of Raillietina garrisoni?

a)

Tribolium confusum

b)

Pulex irritans

c)

Ctenocephalides canis

d)

Ctenocephalides felis

30.

Sparganosis is prevented by which of the following

a)

Avoidance of eating raw fish

b)

Drinking of boiled or filtered water

c)

Washing of hands after defecation

d)

Avoidance of eating raw fish and Drinking of boiled or filtered water

e)

Avoidance of eating raw fish, Drinking of boiled or filtered water and Washing of hands after defecation

31.

This is considered as the most dangerous adult tapeworm of humans

a)

Taenia solium

b)

Taenia saginata

c)

Dipylidium caninum

d)

Taenia asiatica

e)

Hymenolepis nana

32.

Which of the following are considered as extraintestinal cestodes?

a)

Spirometra

b)

Taenia solium

c)

Taenia saginata

d)

Spirometra and Taenia solium

e)

Spirometra, Taenia solium and Taenia saginata

33.

Echinococcus multilocularis infection can be acquired following

a)

Ingestion of ova present in fox feces

b)

Ingestion cyst present in fish meat

c)

Ingestion of coracidium present in drinking water

d)

Skin penetration of redia

e)

Ingestion of adult present in dog meat

34.

Which of the following cestodes is classified as Pseudophyllidean tapeworms?

a)

Echinococcus granulosus

b)

Taenia saginata

c)

Diphyllobothrium latum

d)

Echinococcus granulosus and Taenia saginata

e)

Echinococcus granulosus, Taenia saginata and Diphyllobothrium latum

35.

The adult worm of clonorchis sinensis take up residence in the

a)

Lung alveoli

b)

Small Intestines

c)

Bile duct

d)

Large Intestines

36.

Which of the following statements describe the egg of Clonorchis sinensis?

a)

Operculated with less distinct shoulders

b)

Equipped with shoulders and a distinct operculum located opposite of a small knob

c)

Operculated with an obvious terminal shell thickening located opposite the operculum

d)

Non operculated with large terminal spine located at the posterior part of the ova

37.

What trematode is reposnsible for causing the “Swimmer’s itch”

a)

Lung Fluke

b)

Chinese Liver Fluke

c)

Bladder fluke

d)

Giant Intestinal Fluke

38.

The intermediate host of Schistosoma japonicum belongs to the genus

a)

Oncomelania

b)

Antamelania

c)

Segmentina

d)

Hippeutis

39.

The egg of this trematode manifest a distinct melon-like ridges on the surface upon staining with potassium permanganate.

a)

Clonorchis sinensis

b)

Opistorchis viverrini

c)

Heterophyes heterophyes

d)

Metagonimus yokogawai

40.

What enzyme is used as an immunoreagent in the serodiagnosis for clonorchiasis?

a)

Phosphoglycerate kinase

b)

Creatinine kinase

c)

2, 3 DPG

d)

Lactate dehydrogenase

41.

What test is considered as sensitive and highly specific immunodiagnostic assay for serodiagnosis of human clonorchiasis?

a)

Cystatin ELISA

b)

Enzyme Immunoassay

c)

Polymerase Chain Reaction

d)

Immunoblot

42.

These are saclike structure of the larval form of trematodes which arises from the miracidium

a)

rediae

b)

cercariae

c)

sporocyst

d)

metacercarie

e)

coracidium

43.

Dioecious flukes infect human beings through

a)

Ingestion of metacercarie present in snails

b)

Ingestion of operculated ova present in drinking water

c)

Skin penetration of cercariae

d)

Ingestion of sporocyst present in snail slime

e)

Skin penetration of coaracidium present in bodies of water

44.

Which of the following describes Schistosomes?

a)

They are also known as blood dwelling flukes

b)

They require 2 intermediate host in order to complete its cycle

c)

These organisms are considered as hermaphrodites

d)

2 of these

e)

All of the given choices

45.

