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Surgical Problems & Procedures: GS Trauma

Total questions: 36

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Frontal impact as MOI conditions?

a)

C-Spine Damage

b)

Flail Chest, Aortic DIssection

c)

Pneumothorax

d)

Acetabular Fracture

e)

Lower Extremity Fracture

2.

MVC vs Pedestrian injury?

a)

Brain/C-Spine Injury

b)

Abdominal Visceral Damage

c)

Fractured Lower Extremity

3.

What should be done with penetrating injuries foreign objects?

a)

Do not remove unless in controlled setting and/or OR

b)

Remove immediately

c)

Apply pressure and remove at home and irrigate

4.

What should be ruled out with thermal injuries?

a)

Inhalation injury!!!

b)

EtOH and drugs may cause vasodilation = compromised ability to conserve heat

5.

AMPLE?

a)

Allergies, Meds, PMH, Last Meal, Event/Exposure

b)

xx

6.

What is key for advanced planning and treatment of a trauma patient?

a)

Communication with receiving trauma center

b)

IV fluids

c)

CPR

7.

Primary survey consists of?

a)

ABCDE's

b)

Airway, Breathing, Circulation

c)

Disability, Event/Exposure

8.

Airway patency assessment includes?

a)

Signs of obstruction/risks of airway compromise

b)

Decreased urine output assessment

c)

Knee Assessment

9.

Glasgow coma scale of <8 is warrant for?

a)

Intubation

b)

Xray

c)

CT Scan of chest

10.

Internal Bleeding identification and management?

a)

Identification: FAST (Focused Assessment Ultrasound in Trauma)

b)

Management: Decompression, Pelvic Binders, Splint and Surgery

11.

FAST (Focused Assessment Sonography in Trauma)

a)

Transthoracic/Subxyphoid

b)

Hepatorenal

c)

Splenorenal

d)

Suprapubic

12.

Hemorrhage Control/Management?

a)

2 Large Bore IV Catheters, Warmed Fluid, Blood Products, and Preventing Hypothermia

b)

Baseline Blood Panel in Trauma, HCG and Type/Cross

13.

Contraindication to nasal gastric catheter?

a)

Facial Trauma

b)

Hx of Sinusitis

c)

Asthma

d)

Atopic Dermatitis

14.

Secondary survey consists of?

a)

Head to Toe, History, Physical Exam, Imaging and repeat Vital Signs

b)

XX

15.

When would thoracotomy be indicated in chest tube trauma patient with hemothorax?

a)

>1.5L of serosanguinous fluid is removed

b)

More than 200cc/hr

c)

More than 500cc/hr

d)

>5L of serosanguinous fluid is removed

16.

Rapid Sequence Intubation involves? Agents?

a)

Inducing immediate Unresponsiveness and Muscular relaxation for patients with life threatening injury or illness

b)

Propofol or Etomidate = unresponsiveness

c)

Rocuronium or Succinylcholine = muscle relaxant

17.

1. A Patient presents to Trauma Center with gunshot wound to the chest decrease pulse pressure and vital signs are BP80/40, Pulse 125 bpm,86% on non-rebreather. You and a nurse are the only providers available in the room. Which step is most adequate in this situation:

a)

Insert bilateral chest tubes

b)

Immediate thoracotomy

c)

Call for additional help

d)

Secure the airway

18.

23y/o male s/p motor vehicle crash with a Glasgow coma scale of 12 responds to minimal painful stimuli and has abdominal bruising and suspected closed head injury. The most appropriate exam or study to evaluate solid organ injury is:

a)

Diagnostic peritoneal lavage

b)

Physical Exam

c)

Laparotomy

d)

FAST Ultrasound

19.

All are considered complications of Chest Tube insertion except:

a)

Laceration of the intercostal vein

b)

Rapid lung re-expansion

c)

Puncture/Laceration to lung parenchyma

d)

Inadequate pleural fluid evacuation

20.

Aortic Dissection is suspected in all except:

a)

Massive deceleration injuries

b)

Gunshot wound to the chest

c)

Frontal Impact motor vehicle crash

d)

Pedestrian hit by car

21.

