Worksheets2 APK April 1997
Total questions: 200
Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins
These vesicular organelles allow the cells to digest and thereby remove unwanted substances and structures
None of these
Perixisomes
Ribosomes
Lysosomes
In this foot deformity, the heel is off the ground:
Pes varus
Pes calcaneus
Pes Equinus
Pes Cavus
Inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume plus expiratory reserve volume:
A. Vital capacity
B. Total Lung Capacity
C. Inspiratory Capacity
D. Functional Residual Capacity
A terminal branch in the terminal artery:
A. None of these
B. Middle Cerebral Artery
C. Opthalmic Artery
D. Lenticulostriate arteries
Partial tearing to this ligament occurs at its femoral or tibial attachment and is a result of the forced abduction of the tibia in the femur:
A. Lateral collateral ligament
B. Anterior cruciate ligament
C. Medial collateral ligament
C. Posterior cruciate ligament
Which of the following statements is true of the hip adductors?
A. Most of the adductors can flex as well as adduct
B. All of these
C. They can assist in extending the hip
D. Because they pass behind the femur, they can assist in medial rotation
The process of reproduction by which the cells splits to form two daughter cells:
A. Pinocytosis
B. Phagocytosis
C. Miosis
D. Mitosis
Which of the following statements about the gluteus maximus is true?
A. It is a rotator of the extended thigh though it losses power if the thigh is flexed
B. All of these
C. None of these
D. It is an extensor of the hip but is used only when the joint has to be extended with power
The following statements are true about the right atrium, except:
A. It receives the venous blood returning from all parts of the body except the lungs
B. The superior vena cava enters it vertically from above
C. The inferior vena cava enters it vertically from below
D. It receives blood from the lungs via the pulmonary veins
Reflex responses mediated by more than two neuron:
A. None of these
B. Polysynaptic responses
C. Both of these
D. Monosynapthic reflex responses
The Chopart joint, a surgical level of amputation is formed by these articulating surfaces:
A. Tarsometatarsal and transverse tarsal joint
B. None of these
C. Talonavicular and calcaneocuboid joints
D. Talocrural and tarsometatarsal
Pulmonary edema may be caused by:
A. None of these
B. Both of these
C. Damage to the pulmonary capillary membrane due to infections
D. Mitral valve disease or left heart failure
When the deltoid and supraspinatus are paralyzed, arm elevation is still possible through this muscle:
A. Coracobrachialis
B. Long head of the biceps
C. Infraspinatus
D. Triceps brachii
The following statements are true of the closed kinematic chain, except:
A. Stair climbing is an alternating closed-chain motion during the support phrase of the extremity
B. The distal segment moves in space
C. All the segments are required to move in the movement of one segement
D. The distal segment is fixed and proximal parts move
The following statements are true, except:
A. Abnormal range of acid-base balance is + or 0.5 from the normal pH of 7.4
B. Paralysis may develop if calcium concentration falls to less than 1/3 of the normal
C. Tetanic concentration of muscles may develop if calcium ion concentration falls below 1/2 the normal due to a spontaneous generation
D. A 6 to 7 degree temperature increase above normal may lead to increased cellular metabolism that destroys cells
These junctions point are where the terminal branches of an axon come in contact with the dendrites of the succeeding neuron:
A. Receptor
B. Synapse
C. End-organ
D. Effector
The following statements are true of the patella. Except:
A. Decreases pressure and distributes forces on the femur
B. It is unable to prevent damaging forces on the quadriceps tendon in resisted knee flexion
C. Increases the leverage of the quadriceps femoris
D. When the knee is flexed, it provides bony protection to the distal joint surfaces of the femoral condyles
This neurotransmitter is synthesized by mitochondria at the end-plate of the motor neuron:
A. Myosin
B. Actin
C. Acetylcholine
D. Troponin
In thrombosis of the anterior spinal artery, the following happens, except:
A. Damage to spinothalamic tract results in loss of pain and temperature sense
B. Sudden onset of symptoms with severe pain
C. Involvement of bIlateral corticospinal tract results in flaccid paraplegia
D. Produced bilateral atrophy and flaccid paralysis at the level of the lesion
The fibula functions as:
A. All of these
B. Given origin to a muscle
C. Act as lateral “splint” for the ankle joint
D. Act as pulley for tendons passing behind it at the ankle
This ligament, in company with the supraspinatus muscle prevents the downward dislocation of the humeral head:
A. Coracobrachial ligament
B. Glenohumeral ligament
C. Coracocromial ligament
D. Coracohumeral ligament
When applied, third class lever, the most common found in the human body can be:
A. All of these
B. Levers that work at a mechanical advantage
C. Levers that operate at a mechanical disadvantage but one of speed
D. Levers of stability and speed
Nerve supply to the instrinsic muscles of the larynx are branches from:
A. Accessory nerve
B. Vagus nerve
C. Hypoglossal nerve
D. Glossopharyngeal nerve
The 10th cranial nerve, its post ganglionic fibers innervate cardiac and smooth muscles:
A. Accessory nerve
B. Vestibulocochlear nerve
C. Hypoglossal nerve
D. Vagus nerve
Rotation around the vertical axis occur in this plane, and divides the body into upper and lower parts:
A. Horizontal place
B. Sagittal plane
C. None of these
D. Frontal plane
Nerve supply of the sternocleidomastoicd:
A. Dorsal occiptal nerve
B. Lesser occiptal nerve
C. Greater occiptal nerve
D. Spinal accessory nerve
Following statement are true of Brown-Sequard syndrome, except:
A. Lateral column damage results in paralysis of muscles on the same side of the body below the injury
B. Anterolateral system damage results in loss of pain and temperature sensation on the same side of the body below the level of injury
