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COMPREHENSIVE EXAM CLINICAL MICROSCOPY

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The plasma ultrafiltrate has a specific gravity of

a)

1.008

b)

1.010

c)

1.015

d)

1.020

2.

What gland stores the Antidiuretic hormone

a)

Adrenal Cortex

b)

Adrenal Medulla

c)

Hypothalamus

d)

Adenohypophysis

e)

Neurohypophysis

3.

An increase level of the ADH will result to

a)

Increased urine volume with low specific gravity

b)

Increased urine volume with high specific gravity

c)

Decreased urine volume with low specific gravity

d)

Decreased urine volume with high specific gravity

4.

Substances bound to plasma proteins in the blood can be eliminated in the urine by

a)

Glomerular secretion

b)

Glomerular filtration

c)

Tubular secretion

d)

Tubular reabsorption

5.

The reference method for determining the renal plasma flow

a)

Creatinine clearance test

b)

Inulin test

c)

PAH test

d)

Phenolsulfonpthalein

6.

A unifrom cloudiness in the urine which does not settle and removed by centrifugation or filtration is indicative of

a)

Amorphous

b)

Epithelial cell

c)

Lipid

d)

Bacteria

7.

Rhabdmyolysis will cause this urine appearance

a)

Clear yellow urine

b)

Smoky red urine

c)

Clear red ruine

d)

Clear yellow urine with large amounts of white

8.

Most random urine specimens fall between this specific gravity reading

a)

1.000 -1.015

b)

1.005 - 1.020

c)

1.010 - 1.025

d)

1.015 - 1.030

9.

An indirect method for specific gravity detection

a)

Urinometry and Harmonic Oscillation Densitometry

b)

Harmonic Oscillation Densitometry and Reagent Strip

c)

Reagent Strip and Urinometry

d)

Reagent strip and Refractometry

10.

A muscle relaxant responsible for green brown coloration of the urine

a)

Amitriptyline

b)

Methocarbamol

c)

Methyldopa

d)

Argyrol

11.

An antidepressant that causes the excretion of blue green urine

a)

Methyldopa

b)

Levodopa

c)

Amtriptyline

d)

Methocarbamol

12.

A drug used for the treatment of protozoan infection that causes the appearance of black urine

a)

Phenindione

b)

Pyridium

c)

Amitriptyline

d)

Metronidazole

13.

An anticoagulant that causes the excretion of orange urine

a)

Levodopa

b)

Methyldopa

c)

Phenindione

d)

ARGYROL

14.

A pathologic cause of urine turbidity

a)

Semen

b)

Lipid

c)

Amorphous carbonate

d)

Mucus

15.

An odor associated with the musty odor of the urine

a)

UTI

b)

Tyrosinemia

c)

Phenylketonuria

d)

Isovaleric acidemia

16.

Which of the following will yield to a negative nitrite test

a)

Bacteria that lack the enzyme reductase

b)

Non nitrate producing gram positive bacteria

c)

Yeast

d)

All of the given choices

17.

Which of the following statement regarding Clinitest is TRUE

a)

this is a confirmatory test for glucose

b)

this test employs the Benedicts principle

c)

this test makes of use of an absorbent mat where the urine is dispensed and observed for color change

d)

All of the given choices

18.

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the reagent strip for creatinine determination

a)

This makes use of DIAZO reaction

b)

Bloody samples causes a False Positive Reaction

c)

Color reaction progression is from Orange to Red

d)

All of the given choices

19.

A positive Nitrite test would suggest the presence of

a)

Oval fat bodies

b)

Mucus threads

c)

RBC

d)

Squamous cells

e)

None of the given choices

20.

All of the following conditions causes the excretion of Bilirubin in the urine EXCEPT:

a)

Bile duct obstruction

b)

Hepatitis

c)

Cirrhosis

d)

Hemolytic disease

21.

Increased accumulation of this substance in the blood leads to diabetic coma and acidosis

a)

Protein

b)

Ketones

c)

Glucose

d)

Bilirubin

e)

Nitrite

22.

Which of the following is considered as significant

a)

>3 rbcs/ml

b)

>5rbcs/ml

c)

>8rbcs/ml

d)

>10rbcs/ml

23.

This is related to the disorders of renal or genitourinary origin in which bleeding is the result of trauma or damage to the organs of these system

a)

Hematuria

b)

Hemoglobinuria

c)

Myoglobinuria

d)

All of the given choices

24.

