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Y11 Term 1.1 Revision Quiz

Total questions: 71

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
What is recruitment?
a)
The process by which a business hires staff
b)
The process by which a business trains staff
c)
The process by which a business inducts staff
2.
Which of the following is NOT usually part of the selection process?
a)
Short listing
b)
Interviewing
c)
  Induction
3.
How is a business most likely to encourage applications for a post?
a)
Job adverts
b)
Staff appraisal
c)
Internal recruitment
4.
Which should NOT be on a job description?
a)
Qualifications
b)
Hours
c)
Duties
d)
Location
5.
Where would you usually find a summary of the work history of a prospective employee?
a)
  CV
b)
Person specification
c)
  Job description
6.
Which one does NOT belong on a person specification?
a)
Pay
b)
Skills
c)
Qualifications
d)
Experience
7.
Where are the details of skills and qualities required for a post usually found?
a)
  CV
b)
Person specification
c)
Job description
8.
What is external recruitment?
a)
Recruiting from outside the company
b)
Recruiting from Asia
c)
Recruiting from current employees
d)
Recruiting from universiy
9.
Internal recruitment
a)
Giving a promotion
b)
Using a recruitment agency
10.
All of the following are tasks of the Human Resources Department (Personnel) except:
a)
allocating jobs on the production line
b)
induction training of new staff
c)
advise managers on the best pay and salary systems for staff
d)
disciplining staff who break company rules.
11.
In recruiting and selecting new staff, which is the correct order of tasks?
a)
interviews, job advert, selection, prepare job specification
b)
job specification, job adverts, interviews, selection
c)
selection, job specification, job advert, job specification
d)
job advert, selection, interviews, prepare job specification
12.
All of the following methods are likely to be used to help select a new worker except:
a)
asking them to write their own reference
b)
interviewing the applicants
c)
asking for a curriculum vitae (CV)
d)
asking all applicants to perform tests to check ability
13.
Training for existing workers is often used for which of the following reasons?
a)
to keep skills up-to-date and to improve efficiency
b)
to check to see which workers should be made redundant
c)
to explain the firm’s procedures and methods of working
d)
to increase the level of supervision needed
14.
One of the most likely disadvantages of training workers is that:
a)
workers will become too efficient at their work
b)
the level of supervision of workers will have to increase
c)
workers will become less prepared to accept new machines
d)
more highly trained workers might get jobs with other firms
15.
Which of the following is a possible drawback of on-the-job training?
a)
There will be additional expenses from travel costs.
b)
Workers will not gain experience of people outside the firm
c)
The worker won't be able to do any work during the training.
d)
The business will not have to employ its own training staff.
16.
What is a form of business ownership in which 2 or more people jointly owns a business
a)
Sole Proprietorship
b)
Company
c)
Partnerships
17.
What is the name of a person who owns part of a corporation?
a)
Stakeholder
b)
Shareholder
c)
Trust Agent
d)
Chairman
18.

Sole Traders have

a)

Unlimited Liability

b)

Limited Liability

19.

Private Limited Companies have

a)

Limited Liability

b)

Unlimited Liability

20.

Which of the following is the least complicated to set up?

a)

Sole Trader

b)

Partnership

c)

Private Limited Company

21.

Shareholders recieve a share of the profits a LTD makes called a

a)

Dividend

b)

Bonus

c)

Commission

d)

Cash Prize

22.

The public sector is owned and controlled by the Government?

a)

True

b)

False

23.
All true communication must have the following:
a)
A sender and a receiver
b)
A speaker and a listener
c)
A hearer and a listener
d)
A speaker and an interpreter
24.

which of the following best describe formal communication?

a)

is when messages are sent through established

channels using professional language.

b)

is when information is sent and received

casually with the use of everyday language

25.

A long chain of command may lead to message distortion or loss of the message all together. Which of the following is the best solution to this barrier of effective communication?

a)

The message should be brief as possible to allow the main points to be understood

b)

Shortest possible channels of communication should be used

26.