C. Simple touch sensation may be unimpaired due to intact dorsal columns opposite the lesion
D. With dorsal column damage, there is loss of position and vibratory sense, and tactile discrimination on the same side of the body below the level of the injury
Flexion-extension tremor of the head and a fine flexion-extension tremor of the fingers when extended:
A. Parkinsonian tremor
B. Myoclonus
C. Senile tremor
D. Cerebellar tremor
The following statements are true of the triceps brachii, except:
A. Palpation of the medial head is best in its distal portion, near the medial epicondyle
B. Distal attachment is to the olecranon process of the ulna
C. Innervated by radial nerve (C7-C8)
D. Performs only elbow extension
The roots of this nerve are C8 and T1. It arises from the medial cord of the brachial plexus descending in the interval between the axillary artery and vein:
A. Musculocutaneous nerve
B. Median nerve
C. Ulnar nerve
D. Radial nerve
Expiration in normal quiet breathing is due to:
A. Recoil of the chest wall lung system
B. Downward movement of the diaphragm
C. Contraction of the internal intercostals
D. None of these
Klupke’s palsy involves the following nerve root:
A. C4-C5
B. C7-C8
C. C6 - C7
D. C8 - T1
All carpal bones have four articulating surfaces, except:
A. Hamate
B. Trapezium
C. Pisiform
D. Scaphoid
Muscle achieve its greatest strength when muscle contract in the elongated position. As the muscles shorten, torque decreased:
A. First statement is true, second statement is false
B. First statement is false, second is statement true
C. Both statements are false
D. Both statement are true
The medial longitudinal arch consists of the following bones:
A. Calcaneus, talus, navicular bone. Three cuneiform bones and the first three metatarsal bones
B. Calcaneus, cuboid, fourth and fifth metatarsal bone
C. None of these
D. Bases of the Metatarsal bones and the cuboid and the three cuneiform bones
Resting cell membrane:
A. More permeable to K+ than Na+
B. More permeable to Na+ than K+
C. Not permeable to K+ and Na+
D. Equally permeable to Na+ and K+
These muscles retract and protract the scapula and turn the glenoid fossa downwards, thus forcibly lowering the raised arm. With other muscles, they keep the scpula applied to the chest wall:
A. Serratur Anterior
B. Levator Scapulae
C. Pectoralis Digitorum
D. Rhomboids
The mechanism by which the curvature of the lens surface is increased to bring image of near objects to a focus on the retina:
A. Dispersion
B. Myopia
C. Accommodation
D. Emmtropia
The radial nerve innervates the following muscles, except:
A. Extensor indicis proprius
B. Abductor pollicis brevis
C. Extensor digitorum
D. Two radial lumbricals
When a muscle contracts to eliminate some undesired movement that would otherwise be produced by the prime mover, it is said to be a:
A. Antagonist
B. Prime Mover
C. Synergist
D. Fixators
This ligament is useful in preventing the femur from being extended beyond the point at which the lower limb is in line with the trunk thus ensuring that little or no muscular effort is required to prevent one from rolling over at one’s hip joint:
A. Acetabular labrum
B. Transverse ligament of the acetabulum
C. Interosseus sacro-iliac ligaments
D. Iliofemoral ligament
The line of fusion between External Oblique is called:
A. Linea Alba
B. Inguibal ligament of Pouart
C. None of these
d. Aponeurosis
Occlusion of the main trunk of the middle cerebral artery produces the following, except:
A. Aphasia if occlusion in the dominant hemisphere
B. Decreased sensation in the same regions
C. Paralysis of the opposite side of the body
D. Paralysis of the same side of the body
Which of the following statements apply to the Scapulo-Humeral Mechanisms?
A. The scapula rotates to further elevate the arm above the head
B. At about 123deg of arm abduction, the greater tuberosity of the humerus comes into contact with the lateral edge of the acromion process
C. All of these
D. For every 3deg of arm abduction, 2deg abduction occurs in the shoulder joint and one degree of abduction occurs by rotation of the scapula
Determinants of muscle power:
A. Distance of contraction
B. Strength of muscle contraction
C. Number of contractions per minute
D. All of these
Muscles of digits that have their proximal and distal attachments within the hand is classified as:
A. Thenar muscles
B. None of these
C. Extrinsic muscles
D. Intrinsic muscles
A suddens increase in the membrane potential in a large nerve will cause the development of the action potential, This is termed as:
A. Positive feedback
B. None of these
C. Threshold for stimulation
D. Propagation of the action potential
This muscle is innervated by the facial nerve, except:
A. Risorius
B. Masseter
C. Frontalis
D. Mentalis
A large, flat, triangular muscle that wraps its tendon around the lower border of the teres major muscle and is inserted into the floor o the bicipital groove:
A. Teres Major
B. Subscapularis
C. Serratus Anterior
D. Latissimus Dorsi
In median nerve paralysis, the following happens, except:
A. Thumb flexion and opposition are lost and the thenar muscles atrophy
B. The adductor (thenar muscle) remains useful, enabling the thumb and index finger to hold a small object with the assistance of the first interossei
C. An active grasp may be accomplished by extending to flex as far as possible
D. The index and middle fingers lose their ability to flex
Excessive heel rise during the latter stance phase controlled by this muscle of the reference foot:
A. Tibialis anterior and extensor digitorum longus
B. Abductors
C. Quadriceps
D. Gastrocnemius and soleus
By placing the finger just under the zygomatic arch and over the ramus of the mandible, the superficial part of this muscle may be palpated when the subject bites down
A. Medial Pterygoid
B. Masseter
C. Temporalis
D. None of these
The innermost muscle of the abdominal wall and encloses the abdominal cavity like a corset:
A. External abdominal oblique
B. Transverus abdominis
C. Internal abdominal oblique