Which of the following statements describes Fasciolopsis buski?

a)

Persons suffering from infection with this parasite mimic the symptoms of duodenal ulcer

b)

The disease caused by this parasite is known as the “ Sheep Liver Rot”

c)

This parasite can be acquired following ingestion of metacercaria present in freshwater fish

d)

2 of these

e)

All of the given choices

46.

Patients with this trematode infection suffer from malabsorption syndrome similar to those seen in patients with giardiasis.

a)

Clonorchis sinensis

b)

Schistosoma haematobium

c)

Paragonimus westermani

d)

Fasciolopsis buski

e)

Dicrocoelium dendriticum

47.

Which of the following is describe of having an adult worm equipped with so called shoulders

a)

Fasciolopsis buski

b)

Fasciola hepatica

c)

Metagonimus yokogawai

d)

Heterophyes heterophyes

48.

Which of the following trematodes causes schistosomiasis japonica?

a)

Oriental lung fluke

b)

Oriental blood fluke

c)

Sheep Liver fluke

d)

Chinese Liver fluke

e)

Lancet fluke

49.

What is the most serious consequence of chronic schistosomiasis?

a)

Colonic schistososmiasis

b)

Hepatosplenic disease

c)

Pulmonary schistosomiasis

d)

Cerebral schistosomiasis

50.

This trematode is primarily a parasite of the portal vein and its branches.

a)

Schistosoma haematobium

b)

Schistosoma japonicum

c)

Paragonimus westermani

d)

Heterophyes heterophyes

e)

Metagonimus yokogawai

51.

This is regarded as the method of choice for the definitive diagnosis of Schistosoma japonicum infection in the Philippines

a)

Circumoval Precipitin Test

b)

Indirect hemagglutination

c)

Intradermal Test

d)

ELISA

52.

What is the infective stage of Trypanosoma cruzi?

a)

Amastigote

b)

Epimastigote

c)

Promastigote

d)

Trypomastigote

53.

Which of the following hemoflagellates are transmitted by reduviid bug?

a)

Leishmania tropica

b)

Trypanosoma cruzi

c)

Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

d)

Trypanosoma brucei gambiense

54.

Which of the following hemoflagellates is transmitted by Phlebotomus sandlfy?

a)

Leishmania tropica

b)

Trypanosoma cruzi

c)

Trypanosoma rangeli

d)

Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

55.

What is the prefered sample for the diagnosis of Toxoplasmosis?

a)

Stool

b)

Urine

c)

Blood

d)

Skin Scrappings

56.

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding Endolimax nana?

a)

Mature cyst contains 8-16 nuclei

b)

The cysts contains a large blotlike karyosome which is centrally located

c)

This parasite is considered as a pathogen, thus requires mandatory treatment

d)

The cyst is composed of large glycogen vacuole that stains golden brown with iodine

57.

A trophozoite equipped with finger-shaped pseudopods exhibiting nonprogressive motility is that of

a)

Entamoeba coli

b)

Entamoeba hartmanni

c)

Giardia lamblia

d)

Entamoeba histolytica

e)

Entamoeba polecki

58.

Toxoplasma gondii can be transmitted through

a)

Granulocyte blood transfusion

b)

Transplacental transmission

c)

Eating of meat of infected animals

d)

2 of these

e)

All of these

59.

The largest protozoan parasite affecting human and is the only ciliate known to cause human disease.

a)

Naegleria folweri

b)

Entamoeba histolytica

c)

Giardia lamblia

d)

Balantidium coli

e)

Acanthomoeba

60.

A trophozoite equipped with cystostome extending halfway down the body length with well-defined fibril border opposite the nucleus in the anterior end is that of

a)

Retortamonas intestinalis

b)

Trichomonas tenax

c)

Trichomonas vaginalis

d)

Enteromonas hominis

e)

Dientamoeba fragilis

61.

The cyst form of this flagellate can be confused with yeast cells

a)

Enteromonas hominis

b)

Retortamonas intestinalis

c)

Trichomonas vaginalis

d)

Trichomonas tenax

e)

Giardia lamblia

62.

