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Lecture 1&2: MEDT 491 Clinical Immunology

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 4hrs 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

______ is known as a substance that specifically binds to an antibody or t-cell receptor. it is also known as an immunogen.

a)

Antigen

b)

Antibody

c)

CRP

d)

Erythrocyte

2.

_______ is a protein (immunoglobulin) that consist of two identical heavy chain and two identical light chain that recognize a specific portion of an antigen and binds to it

a)

Antigen

b)

Immunogen

c)

Antibody

d)

Basophilius

3.

______ is (are) a natural or inborn resistance to infection after microorganisms have penetrated the first line of resistance

a)

Innate immunity

b)

Adaptive Immunity

c)

Skin

d)

Antibodies

4.

The augmentation of body defense mechanisms in response to a specific stimulus, which can cause the elimination of microorganisms and recovery from disease is called ________.

a)

Innate Immunity

b)

The macrophage effect

c)

Adaptive immunity

d)

Rouleaux

5.

What are the components of Adaptive immunity?

a)

Antigen specificity

b)

Rouleaux

c)

Diversity

d)

Memory of past pathogens

e)

Ability to difference between foreign material and itself

6.

These cells migrate to the tissue and are able to differentiate between dendritic cell and macrophages. They are professional phagocytes antigen presenting cell and are the largest cell in the blood. These traits are abilities of a ________.

a)

Dendritic cell

b)

Macrophage

c)

Monocyte

d)

Eosinophil

e)

Basophil

7.

These cells have a circulating WBC percentage of 4.

a)

Monocytes

b)

Eosinophils

c)

Macrophages

d)

Erythrocytes

e)

Basophils

8.

These cells are monocytes that have migrated from the blood to the tissue. They do not contain peroxidase and have a different name depending on their location. These cells are called _______.

a)

Monocytes

b)

Dendritic cells

c)

Eosinophils

d)

Basophil

e)

Macrophages

9.

These cells are believed to be derived from a monocyte precursor. They are found all over tissue and have long spidery projections. These cells are called ______.

a)

Dendritic cells

b)

Macrophages

c)

Basophil

d)

Monocyte

10.

______ are the perfect presentation of type 1 and 2 MHC class and activation of T lymphocytes.

a)

Monocytes

b)

Dendritic cells

c)

Basophils

d)

Eosinophil

11.

Which of the following are characteristics of Eosinophils?

a)

Presence in the blood increases for allergies and parasitic infection

b)

They have 2 granules

c)

They have many Granules: peroxidase, arylsulfatase, lysosome, lipase, and acid phosphate

d)

Major basic protein

e)

Kills extracellular parasites

12.

Eosinophils normally represent 1-3% of all circulating WBC's

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Which of the following are characteristics of Basophils?

a)

Presence in the blood increases for parasitic infection

b)

Largest cells in the blood

c)

Produce histamines

d)

Migrate to tissue and differentiate between dendritic cell and macrophages

e)

They normally represent ~1% of all WBC's.

14.

B-lymphocytes are cellular components of the acquired immune system, more specifically a part of the humoral immunity. What is its function?

a)

To make cytotoxic T cells

b)

Influx of phagocytes

c)

To make helper t cells

d)

To make antibodies

e)

Form memory B cells after activation by antigen interaction

15.

T-lymphocytes are cellular components of the acquired immune system, more specifically a part of the cellular immunity. What is its function?

a)

Makes antibodies

b)

activate cytotoxic T-cells and memory T-cells

c)

bind to and act as co-signal for the activation of B-cell lymphocytes

d)

Forms memory B cells after activation by antigen interaction

e)

are activated when presented with foreign antigens fragments by major histocompatibility complex (MHC class II) molecules

16.

Put the three major events during an inflammatory Response in the correct order.

I. Increased capillary permeability (Edema)

II. Increase in the diameter of the blood vessels (Vasodilation)

III. Emigration & Migration of the phagocytes (Influx of phagocytes)

a)

I, II, III

b)

II, I, III

c)

III, II, I

17.

Which cells belong to the natural immune system?

a)

Monocytes and NK cells

b)

Basophils

c)

B lymphocytes

d)

Eosinophils

e)

Neutrophils

18.

Which cells belong to the aquired immune system?

a)

B lymphocytes

b)

Monocytes

c)

T lymphocytes

d)

Neutrophils

e)

NK cells

19.

Active acquired immunity is when ....

a)

The body produces protective antibodies

b)

It lasts longterm: vaccines, infection

c)

The body gets antibodies from another host

d)

It lasts short-term: breast milk, placenta crossover, rabies

20.

Passive acquired immunity is when...

a)

The body gets antibodies from another host

b)

The body produces protective antibodies

c)

It lasts longterm: vaccines, infection

d)

It lasts short-term: breast milk, placenta crossover, rabies

21.

