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2020 Practice Micro Exam

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Enterococci are not considered to be important pathogens

a)

True

b)

False

2.

Anthrax has been eradicated from cattle in the U.S.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Malignant carbuncle is the most lethal form of human anthrax

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Serotypes of Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae pathogenic for turkeys have been used as live vaccines for swine

a)

True

b)

False

5.

Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae is fairly resistant to environmental degradation and some disinfectants

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Clinical disease caused by Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae is limited to swine, turkeys, dolphins, and humans

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Corynebacteriaceae have lipids in their cell walls that make them more likely to be phagocytosed but less likely to be killed within the phagolysosome

a)

True

b)

False

8.

Phospholipase D is a major toxin of Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

a)

True

b)

False

9.

Bacteria that are 50% related by DNA homology are considered to be the same species

a)

True

b)

False

10.

MALDI-TOF-MS is not applicable to serotyping of organisms because it mostly detects small ribosomal proteins

a)

True

b)

False

11.

Teichoic and lipoteichoic acids are dominant cell surface antigens in some species of bacteria

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Penicillin is not able to kill bacteria unless they are actively growing

a)

True

b)

False

13.

Transport and other proteins in the outer membranes of gram negative bacteria are generally not immunogenic (do not readily stimulate an antibody response for example)

a)

True

b)

False

14.

Detergents and soaps have strong antibacterial properties

a)

True

b)

False

15.

Serotype specificity of gram negative bacteria is determined by the LPS core polysaccharides

a)

True

b)

False

16.

The correct designation for a flagellar antigen is "F-Antigen"

a)

True

b)

False

17.

The tip of a bacteria fimbria has a small radius of curvature that can facilitate penetration of the strong repulsive forces between the bacteria and target cell membrane

a)

True

b)

False

18.

Mucoid polysaccharide bacterial capsules cannot provide specific attachment to mucosal epithelial cells

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Most facultative intracellular bacterial pathogens gain entry to cells via receptor-mediated endocytosis

a)

True

b)

False

20.

IgA has about a six day half-life

a)

True

b)

False

21.

IgA does not function as an opsonin and can't fix complement

a)

True

b)

False

22.

Most virulent gram negative pathogens and essentially all gram positive ones are resistant to killing by antibody and complement

a)

True

b)

False

23.

Bacterial exopolysaccharides are mostly T-cell dependent antigens that stimulate primarily an IgG antibody response

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Most IgM antibody is found in tissues

a)

True

b)

False

25.

Phagocytic cells preferentially ingest bacteria that have lipids in their outer surfaces

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Parasitism of non-professional phagocytes shields organisms from professional phagocytes but can facilitate endogenous processing of antigens

a)

True

b)

False

27.

Any bacteria that is cultured from a site of infection is likely to be causing disease and should have an antimicrobial sensitivity test completed to determine the best treatment option.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Which of the following is a common characteristic of bacterial capsules?

a)

They are most commonly produced by gram positive bacteria

b)

They can fix complement components by the alternative pathway

c)

They block nutrient access to the cell and slow the growth of the organism

d)

They are usually highly antigenic

e)

They enhance the ability of bacteria to get inside of phagocytic cells

29.

A chronic, abscessing mastitis in ruminants that is not responsive to antimicrobial therapy is most likely caused by which of the following?

a)

Enterococcus species

b)

Trueperella pyogenes

c)

Staphylococcus epidermidis

d)

Listeria monocytogenes

e)

Streptococcus dysgalactiae

30.

Which of the following do not have one or more streptococci as common respiratory pathogens?

a)

Swine

b)

Horses

c)

Cattle, sheep and goats

d)

Humans

31.

Purpura hemorrhagica

a)

Is a result of disseminated strangles infection

b)

Results from excessive levels of IgA in the blood

c)

Results from IgA-M-Protein complex deposition on blood vessel walls

d)

Is only seen in vaccinated horses

32.

Which of the following organisms is always resistant to penicillin-class antibiotics?

a)

Enterococcus species

b)

Corynebacterium renale

c)

Listeria monocytogenes

d)

Rhodococcus equi

e)

Streptococcus equi

33.

Which of the following is a type specific antigen of a Streptococcus species?

a)

M-Protein

b)

Lancefield's A antigen

c)

Streptolysin O.

d)

Hyaluronic acid capsule

e)

CAMP factor

34.

Enterococcus species:

a)

Are less fastidious than streptococci in that they grow well without serum in the media

b)

Tolerate incubation temperatures up to 45 degrees C

c)

Are often highly resistant to antimicrobials

d)

All of the above

35.

Some organisms produce catalase:

a)

Because hydrogen peroxide is produced by their own metabolic processes.

b)

To kill competing bacteria

c)

To generate water and hydrogen gas

d)

Because they like the bubbles it produces

36.

What is the function of the protective antigen in the pathogenesis of anthrax?

a)

It binds to the target cell and facilitates the entry of the lethal toxin and edema toxin

b)

It protects against entry of lethal toxin and edema toxin into the cell

c)

It stimulates the production of antibodies against the lethal toxin and edema toxin

d)

It bind to the pXO1 plasmid

37.

Bacillus cereus variety anthracis:

a)

Possesses plasmids pXO1 and pXO2

b)

Is genetically identical to Bacillus anthracis so these should be the same species

c)

Is only pathogenic for hippos

38.

The disc diffusion or Kirby-Bauer test for antibiotic sensitivity is a _______ test as it involves the ________ interaction of diffusion of the antibiotic from the disc at the same time the bacteria is beginning to divide and grow on the plate.

a)

Quantitative; static

b)

Quantitative; dynamic

c)

Qualitative; static

d)

Qualitative; dynamic

39.

The epidemiologic cut-off value is _______ of/on drug or host factors, while the clinical breakpoint is _____ of/on drug or host factors.

a)

Independent; independent

b)

Independent; dependent

c)

Dependent; independent

d)

Dependent; dependent

40.

Which of the following pairs of MIC (in ug/mL) is NOT matched with the correct interpretation:

a)

<=2; the MIC could be 2, but it also could be much lower

b)

2; the actual MIC is 2, +/- 1 dilution due to natural variability in the test

c)

>2; the MIC is at least 4 but could be much higher

d)

>=2; the MIC could be 2, but it also could be much higher

e)

All of the above are correct interpretations of the results as written