The appearance of large yellow brown granules of denatured ferritin called hemosiderin in the urine sediment indicates

a)

Hematuria

b)

Hemoglobinuria

c)

Myoglobinuria

d)

Pyuria

e)

Cystitis

25.

A uniform color ranging from a negative yellow through green to a strongly positive green blue on the reagent strip method for blood indicates

a)

Hemoglobinuria

b)

Myoglobinuria

c)

Hematuria

d)

Hemoglobinuria and Myoglobinuria

26.

Escherichia coli will cause a false positive reaction in which reagent strip parameter

a)

Glucose

b)

Bilirubin

c)

Blood

d)

Protein

e)

Ketone

27.

The greatest source of error of a fale negative glucose result

a)

Low temperature

b)

High levels of ketones

c)

High levels of Vitamin C

d)

Bacterial degradation

28.

The expected result of Clinitest if Maltose is present

a)

Yellow

b)

Red

c)

Blue

d)

Green

29.

The presence of microalbumin in the urine will yield to the turbidity of this test

a)

Watson Schwarts

b)

Acetest Tablet

c)

SSA

d)

Ictotest

e)

Hoesch test

30.

Diarrhea will yield a positive reaction to this reagent strip parameter

a)

Glucose

b)

Ketones

c)

Nitrite

d)

Bilirubin

31.

The type of Bilirubin being detected in a urine sample

a)

Degraded

b)

Oxidized

c)

Conjugated

d)

Unconjugated

32.

The presence of sucrose in the urine will yield a postive result to

a)

Glucose oxidase

b)

Copper reduction

c)

Clinitest

d)

Benedicts

e)

None of the given choices

33.

The presence of unconjugated bilirubin will yield a positive result to this test

a)

Ictotest

b)

Acetest

c)

Clinitest

d)

Hoesh test

e)

None of the given choices

34.

Appear as colorless hexagonal plates which is difficult to distinguish between uric acid

a)

Leucine

b)

Cholesterol

c)

Cystine

d)

Bilirubin

35.

A chemical that differentiates between calcium phosphates and sulfonamide

a)

Dilute HCl

b)

Dilute HAc

c)

Ammonia

d)

Sulfuric acid

36.

A crystal associated with urea splitting bacteria

a)

Amorphous urate

b)

Ammonium biurate

c)

Calcium oxalate

d)

Tyrosine

e)

Leucine

37.

Which of the following describes cholesterol crystals

a)

Coffin lid

b)

Takes a feathery appearance upon addition of HAc

c)

Seen in chemotherapy

d)

Birefringent under polarized light

e)

None of the given choices

38.

Which of the following statements is/are refers to hyaline cast

a)

Easily identified using bright-field microscope

b)

Associated with Chronic renal disease

c)

Tapered end cast

d)

Seen in Nephrotic syndrome

e)

None of the given choices

39.

Cast that forms at the junction of the ascending loop and distal convoluted tubule

a)

RBC cast

b)

WBC cast

c)

Waxy Cat

d)

Broadcast

e)

None of the given choices

40.

Most frequently associated with Pyelonephritis

a)

RBC cast

b)

Broadcast

c)

Granular cast

d)

WBC cast

e)

None of the given choices

41.

Cast associated with Cystitis

a)

Granular

b)

Hyaline

c)

Fatty

d)

Cellular

e)

None of the given choices

42.

A cast associated with urethritis

a)

RBC cast

b)

WBC cast

c)

Bacterial cast

d)

Fatty cast

e)

None of the given choices

43.

A cast associated with acute interstitial nephritis

a)

Waxy cast

b)

WBC cast

c)

RBC cast

d)

Hyaline

e)

None of the given choices

44.

Microscopic element seen in Drug hypersensitivity

a)

Fatty cast

b)

Bacterial cast

c)

Bacteria

d)

Hyaline cast

e)

None of the given choices

45.

These deposit within the tubule as calculi resulting in renal damage

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Cystine

c)

Tyrosine

d)

Bilirubin

e)

None of the given choices

46.

These statements describes bacterial cast

a)

Resembles granular cast

b)

Can be confirmed by using Prussian blue stain

c)

Contains fissures and jagged edges

d)

Associated with Cystitis

e)

All of the given choices

47.

RTE cell cast are seen in

a)

Exercise

b)

Glomerulonephritis

c)

Urethritis

d)

Drug hypersensitivity

e)

None of the given choices

48.