This is a __________.

a)

Lymphocyte

b)

Neutrophil

c)

Monocyte

d)

Basophil

e)

Eosinophil

22.

This is a _________

a)

Monocyte

b)

Neutrophil

c)

Macrophage

d)

Eosinophil

23.

This is a _______

a)

Eosinophil

b)

Neutrophil

c)

Macrophage

d)

Lymphocyte

e)

Basophil

24.

This is a ____________.

a)

Macrophage

b)

Eosinophil

c)

Basophil

d)

Lymphocyte

25.

This is a ________

a)

Lymphocyte

b)

Basophil

c)

Eosinophil

d)

Neutrophil

26.

This cell produces T cells and B cells. This type of cell includes natural killer cells. Which image depicts this cell?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
27.

This cell is the largest one in the blood. It has the ability to migrate to tissue and differentiate between dendritic cells and macrophages. Which image depicts this cell?

a)
b)
c)
d)
28.

This cell expresses and releases cytokines, which in turn amplify inflammatory reactions by several other cell types. It recruits and activates other cells of the immune system. Which image depicts this cell?

a)
b)
c)
d)
29.

These presence of these cells in the blood increase for allergies and parasitic infections. They kill extracellular parasites. Which image depicts this cell?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
30.

These cells produce histamines. They normally represent ~1% of all WBC's. Which image depicts a this cell?

a)
b)
c)
d)
31.

List the steps of phagocytosis in order.

I. Engulfment to form phagocytic vacuole

II. Exocytosis

III. Respiratory burst and digestion: rapid release of superoxide dismutase and hydrogen peroxide to kill pathogen.

IV. Fusion of phagocytic vacuole with lysosome

V. Chemotaxis: The movement of an organism in response to a chemical stimulus.

VI. Adherence

a)

I, II, II, IV, V, VI

b)

VI, V, IV, II, III, I

c)

V, VI, I, IV, III, II

d)

VI, III, I, II, IV, V

32.

What are the three functions of monocytes and macrophages in host defense?

a)

Phagocytosis

b)

Chemotaxis

c)

Present antigen to B and T lymphocytes

d)

Exocytosis

e)

Manufacture and secure active biological components (INK-1)

33.

What are two disorders caused by monocytes/macrophages.

a)

Sickle cell anemia

b)

Gaucher's disease

c)

Systemic lupus erythematosus

d)

Neimann-pick disease

34.

This disorder is an auto recessive (inherited) enzyme deficiency. Equally prevalent in male and female: Both parents must have carry the mutation for child to have the disease. It is caused by the decrease in B-glucocerebrosidase so sphingolipids accumulate in macrophages. It infiltrates the bone marrow and causes the decrease of erythrocytes, granulocytes, and lymphocytes.

a)

Sickle cell anemia

b)

Gaucher's disease

c)

Neimann-pick disease

d)

systemic lupus erythematosus

35.

This disorder is a rare autosomal recessive deficiency. An increase in sphingomyelin results in cell death and the malfunction of major organ systems. Type A is severe. Type B results in higher enzyme levels.

a)

Neimann-pick disease

b)

Gaucher's disease

c)

Sickle cell anemia

d)

Thrombocytopenia

36.

What are the congenital abnormalities of neutrophils function presented in class?

a)

Specific granule deficiency

b)

Component receptor 3

c)

Chronic granulomatous disease

d)

Chediak-higashi

e)

Myeloperoxidase deficiency

37.

The failure to produce 2 granules and the failure to produce components of other granules are characteristics of what neutrophil congenital abnormality?

a)

Component receptor 3

b)

Specific granule deficiency

c)

Myeloperoxidase deficiency

d)

Chediak-higashi

38.

Abnormalities with adhesion, poor phagocytosis, and issues with chemotaxis are characteristics of what neutrophil congenital abnormality?

a)

Specific granule deficiency

b)

Chronic granulomatous disease

c)

Myeloperoxidase deficiency

d)

Component receptor 3

39.

The inability to produce H2O2, and phagocytize but cannot destroy bacteria are characteristics of what neutrophil congenital abnormality?

a)

Chronic granulomatous disease

b)

Specific granule deficiency

c)

Chediak-higashi

d)

Myeloperoxidase deficiency

40.

Giant granules and a delay in killing bacteria are characteristics of what neutrophil congenital abnormality?

a)

Specific granule deficiency

b)

Component receptor 3

c)

Chediak-higashi

d)

Myeloperoxidase deficiency

41.

Autosomal recessive and posses azurophilic granules which have a decreased or absent amount of enzyme are characteristics of what neutrophil congenital abnormality?

a)

Chediak-higashi

b)

Component receptor 3

c)

Specific granule deficiency

d)

Myeloperoxidase deficiency

42.