The cyst of this flagellate is described as lemon shaped or pear shaped

a)

Enteromonas hominis

b)

Retortamonas hominis

c)

Trichomonas tenax

d)

Trichomonas vaginalis

e)

Dientamoeba fragilis

63.

The trophozoite form of this flagellate possess two nuclei, each consisting of massed clumps of four to eight chromatin granules

a)

Trichomonas tenax

b)

Trichomonas vaginalis

c)

Dientamoeba fragilis

d)

Enteromonas hominis

e)

Giardia lamblia

64.

This flagellate was initially classified as an amoeba

a)

Dientamoeba fragilis

b)

Chilomastix mesnili

c)

Enteromonas hominis

d)

Giardia lamblia

e)

Trihomonas vaginalis

65.

A finlike structure connected to the outer edge of flagellates

a)

Axostyle

b)

Pseudopod

c)

Undulating membrane

d)

Median body

e)

Cytostome

66.

A rodlike support structure found in flagellates

a)

Undulating membrane

b)

Axostyle

c)

Flagella

d)

Psuedopod

e)

Axoneme

67.

The infective stage of Cryptosporidium parvum

a)

Oocyst

b)

Gametocyte

c)

Tachyzoite

d)

Bradyzoite

e)

Schizont

68.

How many sporozoite are contained in a single oocyst of Cryptosporidium?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

e)

5

69.

Which of the following is the vector for Yersinia pestis and Rickettsia typhi?

a)

Xenopsylla cheopis

b)

Pediculus humanus

c)

Sarcoptes scabiei

d)

Demodex folliculorum

70.

These are comblike structures located behind the head and extending posteriorly on the dorsal side which aid in differentiation of the various species of fleas

a)

Pronotal ctenidia

b)

Genal ctenidia

c)

Capitulum

d)

Scutum

71.

The vector for Yersinia pestis and Rickettsia typh

a)

Xenopsylla cheopis

b)

Pediculus humanus

c)

Dermatobia

d)

Cordylobia

72.

Collection of specimens from patients who have taken antibiotics or antimalarial drugs should be delayed for how long ?

a)

2 weeks

b)

3 weeks

c)

4 weeks

d)

1 month

73.

What is the acceptable amount of stool required for parasitic study?

a)

2 - 5 grams

b)

4 - 6 grams

c)

5 - 10 grams

d)

1 - 3 grams

74.

Which of the following is TRUE regarding the Kato thick smear?

a)

This method makes use of 50 to 60 mg of stool

b)

The preparation is best examined within 1 hour

c)

It is very good in detecting thin shelled nematode

d)

2 of these

e)

All of these

75.

A culture media used to grow Blastocystis hominis

a)

Boek and Drbohlav

b)

Nelson and Jones

c)

Novy Mcneal Nichole

d)

2 of these

e)

All of these

76.

This technique aims to determine cure rate, egg reduction rate and intensity of infection

a)

Kato thick smear

b)

Kato katz

c)

Direct fecal smear

d)

Concentration technique

77.

Buffy coat slides is used to isolate

a)

Trypanosomes

b)

Leishmania

c)

Acanthamoeba

d)

Trypanosomes and Leishmania

e)

Trypanosomes, Leishmania and Acanthamoeba

78.

What is considered as the most preferred permanent stain for the detection of blood parasites?

a)

Wrights

b)

Giemsa

c)

Calcofluor white

d)

Iron hematoxylin

e)

Iodine

79.

Which of the following cannot be recovered in concentration methods?

a)

Oocyst

b)

Cyst

c)

Trophozoites

d)

Larvae

e)

Helminth Eggs

80.

What reagent is used to dissolve neutral fats in acid ether concentration technique?

a)

40 % Hcl

b)

Ethyl Acetate

c)

Ether

d)

10% Formalin

81.

What alternative chemical can be used as a replacement for ether in sedimentation procedures?

a)

Nair’s buffered Methylene Blue

b)

Boiled sugar solution

c)

Ethyl Acetate

d)

Zinc sulfate

82.