Microscopic element found Nephrotic syndrome

a)

Clue cell

b)

Glitter cell

c)

Hemosiderin

d)

Ammonium magnesium phosphate

e)

None of the given choices

49.

A cast associated with cellular desintigration fro lysosomes

a)

Mixed Cellular cast

b)

Fatty cast

c)

Granular cast

d)

RBC cast

e)

None of the given choices

50.

Microscopic element seen in extraneous contact sports

a)

Waxy cast

b)

Bubble cells

c)

Eosinophils

d)

Clue cell

e)

None of the given choices

51.

The positive result of Frank Berman test

a)

Extrusion of egg

b)

Extrusion of sperm

c)

Ovarian Hyperemia

d)

None of the given choices

52.

The positive result of Kelso test

a)

Death of the test animal

b)

Extrusion of egg

c)

Extrusion of sperm

d)

Ovarian Hyperemia

e)

None of the given choices

53.

An indirect test for the presence of Ammonia in the CSF

a)

Lactate

b)

Protein

c)

Glucose

d)

MBP

e)

None of the given choices

54.

The most common cause of Xanthochromia

a)

RBC degradation products

b)

Elevated serum bilirubin

c)

Carotene

d)

Increased protein

55.

An analyte in the CSF used to monitor sever head injuries

a)

Glucose

b)

Lactate

c)

Protein

d)

Glutamine

56.

The procedure recommended by the CDC to diagnose neurosyphilis

a)

VDRL

b)

FTA ABS

c)

RPR

d)

Lateral flow Assay

57.

If only 1 for CSF can be collected, it must be first tested by

a)

Clinical Chemistry

b)

Hematology

c)

Serology

d)

Parasitology

e)

None of the given choices

58.

What will be the expected result of semen samples collected following prolonged abstinence

a)

High volume with low motility

b)

High volume with high motility

c)

Low volume with low motility

d)

Low volume with high motility

59.

Immature sperm are difficult to distinguish from

a)

Red blood cells

b)

Yeast

c)

Oval fat bodies

d)

Trichomonas

e)

None of the given choices

60.

A test that detects choline

a)

Cholinesterase

b)

Barbieros test

c)

Dulbecco's test

d)

Leukocyte esterase

e)

None of the given choices

61.

A test used to detect spermine

a)

Florence test

b)

Barbieros test

c)

Blooms test

d)

MAR

e)

None of the given choices

62.

The proper way of storage for fructose analysis

a)

Ref temperature

b)

Freeze

c)

Room temp

d)

Incubator

e)

Amber bottle

63.

FLM test not affected by contamination with blood and meconium

a)

Amniostat FLM

b)

Foam stability test

c)

String test

d)

Lamellar body count

64.

The value in the Foam stability index that indicates fetal lung maturiy

a)

>37

b)

>47

c)

>57

d)

>67

65.

The reagent used in the Foam stability index

a)

Dilute HCL

b)

Glacial Acetic acid

c)

95% Ethanol

d)

50% Mrhanol

66.

Fecal appearance in children with Hirschsprung disease

a)

Gaseous

b)

Flattened

c)

Scybalous

d)

Watery

e)

None of the given choices

67.

A bright red appearance of the stool indicates

a)

Upper GIT bleeding

b)

Betel nut chewing

c)

Constipation

d)

Steatorrhea

e)

Hemorrhoids

68.

The reagent used for orthotoluidine test in fecal analysis

a)

Conc HCl

b)

Ammonium chloride

c)

3% Hydrogen Peroxide

d)

40% Sulfurus acid

69.

This enzyme is active in alkaline medium and inactive in alkaline medium and active in acid medium

a)

Rennin

b)

Renin

c)

Hcl

d)

Pepsin

e)

Lipase

70.

A test meal which detects hypoacidity or achylia

a)

Tom sawyers test

b)

Heckmans test

c)

Docks test

d)

Budget meal

e)

Riegels test

71.

A meal that is easier to swallow or maybe introduec through evacuation

a)

Happy meal

b)

Docks test

c)

Ewald

d)

Heckman

e)

Riegel

72.

These are bracnhing tree like structures of the bronchi seen in lobar pneumonia during the stage of consolidation

a)

Dittrichs plug

b)

Bronchial cast

c)

Lung stones

d)

Curshmann spiral

73.

Parasites that cane be found in sputum a sputum sample

a)

Trichomonas vaginalis

b)

Enterobius vermicularis

c)

Whipworm

d)

None of the given choices

74.