This occurs in the 1st week of development in embryonic hematopoiesis.

a)

entire marrow space is occupied by developing hematopoietic cells

b)

stem cell begins colonization of stromal cavities in bone marrow

c)

most stem cells have migrated to the fetal liver/spleen: predominantly devoted to production of red blood cells and some granulocytes

d)

platelet production appears

e)

production of erythroblasts located within the mesoderm

43.

This occurs in the 2nd week of development in embryonic hematopoiesis.

a)

most stem cells have migrated to the fetal liver/spleen: predominantly devoted to production of red blood cells and some granulocytes

b)

stem cell begins colonization of stromal cavities in bone marrow

c)

entire marrow space is occupied by developing hematopoietic cells

d)

platelet production appears

e)

production of erythroblasts located within the mesoderm

44.

This occurs in the 3rd week of development in embryonic hematopoiesis.

a)

most stem cells have migrated to the fetal liver/spleen: predominantly devoted to production of red blood cells and some granulocytes

b)

stem cell begins colonization of stromal cavities in bone marrow

c)

platelet production appears

d)

production of erythroblasts located within the mesoderm

e)

entire marrow space is occupied by developing hematopoietic cells

45.

This occurs in the 4th week of development in embryonic hematopoiesis.

a)

entire marrow space is occupied by developing hematopoietic cells

b)

platelet production appears

c)

production of erythroblasts located within the mesoderm

d)

most stem cells have migrated to the fetal liver/spleen: predominantly devoted to production of red blood cells and some granulocytes

e)

stem cell begins colonization of stromal cavities in bone marrow

46.

This occurs in the 5th week of development in embryonic hematopoiesis.

a)

entire marrow space is occupied by developing hematopoietic cells

b)

platelet production appears

c)

production of erythroblasts located within the mesoderm

d)

stem cell begins colonization of stromal cavities in bone marrow

e)

most stem cells have migrated to the fetal liver/spleen: predominantly devoted to production of red blood cells and some granulocytes

47.

Which of the following is a primary lymphoid organ?

a)

Bone marrow

b)

Lymph nodes

c)

Thymus

d)

Spleen

48.

Which of the following is a secondary lymphoid organ?

a)

Bone marrow

b)

Thymus

c)

Lymph nodes

d)

Spleen

49.

The following characteristics are associated with________

1. Initiates immune responses against antigen found on mucosal surfaces.

2. Antigen sampling.

3. Found on mucosal surfaces like gastrointestinal tract, nasopharynx, thyroid, breast, lung, salivary glands, eye, and skin.

a)

Skin-associated lymphoid tissue (SALT).

b)

Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT).

c)

Bronchus-associated lymphoid tissue (BALT).

50.

The following characteristics are associated with________

  1. Priming site of mucosal and systemic immune responses.
  2. Found in lungs and bronchioles.
a)

Bronchus-associated lymphoid tissue (BALT).

b)

Skin-associated lymphoid tissue (SALT)

c)

Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)

51.

The following characteristic is associated with________

  1. Cutaneous microenvironment is capable on its own of accepting, processing, and presenting nominal antigen.
a)

Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT).

b)

Bronchus-associated lymphoid tissue (BALT).

c)

Skin-associated lymphoid tissue (SALT)

52.

What is an acute protein?

a)

activated by interaction with antigen-antibody complexes

b)

Normal components of human serum that rapidly increase by at least 25% due to an injury, infection, or trauma.

c)

An inactive precursor of a functional enzyme that can be activated by proteolytic cleavage, which removes an inhibitory fragment exposing the active site of an enzyme, making it catalytically active

d)

a synonym for proenzyme

53.

What are examples of acute proteins?

a)

CRP

b)

Proenzymes

c)

Amyloid a

d)

Opsonins

e)

Mannose binding protein

54.

Define Apoptosis.

a)

when proteins increase in concentration as a result of inflammation.

b)

Programmed cell death

c)

inactive precursor to a functional enzyme

d)

a normal component of human serum that increases by at least 25% due to an injury, infection, or trauma

55.

Define a Proenzyme/zymogen.

a)

proteins that increase in concentration as a result of inflammation.

b)

fragments from complement cleavage that bind to receptors on basophils and mast cells

c)

macromolecular structure composed of complement components C5b, C6, C7, C8, and C9, which displaces the membrane phospholipids, forming a large transmembrane opening that disrupts osmotic balance, lysing the cel

d)

an inactive precursor to the functional enzyme that can be activated by proteolytic cleavage to remove an inhibitory fragment, exposing the active site of the enzyme, making it catalytically active

56.

