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RADR 1303: Chapter 15 Vitals

Total questions: 51

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is homeostasis?

a)

Your body's natural resistance to only infections

b)

Constancy in the internal environment of the body that is naturally maintained by adaptive responses

c)

Maintaining proper body temperature during environmental changes

d)

Something to do with genetics

2.

Primary mechanisms that maintain homeostasis (Choose all that apply)

a)

Heartbeat

b)

BP

c)

Electrolyte Balance

d)

Body Temperature

e)

Respiratory Rate

3.

Define body temperature

a)

Body’s degree of heat of the skin's surface

b)

Temperature of the surface of the body at a resting state

c)

Body’s degree of heat of the deep tissues

d)

Body temperature

4.

What is the normal body temperature in Farenheit

a)

Power level over 9,000!!!!!

b)

37 C (+/- 0.5-1.0 C)

c)

98.6 F (+/- 1-2 F)

d)

96.8 F (+/- 3 x 10^8)

5.

During diaphoresis, the _____(gland) regulates heat loss. The peripheral blood vessels in our body ______ to compensate.

a)

Subcutaneous; secrete

b)

Heart; shrinks

c)

Hypothalamus; dilate

d)

Brain; expands

6.

What are TWO things a body can do to conserve heat?

a)

Nothing if it's lazy; probably watch Netflix

b)

Shiver; dilation of peripheral blood vessels

c)

Shiver; constriction of peripheral blood vessels

d)

Shiver; mess with the thermostat

7.

Oral, Axillary, Rectal, Tympanic Membrane, Temporal Artery are all examples of what?

a)

Different anatomical structures in the extremities

b)

Different methods to check for heart beat

c)

Different methods to confuse patient's with medical jargon

d)

Different routes commonly used to measure body temperature

8.

1) Notoriously inaccurate route to measure body temperature? 2) Most accurate route to measure body temperature?

a)

1) Rectal; 2) Axillary

b)

1) Back of hand; 2) Front of hand

c)

1) Axillary; 2) Rectal

d)

1) Tympanic Membrane; Oral

9.

Define hyperthermia. (3) (Choose multiple)

a)

Abnormally low body temperature (below 97.7 F)

b)

Abnormally high body temperature (above 99.5 F)

c)

Vasodilation

d)

Vasoconstriction

e)

More oxygen is needed within the body

10.

True or False: Hypothermia means low body temperature (ferbile), below 97.7 F, and vasoconstriction

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Why is it a common treatment to medically induce hypothermia during and/or following

heart surgery.

a)

Decreases metabolic demands thus, increasing demand for the cardiopulmonary system

b)

Increase metabolic demands thus, decreasing demand for cardiopulmonary system

c)

Decrease metabolic demands thus, decreasing the demand for the cardiopulmonary system

d)

Surgeons read it in their textbooks so it's now common practice to do so

12.

True or False: Confusion, dizziness, comatose, and increased body temperature are common symptoms of hyperthermia

a)

True

b)

False

13.

What is an example of a waste of cellular metabolism?

a)

Feces

b)

Carbon Dioxide

c)

Oxygen

d)

Hydrogen

14.

Tidal volume is....

a)

Volume of waves crashing into Galveston Bay during a Hurricane

b)

The amount of oxygen molecules we inhale through our esophagus

c)

The amount of oxygen we exhale through our trachea

d)

Depth of breath and volume of air inhaled and exhaled during one respiratory cycle

15.

Ventilation is the mechanical movement of air in and out of our lungs using our diaphragemms

a)

True

b)

False

16.

What is the normal respiratory rate in newborns?

a)

30-60 breaths per second

b)

15-20 breaths per minute

c)

30-60 breaths per minute

d)

20-30 breaths per minute

17.

If a person's cellular metabolism is increased, what happens to the demand for oxygen and how does the respiratory system compensate?

a)

Demand for oxygen increases; Increased respiratory rate to deliver additional oxygen to the blood

b)

Demand for oxygen increases; Increased respiratory rate to deliver additional oxygen to the lungs

c)

Demand for oxygen decreases; Decreased respiratory rate to deliver additional oxygen to the blood

d)

Increased cellular metabolism does not affect demand for oxygen or respiratory system

18.

You notice a patient's breath is slow, how would you describe their breathing?

a)

Tachypnea

b)

Dyspnea

c)

Apnea

d)

Orthopnea

e)

Bradypnea

19.