D. Rectus abdominis
These regions of the brain appear to be directly responsible for the regulator function of maintaining body temperature at 34deg celsius:
A. Corticomedial amygdala
B. Preventricular zone of the hypothalamus
C. Preoptic and anterior hypothalamic area
D. Denate gryus and hippocampus
Following statements apply to venous pumps, except:
A. Tightening of the muscles results to vein compresion, squeezing the blood out of the veins
B. Efficient enough to maintain less than 25mmHg venous pressure in the feet of a walking adult
C. If the subject stands motionless, venous pump does not work and could increase lower extremity venous pressure to 90mmHg in about 30seconds
D. Valves in veins allow bi-directional flow to and from the heart
The following statements are true of the lungs, except:
A. The right lung is longer and less voluminous
B. The wall of each alveolar duct and air sac is made up of ultimate unit known as alveoli
C. The left lung resembles, in general appearances the right except that it possesses no horizontal fissure, and therefore to 90mHd in about 30seconds
D. The lungs are supplied with branches of the sympathetic nervous system and of the vagus which is parasympathetic
This matrix is composed of intracellular constituents where myofibrils are suspended inside the muscle fiber:
A. Sarcoplasm
B. Z disc
C. Sarcolemma
D. A band
A lesion of the supramarginal gyrus to the dominant parietal lobe resulting in the subject’s inability to do what he or she wants to do:
A. Kinetic apraxia
B. Ideational apraxia
C. Ideomotor apraxia
D. Gait apraxia
Blood clotting mechanism includes the following, except:
A. Prothrombin is catalyzed into thrombin
B. Fibrinogen is converted into fibrin threads to form the clot itself
C. Prothrombin acts as enzyme to convert fibrinogen into fibrin threads
D. Prothrombin activator is formed in response to a ruptured vessel
Excessive anterior or posterior draw signs indicate ligamentous laxity if the talus can be distracted a few millimeter with the medial and lateral malleoli stabilized:
True
False
In Horner’s syndrome
A. Anhydrosis and vasodilation on affected side
B. Partial ptosis due to denervation of levator palpebrae superioris
C. Pupil of the eye on injured side due to dilator paralysis
D. All of these
Rotator cuff muscles are composed of the following:
A. All of these
B. None of these
C. Subscapularis and supraspinatus
D. Infrapsinatus and Teres minor
In scapulohumeral rhythm, after 30deg abduction, a 2:1 ratio occurs. For every 15deg of motion between 30 and 170deg of abduction, 10deg occur at the glenohumeral joint, and 5deg occur at the scapulothoracic joint
A. First statement is true, second statement is false
B. Both statements are true
C. Both statement are false
D. First statement is false, second statement is true
If two forces are pulling form the same point:
A. The resultant force reaches maximum when the forces are on the same line and acting in opposite direction
B. The resultant force is the sum of the two forces
C. The resultant force is the diagonal parallelogram
D. The resultant force increase as the angle between the two forces decreases
Which of the following muscles are innervated by the 5th cranial nerve and closes the jaw:
A. Medial pterygoid
B. All of these
C. Temporalis
D. Masseter
In Romberg’s sign, the patient stands with feet together and eyes open. The sign is positive if the patient swats or falls when the eyes are closed
A. First statement is true, second statement is false
B. Both statements are false
C. Both statement are true
D. First statement is false, second statement is true
This ligament supports the head of the talus and when over stretched, it will reduce the amount of longitudinal area resulting in flatfloot deformity:
A. Calcaneonavicular ligament
B. Deltoid ligament
C. Calcaneofibular ligament
D. Talofibular ligament
Which of the following is true of the radius:
A. All of these
B. The radius lies on a plane anterior to the Ulna
C. The radial shaft cross in front of the ulna while the radial head revolves to perform the movement of pronation
D. The radial shaft crossing over the ulna is further aided by the radius that is bowed a little lateralwards
If the angle is less than 170deg on the medial side of the knee on weight bearing on one leg, the condition is referred to as:
A. None of these
B. Q-Angle
C. Geno valgum
D. Genu varum
Following statements are true of pernicious anemia, except:
A. Loss of position and vibration sense in the legs and positive Romberg sign
B. Degeneration of dorsal and lateral columns of the spinal cord including gray matter
C. In later states, muscle stretch reflex may disappear
D. Difficulty in walking and tingling sensations in the feet
The radiocarpal joint is formed by the biconcave distal end of the radius and biconcave proximal articulating surfaces of the following carpal bones:
A. Capitate and Lunate
B. Scaphoid and trapezoid
C. Scaphoid and Lunate
D. None of these
The following statements are true of trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloreux), except:
A. A samll trigger zone may set off a painful paroxysm
B. Attacks of severe pain may last several minutes at time
C. Attacks of severe pain over the distribution of one or more branches of the trigeminal nerve
D. Etiology is unknown
The posterior triangle of the neck is bounded by:
A. Scalenes, levator scapulae, splenius
B. Splenius capitis, sternohyoid and clavicle
C. None of these
D. Sternomastoid, anterior border of trapezius, clavicle
As action potential travels over the muscle fiber membrane, large quantities of calcium ions are released which activate the forces between filaments to initiate contraction. This cause:
A. The myosin filaments to slide inward among the actin filaments
B. The actin filaments to slide outwards among the myosin filaments
C. The actin filaments to slide inwards among the myosin filaments
D. The myosin filaments to slide outwards among the actin filaments
When all body parts move in the same direction with equal velocity, the movement is termed as:
A. Translatory motion
B. Rotary motion
C. Parallel motion
D. Angular motion
Secondary neuron, located in and outlying ganglion and innervates the end organ:
A. Postganglionic neuron
B. Preganglionic neuron
C. Gamma motor neuron
D. None of these
To help control a paraplegic’s functional activities, the following compensatory mechanisms are applicable, except:
A. Use of orthosis or braces to stabilize knees and ankles to gain standing balance by exploiting the Y-ligaments to limit hip extension
B. Bilateral contraction of the latissimus dorsi can lift the entire body forward in “swing through” crutch gait
C. Closed-chain approximation of latssimus dorsi produces hip elevation to move one extremity forward at a time
D. HAT center of gravity move anterior to the axis of hip joint to maintain pelvis in extension on femur
The following statements are true of acromioclavicular joint, except:
A. No loss of scapular rotation was apparent with acromioclavicular joint fixation
B. It contributes 20deg of scapular elevation and about 20deg of upward rotation during full arm elevation
C. Range of motion of the scapula is w
D. The joint has three axes and 2deg freedom
These fibers crosses the midline from one hemisphere to the other, a pathway of communication between the two hemisphere:
A. Association fibers
B. Projection fibers
C. Commissural fiber
D. None of these
Air volume remaining in the lungs after maximum expiratory effort:
A. Vital capacity
B. Residual volume
C. Functional residual capacity
D. Expiratory reserve volume
The intrinsic muscles of the foot are innervated by:
A. Deep peroneal nerve
B. Posterior tibial nerve
C. Anterior tibial nerve
D. Superficial peroneal nerve
The ulnar nerve innervate the following muscles, except:
A. Adductor pollicis
B. Palmaris longus
C. All hypothenar muscles
D. All interossei
The following statements are true of the shoulder, except:
A. The torque is maintained as the muscles shorten
B. In the 3-60deg of abduction, the leverage for he supraspinatus was greater tham the deltoid
C. The greatest strength occurs when the muscles contract in the elongated position
D. Lever arm lengths of the deltoid increase with the motion of abduction
A short tube joining the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle in the midbrain:
A. Cerebral aqueduct of sylvius
B. Lateral ventricle
C. Subarachnoid space
D. Cistern
The deepest muscle of the leg, is an inverter of the foot and plantar flexes the transverse tarsal joint:
A. Tibialis posterior
B. Flexor hallucis longus
C. Abductor hallucis
D. Flexor digitorum
The only tarsal bone with no muscle attachment:
A. Cuboid
B. Talus
C. Navicular
D. Calcaneus
Which of the following does the femoral nerve supply?
A. All of these
B. The skin of the front of the thigh and of the medial side of the leg as far as the base of the great toe
C. The muscle in front of the thigh
D. The hip and knee joints
This muscle draws the mandible forward and towards the midline:
A. Pterygoid
B. Temporalis
C. Masseter
D. Orbicularis oris
Mechanoreceptors that detect vibration and are found in the skin and connective tissues are surrounding bones and joints:
A. Muscle spindle
B. Meissner’s corpuscles
C. Pacinian corpuscles
D. None of these
Which of these large vessels arise from the arch of the aorta?
A. Left subclavian artery
B. Brachiocephalic trunk
C. Left common carotid artery
D. All of these
Loss of the ability to carry out correctly certain movements in response to stimuli that normally elicit these movements:
A. Agnosia
B. Apraxia
C. Aphasia
D. None of these
The vagal system includes the following, except:
A. VI cranial nerve
B. Cranial portion of XI cranial nerve
C. IX cranial nerve
D. X cranial nerce
Which of the following statements are true of Spleen?
A. It produces lymphocytes and is the principal residence of reticulo-edothelial cells of the body
B. It is about the size of a person’s fist and lies in the upper left part of the abdominal cavity in contact with the diaphragm
C. It regulates the number of red blood cells in circulation
D. All of these
Which of the following statement is true of biceps brachii?
A. Its effectiveness as a supinator is almost four times as effective as the supinator at an angle of 90deg
B. Its effectiveness as a supinator diminishes as the elbow is extended
C. All of these
D. It is most effective as a supinator when the elbow is flexed at about a 90deg
These fibers bring neurons of one part of the cortex of a hemisphere into communication with those of the another part of the same hemisphere:
A. Projection fiber
B. None of these
C. Association fibers
D. Commisural fibers
This vertically-direct device acts as the pivot round which the rotation occurs and which brings the lateral rotation of the tibia (or medial rotation of the femur) to a halt. Its direction prevents backward dislocation of the femur:
A. Anterior cruciate ligament
B. Medial ligament
C. Association fiber
D. Commisural fiber
In closed-chain motion, the distal attachments, (crest of ilium) of this muscle can aid in lifting the pelvis, so that the foot clears the ground:
A. Pectorals major
B. Levator scapulae
C. Latissimus dorsi
D. None of these
The size principles of recruitment is best described as follows:
A. The smallest motor neurons are the first recruited and the largest motor neurons are never recruited
B. None of these
C. The largest motor neurons are the first recruited and the smallest motor neurons are recruited last
D. The smallest motor neurons are the first recruited and the largest motor neurons are recruited last
Which of the following are true of the palmar aponeurosis?
A. All of these
B. It protects underlying structures and prevents the palm of the hand from being readily pinched
C. The palmaris longus insets into this triangular fibrous sheet which occupies the palm of the hand
D. The aponeurosis is present even when the palmaris longus is absent
The first to seventh ribs attached to sternum, the 8th to 10th ribs joined by cartilage, 11th and 12th ribs have free ends.