Which of the following barriers to effective communication does not relate to Problems with the receiver?

a)

The receiver may not like or trust the sender. they may be unwilling to act upon his or her message

b)

They may not be listening or paying attention

c)

Emotional problems

d)

The wrong channel has been used.e.g. an important message was put on notice board which most people did not read.

27.

The list below shows the Problems with the sender except. Identify the odd one out.

a)

Use of complex words or jargon

b)

speaking too fast

c)

Break down of the medium.e.g. computer failure

d)

sending a message to wrong receiver/sending wrong message

e)

too long message

28.

Which of the following is not a way of overcoming barriers to effective communication?

a)

The sender should use simple language which is understandable

b)

The shortest possible channel should be used

c)

Encourage two way communication to improve positive work relationships

d)

Brief messages

e)

Use notice boards for all communications

29.

Which of the following is not true about written communication?

a)

Direct feedback is not always possible, unless electronic communication is used

b)

There is no opportunity for body language to be used to reinforce message

c)

There is opportunity for immediate feedback and two way communication

d)

Provide hard evidence that can be referred to in the future

e)

Suitable for complicated details such as health and safety measures and manuals on machine operation.

30.

Restrictions that prevent a message from being sent/received/understood effectively.

a)

Communication barriers

b)

Internal communication

c)

One-way communication

d)

Transmitter

31.

The _____________ or sender of the message is the person starting off the process by sending the message.

a)

Transmitter

b)

Receiver

c)

Feedback

d)

Message

32.

__________ involves a message which does not call for or require a response.

a)

One-way communication

b)

Two-way communication

c)

Formal communication

d)

Informal communication

33.
What is leadership?
a)
the ability to influence individuals and groups to accomplish important goals.
b)
the way people get along with each other.
c)
the way a manager treats and directs employees.
d)
the process of dealing with or controlling/directing people.
34.
Taylor's views on worker motivation suggests that:
a)
workers will work hard when they have clean conditions
b)
workers will work hard when they enjoy work socially
c)
workers will work harder when they are paid more
d)
workers work harder when they are given extra responsibility
35.
One disadvantage of the piece rate system of wages is that:
a)
workers have to fill in detailed time sheets
b)
high output is discouraged as workers will receive more pay
c)
quality may be a problem if workers work too fast
d)
little time is wasted by workers
36.

Which of the following is NOT the factor in the hygiene factor?

a)

recognition of achievement

b)

working conditions

c)

salary or wage

d)

relationship with others

37.
This leader encourages group members to participate, but retains the final say over the decision-making process.
a)
Autocratic
b)
Democratic
c)
Laissez-Faire
38.
This leadership style can be effective in situations where group members are highly qualified in an area of expertise.
a)
Autocratic
b)
Democratic
c)
Laissez-Faire
39.
This leader offers little or no guidance and leaves decision- making up to the group.
a)
Autocratic
b)
Democratic
c)
Laissez-Faire
40.

Which one of the following is NOT considered to be a cost?

a)

rent

b)

salary

c)

sales revenue

d)

insurance

41.

Costs that do not change in the short term, regardless of output are called:

a)

variable costs

b)

fixed costs

c)

average costs

d)

total costs

42.

Costs that change based on the amount of goods and services produced

a)

total costs

b)

fixed costs

c)

variable costs

d)

average costs

43.

Raw materials, packaging, labour costs, are examples of:

a)

fixed costs

b)

variable costs

c)

total costs

d)

profit

44.

To ensure successful delegation, the chosen employee must have

a)

willingness and ability

b)

ability and liability

c)

habits and denial

d)

acceptance and procrastination

45.

Employees may often feel this way when given delegated work.

a)

sad

b)

angry

c)

valued

d)

discriminated

46.

Delegation occurs when managers give______to subordinates

a)

money

b)

more trust

c)

new offices

d)

more responsibility

47.