What flotation procedure is considered as the best for the recovery of coccidian oocyst?

a)

Zinc sulfate

b)

Brine Flotation

c)

Sheather’s Sugar flotation

d)

Zinc sulfate and Brine Flotation

83.

Which of the following stains contain/s mercuric chloride?

I. Polyvinyl alcohol

II. Schaudinn

III. Thimerosal

IV. SAF

a)

I Only

b)

I and II

c)

I and III

d)

I and IV

84.

What stain/s is/are incorporated in Thimerosal?

I. Merthiolate

II. Mercuric chloride

III. Malachite green

IV. Iodine

a)

I Only

b)

I and II

c)

I and III

d)

I and IV

85.

What chemical can act as buffer in formalin fixative?

a)

Sodium phosphate

b)

Cupric sulfate

c)

Mercuric chloride

d)

Iodine

86.

Muscle biopsy is useful for the diagnosis of what parasites?

I. Trichinella spiralis

II. Taenia solium

III. Spirometra spp

IV. Malarial Parasites

a)

I and II

b)

I, II and III

c)

I , II and IV

d)

ALL of these

87.

Specimens for electron microscopy are fixed using ?

a)

3% Glutaraldehyde in phosphate buffer

b)

10% Buffered Formalin

c)

95% Alcohol

d)

50% Alcohol

88.

What chemical is used as a digestive agent in cases wherin sputum samples are too viscous to process?

a)

3% Sodium hydroxide

b)

10% Sodium chloride

c)

Hydrogen peroxide

d)

Dilute HCl

89.

A very useful stain for fresh PVA preserved fecal specimen but does not give good staining results with SAF preservation.

a)

Trichrome stain

b)

Iron hematoxylin

c)

Modified Ziehl Neelsen technique

d)

3% Methylene blue

90.

This type of fixative can be used for fecal immunoassay.

a)

Polyvinyl alcohol

b)

SAF

c)

Formalin

d)

Alternative single vial system

e)

MIF

91.

What is the fixative incorporated in MIF?

a)

Formalin

b)

Zinc sulfate

c)

Copper sulfate

d)

Methanol

e)

Mercuric chloride

92.

A fixative routinely used for direct examinations and concentration procedures but not for permanent staining

a)

Formalin

b)

SAF

c)

Schaudinn

d)

Polyvinyl alcohol

e)

Alternative single vial system

93.

The ringlike appearance of the malarial parasite characterized by a blue cytoplasmic circle connected with a red chromatin dot is that of :

a)

Early Trophozoite

b)

Immature Schizonts

c)

Microgametocytes

d)

Macrogametocyte

94.

Active chromatin replication of malarial parasite is seen in

a)

Ring Form

b)

Immature Schizonts

c)

Mature Schizonts

d)

Microgametocytes

95.

The fully developed stage of the asexual sporozoa trophozoite known as the merozoite is observed on which of the following?

a)

Ring Form

b)

Immature Schizonts

c)

Microgametocyte

d)

Mature Schizonts

96.

What is the infective stage of malarial parasite ?

a)

Bradyzoite

b)

Sporozoite

c)

Tachyzoite

d)

Merozoite

97.

The sleeping form of the malarial parasite is known as the:

a)

Merozoite

b)

Hypnozoite

c)

Tachyzoite

d)

Sporozoite

98.

The hypnozoites is/are formed following infections with ?

I. Plasmodium vivax

II. Plasmodium ovale

III. Plasmodium falciparum

IV. Plasmodium malaria

a)

I Only

b)

I and II

c)

I and III

d)

I and IV

99.

Recurrence or relapse occurs from patients infected with :

I. Plasmodium vivax

II. Plasmodium falciparum

III. Plasmodium malaria

IV. Plasmaodium ovale

a)

I Only

b)

I and II

c)

I and III

d)

I and IV

100.

Aestivoautumnal malaria is caused by :

a)

Plasmodium falciparum

b)

Plasmodium malariae

c)

Plasmodium ovale

d)

Plasmodium vivax

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