A patient has suffered from a drug overdose, head trauma, AND hypothermia. These are common symptoms of...

a)

Bradypnea

b)

Apnea

c)

Lack of luck

d)

Tachypnea

20.

The three common sites for measuring pulse rates include: (choose multiple)

a)

Femoral Artery

b)

Radial Artery

c)

Brachial Artery

d)

Costophrenic Artery

e)

Carotid Artery

21.

Pulses are assessed peripherally during CPR for what reason? (femoral, pedal (foot), and radial arteries)

a)

Indicates diastolic blood pressure of at least 80mm Hg and verifies effective chest compression

b)

Checking the pulse on the Carotid Artery is deemed harassment when a patient is unconscious

c)

False, you can check all 3 common sites to measure pulse rates

d)

They are the most accurate

22.

Define Arterial Lines: (2) (choose multiple)

a)

Catheter inserted into an artery

b)

Catheter is connected to a pressure transducer that is attached to a monitor for continual measurement of a pt's heart rate and blood pressure

c)

Non-invasive device to measure continual measurement of a pt's heart rate only

d)

Can be attached to finger, foot, toe, ear lobe, temple, nose, or forehead

23.

Define auscultation

a)

Listening to sounds of the body with a stethoscope

b)

Listening to sounds of the body with a sphygmomanometer

c)

Listening to sounds of the body with a stethoscope with headphones attached via 3.5mm cable

d)

Listening to a patient's pulse to determine heart rate

24.

___ is used to measure hemoglobin oxygen saturation of arterial blood and heart rate. ____is the normal range for a healthy person.

a)

Sphygmomanometer; 95-100%

b)

Auscultation; 95-100%

c)

Pulse oximeter; 95-100%

d)

Blood pressure; 95-100%

25.

Tachycardia is caused by exercise, fever, anemia, respiratory disorders, congestive heart failure, hypoxemia, and shock, what is the range of BPM for tachycardia? (3)(Choose multiple)

a)

Greater than 90 BPM

b)

Greater than 100 BPM

c)

Greater than 110 BPM

d)

Greater than 120 BPM

26.

Life threatening situations can occur when irregular pulse rates are accompanied by... (Choose 3)

a)

Febrile

b)

Palpations

c)

Bradypnea

d)

Faintness

e)

Dizziness

27.

Term referring to the period of relaxation of the heart (dilation)

a)

Diastolic pressure (bottom number of BP)

b)

Systolic pressure (top number of BP)

c)

Vasodilation

d)

Vasoconstriction

28.

What is happening to the brachial artery when a blood pressure cuff is properly inflated (inflated above the patient’s systolic pressure) on the arm?

a)

Stops blood flow to the arm by collapsing the radial artery

b)

Stops blood flow to see how much discomfort the patient can handle

c)

Stops blood flow to the arm by collapsing the femoral artery

d)

Stops blood flow to the arm by collapsing the brachial artery

29.

With a stethoscope placed over the brachial artery in the antecubital fossa of the elbow, slowly opening the valve on the sphygmomanometer allows blood flow to return. The first sound of turbulence in the stethoscope correlates to which part of the blood pressure measurement?

a)

Diastolic

b)

Systolic

c)

Diastolic & Systolic

d)

Korotkoff Sounds

30.

How can you tell when diastolic pressure has been reached?

a)

When you see the first blip on the sphygmomanometer

b)

When Korotkoff sounds can no longer be heard

c)

When you see the gauge reaches zero

d)

When all air is released from the sphygmomanometer

31.

A patient's blood pressure reads 125/90 mm Hg. Is this the normal range in adults?

a)

Yes

b)

No, the patient has hypocardia

c)

No, the patient has tachypnea

d)

No, the patient has hypertension

32.

These are contributing factors of hypertension: smoking, stress, medications, disease, and orthopnea

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Hypoxemia is...

a)

Abnormally high level of oxygen in the blood

b)

Abnormally low level of blood in the heart

c)

Abnormally low level of oxygen in the lungs

d)

Abnormally low level of oxygen in the blood

34.

Without Oxygen therapy, hypoxia may damage which organs? (4) (Select multiple)

a)

Brain

b)

Heart

c)

Psoas

d)

Lung

e)

Liver

35.