The study of choice to diagnose Aortic Injury from blunt trauma (Traumatic Aortic Rupture):

a)

CT

b)

Angiography

c)

Ultrasound

d)

Plain X-Ray

22.

The Parkland Formula for burn patients is best described as:

a)

Estimated amount of fluid required by burn victim for initial resuscitation

b)

The adequate of fluid required for the first 48 hours

c)

Estimated crystalloids for complete rehydration of burn victim

d)

Gold standard for adult and pediatric urine output requirements

23.

34 y/o female patient is brought to the Trauma Center after gas explosion from kitchen. Fire Rescue states that she was found on the floor of her kitchen, face down and unconscious but breathing. After initial assessment your evaluation of her burns demonstrate that she has 2nd degree burns to her face and neck anteriorly, mixed 2nd and 3rd degree burns to her left arm circumferentially, and her anterior chest. Her estimated percent body surface area of burn is best described as:

a)

36%

b)

31%

c)

33%

d)

30%

24.

The initial management of the above patient is:

(the 34 year old female with 31% TBSA burn)

a)

IVF rehydration with Normal Saline 2 liters

b)

Application of silver sulfadiazine to all burn areas.

c)

Endotracheal intubation

d)

Surgical escharotomies to all affected 3rd degree burn areas

25.

70 kg male presents to the ED with 30% body surface area burns. What is the total volume of IV fluids required in the next 24hrs.

a)

10,000 ml

b)

8,000 ml

c)

8,400 ml

d)

9,000 ml

26.

For the above patient, what amount of volume in IV fluids should be administered(ml/hr) in the first 8hrs.

a)

400ml/hr

b)

525ml/hr

c)

625ml/hr

d)

250ml/hr

27.

The fluid of choice for the above burn patient is:

(the 70kg male patient with 30% TBSA)

a)

LR

b)

LR with additional potassium

c)

NS with potassium

d)

1/2 NS with Potassium

28.

Trauma patients with suspected facial trauma who is intubated requires:

a)

Nasogastric Tube for gastric emptying initially

b)

Avoid nasogastric tube and place oral gastric tube

c)

Consultation from Neurosurgeon for clearance to insert nasogastric tube.

d)

No gastric tubes at all with Traumatic facial injuries

29.

The most appropriate studies for initial trauma work-up radiographically is/are:

a)

No plain x-rays

b)

X-rays of cervical spine, chest, pelvis and extremities

c)

Chest, abdomen, and pelvis

d)

Cervical Spine, chest, pelvis

30.

Trauma resuscitation of a young male patient best includes:

a)

Two large bore IV’s, Normal Saline and necessary studies

b)

Central line, Normal Saline and necessary studies

c)

FAST Ultrasound and necessary studies

d)

No studies and strict observation for 23hrs.

31.

How can a cervical spine be cleared in an a patient with Glascow coma scale of 15:

a)

Radiographically or Physical exam

b)

CT only

c)

MRI of C-spine

d)

None of the above

32.

Suspected pelvic fracture in an ED or Trauma Center is best treated by:

a)

Surgical intervention

b)

Fracture re-approximation

c)

Administering blood products

d)

Applying external fixation

33.

Endotracheal intubation complications are all except:

a)

Laryngeal/vocal cord injury

b)

Dental Injury

c)

Right mainstem intubation

d)

All of the above

34.

Intubation of a patient with suspected cervical injury is performed:

a)

Using head tilt chin lift

b)

In-line spinal immobilization

c)

Mandibular dislocation

d)

Using conventional intubation

35.

The appropriate treatment for a patient with a tension pneumothorax initially is:

a)

Obtain a CXR to confirm

b)

Thoracotomy

c)

Needle decompression followed by thoracostomy tube

d)

Pericardiocentesis

36.

A 65 y/o male burn patient presents to the Surgical Burn ICU. He was in a house fire and suffered smoke inhalation. He was intubated with 40% total body surface area burns. He has a WBC count 12,000 and is oliguric and temperature of 99.7 F. CXR in the first 24hrs demonstrates right sided atelectasis and edema. What is the next most appropriate step in this patients management:

a)

Daily bronchoscopy with alveolar lavage

b)

High pressure ventilation

c)

Broad spectrum IV Antibiotics (Vancomycin)

d)

Fluid resuscitation and further temperature monitoring