Color reaction of Charcot leyden crystal in hematoxylin stain

a)

Red

b)

Orange

c)

Pink

d)

Black

e)

Unstained

75.

Sputum crystal found in lung gangrene

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Charcot leyden

c)

Bolang Crystal

d)

Fatty acid crystal

e)

Hematoidin crystal

76.

A sample collected though arthrocentesis

a)

CSF

b)

Urine

c)

Amniotic fluid

d)

Synovial Fluid

e)

Semen

77.

An anticoagulant used for gram stain in the synovial fluid

a)

Sodium Fluoride

b)

EDTA

c)

Red Top

d)

Heparin

78.

The appearance of synovial fluid in SLE

a)

Clear yellow

b)

Cloudy yellow

c)

Milky

d)

Yellow green

79.

Most frequently performed test in the synovial fluid

a)

Gram stain

b)

Glucose

c)

Leukocyte count

d)

RBC count

80.

A cell that can be observed in ovarian and thyroid malignancies

a)

Lipophage

b)

Psamomma bodies

c)

Mesothelial cell

d)

Mesothelioma cell

e)

Egg cell

81.

Serous fluid aliquots for pH analysis must be

a)

Protected from sunlight

b)

Collected using heparinized tubes

c)

Maintained at room temperature

d)

Heated at 37 degrees celsius

e)

None of the following choices

82.

These are produced by conditions that directly involve the membranes of particular cavities including infections and malignancies

a)

Transudate

b)

Exudate

c)

Pleural fluid

d)

Brake fluid

83.

The proper way of reporting abnormal crystals

a)

ave number per Scaning Objective

b)

ave number per LPO

c)

ave number per HPO

d)

Not Reported

84.

The proper way of reporting cast

a)

Ave number per Scanning Objective

b)

Ave number per LPO

c)

Ave number per HPO

d)

Not reported

85.

Cast must be observed using

a)

Scanning Objective

b)

Low power objective

c)

High Power Objective

d)

Oil Immersion

86.

An extinguisher used for Organic chemicals

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

e)

K

87.

Color of Specific Hazard Quadrant

a)

Blue

b)

Red

c)

White

d)

Yellow

88.

Stated that Handwashing after removal of gloves is not necessary unless visual contamination is present

a)

Universal Precautions

b)

Body Substance Isolation

c)

Standard Precautions

d)

OSHA

89.

All of the following must be disposed in containers labelled as biohazard except

a)

Wound dressing

b)

Synovial fluid aspirate

c)

Vaginal swab

d)

Used Urine containers

90.

What is considered as a safe practice after skin contact with chemicals

a)

Neutralize chemicals that came in contact with the skin

b)

Flush the area with large amounts of Acetic acid

c)

Both

d)

Neither

91.

An agency that developed a diamond shaped color coded symbol that contains information relating to health flammability and reactivity

a)

OSHA

b)

CDC

c)

NFPA

d)

CLSI

e)

UBCL

92.

The major inorganic component of the urine

a)

Sodium

b)

Potassium

c)

Chloride

d)

Urea

93.

The recommended capacity of urine containers for routine urinalysis

a)

30ml

b)

45ml

c)

50ml

d)

60ml

94.

Urien specimen delivered promptly must be tested within

a)

Immediately

b)

1 hr

c)

2 hrs

d)

24 hrs

95.

A type of urine specimen that is used for routine testing

a)

Random

b)

First Morning

c)

Midstream

d)

All of the given choices

96.

This provides a less traumatic method for urine collection

a)

Midstream clean catch

b)

Suprapubic aspiration

c)

Catheterized

d)

None of the given choices

97.

The urine preservative that interferes with SSA

a)

Thymol

b)

Toluene

c)

Formalin

d)

Boric acid

98.

A urine preservative that clings to glasswares and pippetes

a)

Thymol

b)

Formalin

c)

Toluene

d)

Boric acid

99.

The baseline wbc count which is considered as abnormal in the four glass method for prostatitis

a)

>3 -5 wbc/hpf

b)

>5-10 wbc/hpf

c)

>10 -20 wbc/hpf

d)

>20-25 wbc/hpf

100.

You could be close to perfect, You could pass all my tests but a cheater is a cheater and KARMA WILL HUNT YOU!

You will pass my exam but you will lose your confidence COME THE BOARD EXAMS


This statement is:

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

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