What is delegation?

a)

Giving authority to subordinates to do a particular task

b)

Passing down full responsibility to subordinates

c)

Ordering workers to do certain jobs

d)

Keeping full control with senior managers

48.
An advantage of delegation is
a)
workers have less work to do
b)
managers can concentrate on more important tasks
c)
managers lose some of their responsibilities
d)
managers can control subordinates more  closely
49.
One of the disadvantages of delegation is that
a)
workers are given more authority
b)
there is less control over the work done by staff
c)
managers have more work to do
d)
workers may gain job enrichment
50.
Which of the following is a possible drawback of on-the-job training?
a)
There will be additional expenses from travel costs.
b)
Workers will not gain experience of people outside the firm
c)
The worker won't be able to do any work during the training.
d)
The business will not have to employ its own training staff.
51.
Which of the following is one reason for a business using induction training for new workers?
a)
to see who is staying and who is leaving the business
b)
to check the standard of work of all workers
c)
to help select the workers that to be employed by the firm
d)
to explain the firm’s procedures and methods of working
52.

When employment is ended against the will of the employee, usually for not working in accordance with the employment contract.

a)

Dismissal

b)

Redundancy

c)

Resignation

d)

Retrenchment

53.

Involves being trained away from the workplace, usually by specialist trainers.

a)

Induction training

b)

On-the-job training

c)

Off-the-job training

d)

Training

54.

Watching a more experienced worker doing the job.

a)

On-the-job training

b)

Off-the-job training

c)

Induction training

d)

off site training

55.

What can location decisions have a big impact on?

a)

Costs

b)

Revenues

c)

Costs and Revenues

56.

Which of these is a challenge a business faces when setting up a business overseas?

a)

Greater control of your business activities overseas

b)

Cultural and language barriers

c)

Can provide a more personalised service to customers based locally

57.

Which is an example of infrastructure?

a)

Staff

b)

Markets

c)

Roads

58.

What happens when a government gives a business a location grant?

a)

It is repaid

b)

It is repaid with interest

c)

It does not need to be repaid

59.

What is a new shop in a city centre NOT likely to benefit from?

a)

Low rents

b)

An established infrastructure

c)

Availability of a specialist support services

60.

The rise of the internet has meant that many businesses costs are:

a)

Lower as there is more need for expensive retail premises

b)

Higher as there is more need for expensive retail premises

c)

Higher as there is less need for expensive retail premises

d)

Lower as there is less need for expensive retail premises

61.

Online businesses locate in less expensive and more remote locations because:

a)

They need to be close to the competition

b)

They do not need to be close to the market

c)

They need to be close to raw materials

d)

Costs do not matter in online business

62.

A new start-up café is most likely to locate close to its:

a)

Competitors

b)

Suppliers

c)

Employees

d)

Customers

63.
Which of the following is an advantage of television advertising?
a)
It is cheaper than most other forms of advertising.
b)
It can be used to give the consumer product information.
c)
It can be aimed at audiences at different times of the day.
d)
All members of the target audience will see the adverts
64.
If a firm wanted to advertise the technical details of its products, it would use:
a)
a business newspaper
b)
billboards and posters
c)
radio
d)
cinema adverts
65.

Why would a business use TV advertising?

a)

It is cheap

b)

It reaches a large audience

c)

It's highly targeted

d)

It's two-way communication

66.

What is an advantage of using social media as advertising?

a)

It can be free/cheap

b)

It appeals to only a younger audience

c)

It is easy to get right

d)

YouTube

67.

Which P is the most important?

a)

Product

b)

Promotion

c)

Price

d)

Place

e)

None

68.

What is a disadvantage of radio advertising?

a)

Nobody listens to the radio

b)

People don't like music

c)

You can't show the product

d)

Nick Grimshaw

69.
________ involves dividing a market into smaller segments of buyers with distinct needs, characteristics, or behaviors that might require separate marketing strategies or mixes. 
a)
Mass customization
b)
Market targeting
c)
Market segmentation
d)
Differentiation
70.
Product, price, place, and promotion make up the _____________________.
a)
Marketing Concept
b)
Marketing Mix
c)
Marketing Oriented
d)
Marketing Behavior
71.

The marketing mix is:

a)

product, price, place, promotion

b)

product, people, printing, place

c)

people, price, product, place

d)

pricing, people, promote, place