A. All statements are true
B. All statements are false
C. Last statement is true, first two statements are false
D. First two statement are true, last statements is false
The following statements are true of the hip joints, except:
A. There is a slight iliacus activity when standing at ease
B. Subjects with bilateral KAFC are supported at the hips by the iliofemoral ligaments when standing
C. Collapse at the hip is likely in subjects with biateral lower extremity paralysis when the center of gravity of HAT moves behind the hip axis
D. Backward tilting the pelvis to decrease the lumbar curve could cause an artificial knee to buckle
The following statements are true of syringomyelia, except:
A. There is loss pain and temperature sense with a segmental distribution in both upper extremity
B. There is progressive cavitation around or near the central canal of the spinal cord
C. Even in later stages, paralysis and muscle atrophy of the segments involved does not occur
D. There is no sensory impairment in the lower extremity
Following statements are true of lesions of the posterior roots, except:
A. Frequent cause of injury is herniation of nucleus pulposus
B. Injury usually result in pain and paresthesia that occur in the distribution of the affected roots
C. There is no loss of associated muscles reflex
D. Loss of sensation is a dermatomal distribution is apparent
This lobe of the lateral surface of the hemisphere is caudal to an arbitrary line drawn from the parietooccipital fissure to the preoccipital notch, and occupies and extensive area on the medial aspect of the hemipsepere:
A. Occipital lobe
B. Parietal lobe
C. Insular lobe
D. Frontal lobe
These structures pass through the transverse foramen:
A. Spinal column arteries
B. None of these
C. Cervical nerve plexus
D. Vertebral arteries
This terms refers to the use of sensory input from receptors in muscle spindles, tendons and joints to discriminate joint position, and joint movement, including direction, amplitude and speed, and relative tension with tendons:
A. All of these
B. Kinesthesia
C. None of these
D. Proprioception
Deep tendon reflexes are:
A. Polysynaptic nerce response
B. Monosynaptic reflex response
C. Both of these
D. None of these
May result from lesion in the dominant parietal lobe of the corpus callosum in which the subject fails to carry out sequences of acts over if individual movements are correct:
A. Ideomotor apraxia
B. Kinetic apraxia
C. Gait apraxia
D. Ideational apraxia
Motor nerve to the muscle of mastication:
A. Facial nerve
B. Trigeminal nerve
C. Spinal accessory nerve
D. Vagus nerve
This deformity is a result of the avulsion of the central slip of the extensor tendon proximal to its insertion in the base of the middle phalanx:
A. Medial nerve palsy
B. Mallet finger
C. Boutonniere deformity
D. Trigger finger
When the first metacarpal rotates on the trapezium to place the thumb against the fingers, this motion is called:
A. Adduction
B. None of these
C. Opposition
D. Abduction
Sixth cranial nerve of the pons and medulla:
A. Oculomotor nerve
B. Trigeminal nerve
C. Abducens nerve
D. Trochlear nerve
In an open-packed or loosed packed position, except:
A. The ligamentoud and capsular structures are slack
B. The ovoid joint surfaces are incongruent
C. Allows spinning, rolling and sliding, thereby increasing joint friction
D. Joint surfaces may be distracted several millimeters
This type of joint is formed by the talus and tibia
A. Pivot
B. Sadde
C. Hinge
D. Ball and Socket
The cerebrospinal fluid serves the following function:
A. Drains unwanted substances from the brain
B. Buoyancy for the brain, serving as a mechanical cushion
C. All of these
D. Preserves homeostasis
This muscle originates from the medial half of the clavicle from the sternum, and from the upper six costal cartilages:
A. Pectoralis Major
B. Pectoralis minor
C. Serratus anterior
D. Subclavius
The following statements are true of the ulnar nerve, except:
A. The deep branch supply the hypothenar muscles, the medial two lumbricals, the adductor pollicis and the interossei
B. At about the midlength of the arm, it is found behind, and in contact with, the medial epicondyle of the humerus
C. It divides into a (1) superficial branch, a (2) deep branch and an (3) intermediate branch
D. The only muscles it supplies above the wrist are the flexor carpi ulnaris and the medial half of the glexor digitorum profundus
Factors responsible to maintain a potential difference across the cell membrane:
A. None of these
B. Cell can actively move ions across the membrane to maintain a required resting potential
C. Cell membrane is relatively permeable to certain ions
D. Both of these
In ulnar nerve paralysis, the following happens, except:
A. The hypothenar group does not function
B. The 4th and 5th digits cannot be extended due to the absence of instrinsic muscles
C. Abduction and adduction of all digits are not affected
D. The extensor digitorum is capable of extending the IP joints if the MCP joints are stabilized in a flexed position
Ohm’s law states:
A. Blood flow is directly proportional to the absolute pressure but proportional to the resistance
B. Blood flow is directly proportional to the pressure difference but inversely proportional to the resistance
C. Blood flow is inversely proportional to the pressure difference but directly proportional to the resistance
D. Blood flow is directly proportional to the absolute but inversely proportional to the resistance
Way by which lung can be expanded:
A. Diaphragmatic up and down motion which lengthens or shortens chest cavity
B. All of these
C. None of these
D. Increase in anteroposterior diameter of the chest cavity by elevating and depressing the ribs
These muscles separate the neck into the posterior and anterior triangle. It also protects the great vascular and nerve trunks:
A. Sternocleidomastoid
B. Sternohyoid
C. Levator scapulae
D. Scalenes
This muscle is a powerful adductor of the arm and a medial rotator. The clavicular head flexes the shoulder joint and from this position the sternal head extends the shoulder joint:
A. None of these
B. Latissimus Dorsi
C. Pectoralis minor
D. Pectoralis major
The following statements are true of the plantar aponeurosis, except:
A. It is firm when the MTP joint is manually placed in 45deg of hyperextension
B. It is an attachment for intrinsic muscles of the foot and facial covering the others
C. It helps prevent displacement of the calcaneus from the metatarsal heads and collapse of the arches
D. It is a series of fascial bands on the dorsum and sides of the foot
The height of this specific vertebrae may be used to determine the corresponding landmark:
A. All of these
B. T10 body-tip of the xiphoid process
C. S2-height of posterior superior iliac spines
D. L4 spinous process-level with the highest portion of the crest of the ilium
Th following statements apply to motor aphasia, except:
A. Spoken language is slow and full of effort with poorly produced sounds
B. Lesions is in Broca’s area
C. Extreme difficulty in expressing certain grammatical words and phrases
D. Poor comprehension of spoken and written language
This muscle is the most powerful of the scapula, its paralysis results in “winged scapular”:
A. Pectoralis minor
B. Levator scapulae
C. Serratus anterior
D. Rhomboids
In a circling movement performed by the shoulder girdle, this joint is the pivot joint:
A. Glenohumeral joint
B. Acromioclavicular joint
C. Sternoclavicular joint
D. Subacromial joint
Skeletal muscles relax when:
A. The z-lines come closer to each other
B. There is an increase in cross linkages between action and myosin
C. Calcium ion is actively pumped back into the sarcoplasmic rerticulum
D. All of these
This opening is a triangular-shaped defect in the external oblique aponeurosis that lies above and media to the pubic tubercle:
A. Cremasteric ring
B. Superficial inguinal ring
C. Femoral ring
D. External spermatic fascia
The pulmonary artery leaves the heart via:
A. Right ventricle
B. Left auricle
C. Right ventricle
D. Left ventricle
Almost the whole of the board sacral plexus narrows down to form a huge branch called:
A. Femoral nerve
B. Obturator nerve
C. Sciatic nerve
D. Saphenous nerve
The following extraocular muscles are supplied by cranial nerve III, except:
A. Inferior rectus
B. Inferior oblique
C. Superior rectus
D. Superior oblique
This muscle can be palpated by placing the fingers over the temporal fossa. This muscle contracts as the subject bites down:
A. Temporalis
B. None of these
C. Medial pterygoid
D. Masseter
The sensory nerve supply of the eyeball is:
A. Opthalmic division o the fifth (trigeminal) cranial nerve
B. Third (oculomotor) cranial nerve
C. Fourth (trochlear) cranial nerve
D. Sixth (abducens) cranial nerve
Innervates the tongue musculature:
A. Abducens
B. Glossopharayngeal nerve
C. Vagus nerve
D. Hypoglossal nerve
The following statements are true of the rotator cuff muscles, except:
A. The supraspinatus of attches to the lesser humeral tubercle, while the infraspinatus and teres minor attached on the lower tubercle
B. Shoulder external rotation are limited primarily by the subscapularis and the lower part of the capsule
C. The subscapularis is a passive stabilizer to prevent anterior subluxation of the humeroud
D. These muscles produce abduction, internal and external rotation of the glenohumeral joint
The neck-shaft angle of the femur is greater than 125deg, this deiation results in increased leg length and decreasde muscle strength due to torque changes in muscle lever arms and length-tension relationships:
A. Retroversion
B. Coxa valga
C. Anteroversion
D. Coxa vara
As the brachialis extends a flexed elbow by slowing the movement of extension which is performed by gravity, this muscle acts as:
A. Fixators
B. Prime mover
C. Antagonist
D. Synergist
Which of the following determines fluid movement through the capillary membrane?
A. Interstitial fluid pressure
B. Plasma colloid osmotic pressure
C. Capillary pressure
D. All of these
Since terminal knee extension requires sacral rotation of the tibia on the femur, initiation of knee flexion requires the reverse action of medial rotation of the tibia on femur. This action is performed by:
A. Poplitieus
B. Semitendinosus
C. Articularis genu
D. Plantaris
The following are true of myostatic reflex, except:
A. Capable of increasing tension for postural muscle tone
B. Basic neural mechanism for maintaining tone in muscle
C. Results from inputs to motorneuron pools from groups I and II
D. All of these
Following muscles are supplied by branches of 7th cranial nerve, except:
A. Mentalis
B. Orbicularis oris
C. Nasalis
D. Levator palpebrae superioris
The following statements are true of the facial nerve, except:
A. It supplied the stylohyoid, posterior belly of the digastric muscles of the neck and the stapedius muscle of the middle ear
B. It emerges from the anterior surface of the hindbrain between the pons and medulla oblongata
C. It emerges as two roots from the anterior surface of the hindbrain between the pons and the medulla oblongata
D. It controls taste sensation from the anterior part of the tongue and the floor of the mouth and from the palate
The following statements are true of the terminal rotation of the knee, except:
A. Allows humans with an energy-efficient mechanism a mechanical stability to stand erect without quadriceps muscle contraction
B. Terminal rotation is seen as internal rotation of the femur on the fixed tibia in an closed-chain motion
C. In the last 20deg of knee extension, the tibia externally rotate about 20deg on the fixed femur
D. It is a mechanical event that occurs only in active knee extension and can voluntarily be prevented
Flexion and extension occurs in this plane, and divides the body into right and left sides:
A. Frontal plane
B. Horizontal plane
C. Sagittal plane
D. None of these
Function of the soleus, except:
A. Postural muscle
B. Ankle plantarflexion
C. Does not involve in forceful plantarflexion
D. Concerned with ankle stabilization than gastrocnemius
The following statements are true of the median nerve, except:
A. It enters the palm with the long tendons and supplies three thenar muscles, and all lumbrical
B. As it passes the cubital fossa, it gives off a deep branches of the anterior interosseus nerve
C. It is forced from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus
D. It accompanies the axillary and brachial arteries but gives no branch until it reaches the elbow region
In resting state, the cell membrane is:
A. None of these
B. Polarized with the outside positive in relation to the inside
C. Depolarized with the outside negative in relation to the inside
D. Positive and negative polarization are distributed equally on either side
The pressure at the height of each pulse, which is about 120mmHg in young adults:
A. Stroke volume output
B. Diastolic pressure
C. Pulse pressure
D. Systolic pressure
The Wallerian degeneration, a peripheral nerve fiber is transected or permanently destroyed. In the process, the part separated from the nerve cell body degenerates completely, and loses its myelin sheath in the process
A. Both statements are true
B. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
C. Both statements are false
D. The first statement is false, the second statement is true
The following structure is a modified skin that lines not only the inner surfaces of the lids but also reflected on to the eyeball:
A. Lacrimal
B. Tarsal gland
C. Conjucntiva
D. Canaliculus
This ligament of the vertebral column is a series of 23 intersegmental ligaments that connect the lamina of two adjacent vertebrae from C2 to the sacrum
A. Supraspinous ligament
B. Intertransverse ligament
C. Ligamentum flavum
D. Interspinous ligament
Which of the functional differences between the hand and foot joints are true:
A. MCP permit 90deg of flexion, while MTP hyperextension is 90deg
B. All of these
C. Toe abduction/adduction have less range of motion than the hand
D. MCP allow 0-30deg of hyperextension, while MTP flexion all 30-45deg
Lesion to the oculomotor nerve results in the following conditions, except:
A. Mydirasis
B. Diplopia
C. External strabismus
D. Ptosis
This structure completes a collar in which the radial head revolves and also tends to prevent the radius from being pulled down out if its socket:
A. Lateral ligament
B. Annular ligament
C. Medial ligament
D. Collateral ligament
The statements apply to inspiratory capacity, except:
A. Equal residual volume plus the inspiratory reserve volume
B. Amount of air one can breathe at normal expiratory level and distending the lungs to the maximum
C. Equals tidal volume plus the inspiratory level
D. Amount of air is about 3500mL
Failure to recognize stimuli when the appropriate sensory systems are functioning adequately:
A. Aphasia
B. Aphonia
C. Agnosia
D. Apraxia
The following statements applies to the dorsal root ganglia:
A. Both of these
B. None of these
C. Origin of afferent sensory fibers
D. Round cells with one process leaving the body
Amount of air remaining in the lungs at the end of normal expiration:
A. Vital capacity
B. Functional residual capacity
C. Inspiratory capacity
D. Total lung capacity
The thoracolumbar fascia provides humans the ability to lift heavy weights overhead. It also stabilizes the trunk for throwing objects with high velocities.
A. Both statements are false
B. Both statements are true
C. First statement is true, the second statement is false
D. First statement is false, the second statement is true
This muscle is proximally attached to anterior superior spine of the ilium and attached distally to the medial surface of the tibia. It is innervated by the femoral nerve and flexes, externally rotates and adducts the hip as well as flexes and medially rotates the knee:
A. Rectus femoris
B. Sartorius
C. Pectineus
D. Tensor fasia latae
These long muscles flex the second to fifth digits of the IP joints:
A. None of these
B. Flexor digitorum superficialis
C. Flexor digitorum profundus
D. Both of these
On the medial side of foot, just distal to the tip of the medial malleolus, this slight protuberance may be felt:
A. Sustentaculum tali
B. First cuneiform
C. Tuberosity of the navicular
D. Medial tubercle of the talus
This specialized join of the craniovertebral area are formed by one centrally located articulation and two facets whose axis of motion is vertical through the dens, accounting for 50% of rotation in the cervical area:
A. None of these
B. Atlanto-occipital joint
C. Cervical vertebral articulation
D. Atlanto-axial joint
In this class of lever, force is applied at one end of the lever arm; the weight to be moved is at the other, and the fulcrum is at some point intermediate between the two, as exemplified by a see-saw:
A. Second class lever
B. First class lever
C. None of these
D. Third class lever
If the body temperature is greater than the surroundings, heat loss is by:
A. None of these
B. Both of these
C. Radiation and conduction
D. Evaporation
The sinu-atrial node, which regulates the strength and rate of the heart beat is located in the wall of:
A. Right atrium
B. Left ventricle
C. Right ventricle
D. Left auricle
Mobility of the thumb is possible because of the following:
A. All of these
B. The nine thumb muscles can combine their actions in finely graded movement combinations
C. The saddle-shaped joint of the thumb and loose capsule
D. The metacarpal bone of the thumb is not bounds to the other metacarpals by ligaments
Occlusion of the posterolateral thalamic branches in the thalamic syndrome may result in the following, except:
A. Partial to complete loss of sensation on the same side of the body
B. Severe, burning, constant pain in the regions with limited sensation
C. Cerebellar ataxia and tremor may be produced in the extremities of the opposite side
D. Sensations of touch, pain and temperature are decreased in the affected limbs
The following statements are true of the radial nerve, except:
A. The nerve divides into a long superficial branch and the deep branch or posterior interosseus nerve
B. As it crosses the elbow joint, it supplies the muscles arising from the lateral supracondylar ridge; the brachioradialis and the ECRB
C. A little farther down the arm, it passes obliquely lateral wards to run behind the humerus in its spiral groove deep to the triceps
D. It is the target nerve of the upper limb and its roots are C5, 6, 7, 8, T1
Loss of motor neuron to a muscle may result in:
A. Flaccidity
B. All of these
C. Reflex response failure
D. Progressive atrophy
The tuberosity receives the weight of the body when one sits up straight:
A. Superior ramus
B. Ischial tuberosity
C. Lesser sciatic notch
D. Greater sciatic notch
In order to not allow to side play, the sides of the body of talus are grasped by these bony flanges:
A. None of these
B. All of these
C. Talocalcaneonacivular joint
D. Medial and lateral malleolus
In voltage gating, when there is a strong negative charge on the inside of the cell membrane, the sodium gates remain tightly closed:
A. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
B. Both statements are false
C. Both statements are true
D. The second statement is true, the first statement is false
The median nerve innervates the following muscles, except:
A. All interossei
B. Opponens pollicis
C. Flexor carpi radialis
D. Flexor digitorum superficialis
From the frontal plane, the neck of the femur has an anterior angle of 13 to 15 degrees. An increase in this angle, 1 factor in in-toeing, is called:
A. Coxa vara
B. Coxa valga
C. Anteroversion
D. Retroversion
These two enlarged bones are concerned with receiving the weight of the body above:
A. Calcaneus and cuboid
B. Talus and calcaneus
C. Navicular and cuboid
D. Talus and navicular
Which of the following conditions differentiate isometric from isotonic contraction:
A. Isotonic contraction requires a greater amount of energy
B. Isotonic contraction is likely to last longer since a load is moved
C. Isometric contraction does not require much sliding or myofibrils
D. All of these
When the hip is extended, this muscle externally rotates the hip, however, when the hip is flexed, this same muscle will internally rotate the hip:
A. Gluteus minimus
B. Gluteus medius
C. Tenor fascia latae
D. Piriformis
The largest lateral hip muscle, this muscle externally rotates the hip, however, when the hip is flexed, this same muscle will internally rotate the hip:
A. Tensor fascia latae
B. Piriformis
C. Gluteus minimus
D. Gluteus medius
When applied, first class lever can be:
A. Levers that work at a mechanical advantage
B. Levers that operate at a mechanical disadvantage but one of speed
C. All of these
D. Levers of stability and speed
Cavities within the brain and are filled with cerebrospinal fluid:
A. Subarachnoid space
B. Ventricles
C. Meninges
D. None of these
The joints of the pectoral girdle are:
A. Coracoclavicular joint
B. All of these
C. Acromioclavicular joint
D. Sternoclavicular joint
The arrangement of these muscles as the legs of the inverted tripod suggests their possible function as a stabilizing mechanism for the pelvis capable of cooperating with the splint mechanism of the iliotibial tract on the lateral side.
A. Adductor magnus, vastus lateralis and biceps
B. Semitendinosus, semimembranosus and gracilis
C. Piriformis, quadratus femoris and obturator internus
D. Sartorius, gracilis and semitendinosus
The medial longitudinal arch consist of the following bones:
A. Calcaneus, cuboid, fourth and fifth metatarsal bones
B. None of these
C. Calcanuem, talus, navicular bone, three cuneiform bones and the first three metatarsal bones
D. Bases of the metatarsal bones and the cuboid and the three cuneiform bones
The extra volume of air that can be inspired over and beyond the normal tidal volume:
A. None of these
B. Expiratory reserve volume
C. Inspiratory reserve volume
D. Residual volume
Which of the following statements is true of metabolic equivalents (MET)?
A. All of these
B. It is used to describe energy requirements
C. One MET is arbitrarily equal to the resting oxygen consumption of an individual
D. The average value at rest is 3.5mL of oxygen per kilogram of body weight per minute
The transverse arch consists of the following bones:
A. Calcaneus, cuboid, fourth and fifth metatarsal bones
B. Calcaneus, talus, navicular bone, three cuneiform bones and the first three metatarsal bone
C. Both of these
D. Bases of the metatarsal bones and the cuboid and three cuneiform bones
The aorta is the great artery leaving this chamber of the heart:
A. Left auricle
B. Right auricle
C. Left ventricle
D. Right ventricle
Characteristics of isometric contraction:
A. All of these
B. Performs work
C. Change in muscle tension
D. Change in muscle length
The anatomical snuff box is bounded by the tendons of:
A. None of these
B. Extensor digitorum communis, extensor indicis proprius and extensor carpi radialis
C. Extensor carpi ulnaris, extensor digitorum communis and extensor pollicis brevis
D. Extensor pollicis longus, abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis
The adult brain consists of the following parts:
A. Cerebellum
B. Cerebrum
C. Brain stem
D. All of these
Which of the following is not true of the shoulder joint?
A. Its extreme mobility is achieved at the expenses of stability and security
B. The movement occurs between the scapula and the humerus
C. The movement primarily involves the clavicle and scapula
D. It is a multi-axial ball-end-socket joint with a remarkable freedom of movement
This occurs when macrophages and some white blood cells ingest large particles:
A. None of these
B. Phagocytosis
C. Pinocytosis
D. Exocytosis
During mid-stance to terminal stance, the quadriceps perform the following activity:
A. Stabilizes the knee to control swing of the opposite leg
B. Contract eccentrically
C. No required activity
D. Undergo a fast lengthening to stabilized the knee joint
A strong and broad one-inch-square ligament that maintains the forward concavity and bridge deep to which pass the numerous tendons that flex the wrist and finger:
A. Intra-articular ligament
B. Annular ligament
C. Flexor retinaculum
D. Denticulus ligament
Brain development begins with the differentiation of three vesicles at the rostral end of the neural tube:
A. Telencephalon, diencephalon and mesencephalon
B. Mesencephalon, rhombencephalon, and metencephalon
C. Prosencephalon, rhombencephalon, and myelencephalon
D. Prosencephalon, mesencephalon, rhombencephalon
The following statements apply to saltatory conduction, except:
A. Conserves energy for the axon
B. Action potential occur only at the nodes of ranvier and conduction from node to node
C. While there is an increase in nerve conduction, energy is wasted on the axon
D. The mechanism increase nerve transmission velocity in myelinated fibers as much as 5 to 50 times
If the surrounding temperature is greater than the skin, the body gains heat from he surroundings and the only means of cooling is through:
A. Evaporation
B. None of these
C. Conduction
D. Radiation