Define Opsonin.

a)

a serum protein that binds to a foreign substance, enhancing phagocytosis

b)

Fragments of complement components that binds to receptors of basophils and mast cells. Binding to the receptors induces degranulation, release of histamines, and vasoactive amines which causes increased vascular permeability and induce smooth muscle contraction

c)

a synonym for proenzyme

d)

An inactive precursor of a functional enzyme that can be activated by proteolytic cleavage, which removes an inhibitory fragment exposing the active site of an enzyme, making it catalytically active

57.

Define Anaphylatoxins.

a)

An inactive precursor of a functional enzyme that can be activated by proteolytic cleavage, which removes an inhibitory fragment exposing the active site of an enzyme, making it catalytically active

b)

a synonym for proenzyme

c)

fragments of complement components that binds to receptors of basophils and mast cells. Binding to the receptors induces degranulation, release of histamines, and vasoactive amines which causes increased vascular permeability and induce smooth muscle contraction

d)

a macromolecular complex composed of complement component C5b, C6,C7,C8, C9 that displaces phospholipid membrane which causes transmembrane opening which disrupt osmotic balance, lysing the cell

58.

What is the membrane attack complex?

a)

a macromolecular compound composed of complement component C5b, C6,C7,C8, C9 that displaces phospholipid membrane which causes transmembrane opening which disrupt osmotic balance, lysing the cell

b)

An inactive precursor of a functional enzyme that can be activated by proteolytic cleavage, which removes an inhibitory fragment exposing the active site of an enzyme, making it catalytically active

c)

a normal component of human serum that increases by at least 25% due to an injury, infection, or trauma

d)

Fragments of complement components that binds to receptors of basophils and mast cells. Binding to the receptors induces degranulation, release of histamines, and vasoactive amines which causes increased vascular permeability and induce smooth muscle contraction

59.

What is the Classical Pathway?

a)

A pathway for activation of complement based on the attachment of mannose-binding protein to components of the bacterial cell wall

b)

a pathway activated by pathogens due to Lipopolysaccharides, techoic acids, and zymosins. It is antibody independent.

c)

a pathway of complement activation that is launched with an antigen-antibody interaction

60.

What is the alternative pathway?

a)

A pathway for activation of complement based on the attachment of mannose-binding protein to components of the bacterial cell wall

b)

a pathway activated by pathogens due to Lipopolysaccharides, techoic acids, and zymosins. It is antibody independent.

c)

a pathway of complement activation that is launched with an antigen-antibody interaction

61.

What is the Lectin pathway?

a)

A pathway for activation of complement based on the attachment of mannose-binding protein to components of the bacterial cell wall

b)

a pathway activated by pathogens due to Lipopolysaccharides, techoic acids, and zymosins. It is antibody independent.

c)

a pathway of complement activation that is launched with an antigen-antibody interaction

62.

Which immunoglobulins activate the classical pathway?

a)

IgG1, IgG2, IgG3

b)

IgA

c)

IgM

d)

IgD

63.

What complement mediator is missing?

(a)  

64.

What biological effect is missing?

(a)  

65.

What complement mediators are missing?

(a)  

66.

What biological effect is missing?

(a)  

67.

How is the classical pathway activated?

a)

antibody-antigen complex

b)

LPS, techoic acid

c)

Lectin binding to mannose

68.

How is the alternative pathway activated?

a)

Lectin binding to mannose

b)

LPS, Techoic acid

c)

Antibody-antigen complex

69.

How is the lectin pathway activated?

a)

Lectin binding to mannose

b)

LPS, Techoic acid

c)

Antibody-antigen complex

70.

What is (are) the effect(s) of the C3A and C5A Anaphylatoxins?

a)

Release of hydrolytic enzymes from neutrophil

b)

Aggregation of platelets

c)

Chemotaxis

d)

Degranulation of eosinophil

e)

opsonization

71.

What is the effect of the C5a, C3a, C5b67 Anaphylatoxins?

a)

Degranulation of eosinophil

b)

Aggregation of platelet

c)

Release of hydrolytic enzymes from neutrophil

d)

Chemotaxis

72.

What is the effect of the C5a Anaphylatoxin?

a)

Release of hydrolytic enzymes from neutrophils

b)

opsonization

73.

What is the effect of the C3b, iC3b, C4b Anaphylatoxins?

a)

Chemotaxis

b)

Aggregation of platelets

c)

Release of hydrolytic enzymes from neutrophil

d)

opsonization

74.

Describe the process of complement mediated removal of circulating immune complexes.

a)

Coating of immune complex with C3B that help binding of to CR1 receptors of RBC

b)

The binding of antibodies to viral particles creates a thick protein coating that prevents viruses from attaching to susceptible host cells.

c)

Carry these complexes to the liver and spleen where they are removed from RBC by phagocytosis

75.

What component is decreased or absent in hereditary angioedema?

(a)