A patient's oxygen should NEVER be removed for an x-ray. It can ONLY be removed with consent or supervision of a physician, respiratory practitioner, or attending nurse.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

What is the main difference between low-flow oxygen and high-flow oxygen delivery systems?

a)

High-flow precisely mixes with 100% oxygen; Low-flow mixes an unknown amount of room air mixed with oxygen via nasal cannula

b)

High-flow precisely mixes with 100% oxygen; Low-flow mixes an unknown amount of room air mixed with oxygen via nasal cannula via oxygen mask

c)

High-flow is for pt with larger lungs (hypersthenic); Low-flow is for pt with smaller lungs (asthenic)

37.

Why must a chest x-ray be ordered, after intubation, with the help of a nurse or respiratory therapist when positioning a patient?

a)

Verify gas-fluid levels on the patient and reduce the chance of moving the endotracheal tube

b)

Verify that position of the arterial line and reduce the chance of moving the endotracheal tube

c)

Verify position of endotracheal tube and reduce the chance of moving the endotracheal tube

38.

What can happen if the corrugated tubing (endotracheal tube to the ventilator) is mishandled while performing a portable radiograph?

a)

Patient can die immediately

b)

Patient will have a build up of humidity in the tubing and go into the lungs

c)

Patient will have a build up of gas in the tubing and go into the lungs

d)

Patient will have a build up of blood in the tubing and go into the pleural cavity

39.

Tracheal intubation is accomplished most often using a translaryngeal approach via the _____ or the_____.

a)

Esophagus; nose

b)

Epiglottis; mouth

c)

Mouth; nose

d)

Laryngeal prominence; nose

40.

Properly positioned endotracheal tube should show what on a radiograph?

a)

The proximal tip of the tube 1-2 in superior of the left inferior lobe of the lung

b)

The distal tip of the tube 1-2 in superior of the trachea

c)

The distal tip of the tube 1-2 in superior of the carina

d)

The proximal tip of the tub 3-4 in superior of the right bronchus

41.

A patient is complaining about difficulty breathing. A chest radiograph shows atelectasis. How would you describe the image?

a)

Absence of gas from part or their whole lung due to failure of expansion or reabsorption of gas

b)

Absence of gas from only the left lung due to failure of expansion or reabsorption of gas

c)

Absence of gas from only the right lung due to failure of expansion or reabsorption of gas

d)

Absence of gas from part or their whole lung due to angina

42.

What are thoracostomy tubes used for?

a)

Aid in breathing

b)

Easier access to inject medication to patient's without sticking them with a needle so many times

c)

Drain fluid in the intrapleural space and mediastinum

d)

Drain fluid in the myocardial space and mediastinum

43.

Chest tube is used to treat pneumothorax, hemothorax, pleural effusion, and empyema

a)

False

b)

True

44.

Most ideal position to show least amount of pleural fluid on a chest radiograph

a)

Lateral Decub

b)

AP Lordotic

c)

Modified Sims

d)

Trendelenburg

45.

What is the best way to demonstrate a pneumothorax on a chest radiograph? (2) (choose multiple)

a)

During exhalation

b)

Lateral decubitus filming with the ipsilateral side up

c)

During the end of second inhalation

d)

Dorsal decubitus

46.

True or False: Central Venous Lines (CV) are inserted into the aorta and used to administer a variety of drugs, manage fluid volume, serve as a conduit for blood analysis and transfusions, and monitor cardiac pressures

a)

False

b)

True

47.

4 Types of central venous catheters (choose multiple)

a)

Pigg-O-Stat

b)

Hickam, Groshong, Braviac

c)

Mediport

d)

Peripherally Inserted Central Cather

e)

Port-a-Cath

48.

What are the THREE common locations for a Central Venous Catheter Insertion? (Choose multiple)

a)

Subclavian vein

b)

Subclavian artery

c)

Internal jugular vein

d)

Femoral vein

e)

Radial artery

49.

Another name for Pulmonary Arterial (PA) lines?

a)

Swan-Gunt Catheter

b)

Endotracheal Tube

c)

Swan-Ganz Catheter

d)

Swim-Gauz Catheter

50.

Best location for a Central Venous Catheter tip?

a)

Beyond the superior vena cava

b)

Superior vena cava 2-3 cm above the artrial junction

c)

1-2 in superior the carina

d)

Anywhere is fine really

51.

There is a small electrode in which "Line"? What does it do?

a)

Central Venous Line; monitor pulmonary arterial pressures

b)

Pulmonary Arterial Line; monitor pulmonary arterial pressures

c)

Midsagittal line; monitor pulmonary arterial pressures