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Exam 1 review - Exercise Physiology

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary storage form of carbohydrate in the body?

a)

Glycogen

b)

ATP

c)

Glucose

2.

Where in the cell does glycolysis occur?

a)

Ribosomes

b)

Cytoplasm

c)

Mitochondria

d)

ETC

3.

What is/are the rate-limiting enzyme(s) for The oxidative system?

a)

PFK

b)

Creatine kinase

c)

isocitrate dehydrogenase (Krebs Cycle), cytochrome oxidase (ETC)

d)

isocitrate dehydrogenase only

4.

What is the rate limiting enzyme for ATP-PCr system?

a)

Creatine Kinase

b)

PFK

c)

cytochrome oxidase

d)

Isocitrate dehydrogenase

5.

What are three ways lactate can be shuttled out of a working muscle?

a)

Transport to the heart, transport to the liver, transport to non-active muscles

b)

Transport to the kidneys

c)

Transport to the liver only

6.

At the start of the oxidative system, pyruvic acid is turned into ____________ before it enters the Krebs Cycle.

a)

Acetyl CoA

b)

Lactic acid

c)

pyruvate

7.

Why does fat oxidation require more energy compared with glucose oxidation?

a)

because it's a simple molecular structure

b)

because it has more carbon bonds

c)

it does not require more energy

8.

What is the crossover concept?

a)

When the body switches over to carbohydrate from fat as intensity increases

b)

When the body switches over to fat from carbohydrate as intensity increases

c)

When the body switches over to carbohydrate from protein as intensity increases

9.

How many ATPs are produced via glycolysis of glucose?

a)

2

b)

3

c)

32

d)

1

10.

What part of the neuron makes decisions as to which message (EPSP vs IPSP) to propagate?

a)

Axon Hillock

b)

Dendrites

c)

Nucleus

d)

NMJ

11.

What system actively transports potassium into and sodium out of the cell to maintain the resting membrane potential (RMP)?

a)

renin-angiotensin aldosterone system

b)

Sodium-potassium pump

c)

Respiratory system

12.

What are localized changes in membrane potential (either depolarization or hyperpolarization) called?

a)

Action potentials

b)

Graded potentials

c)

Refractory periods

13.

What principle can help explain the depolarization threshold?

a)

All-or-none Principle

b)

vice principal

14.

Myelination of a neuron can improve what types of physical activities?

a)

strength only

b)

Flexibility and balance

c)

Agility, Balance, Coordination

15.

The refractory period does not limit a motor unit’s firing frequency

a)

True

b)

False

16.

What neurotransmitter is the primary neurotransmitter for the motor neurons that innervate skeletal muscle?

a)

Acetylcholine

b)

Dopamine

c)

Acetyl CoA

17.

What kinesthetic receptor senses how much a muscle is stretched?

a)

Muscle spindles

b)

Golgi tendon organs

c)

Joint receptors

d)

mechanoreceptors

18.

What subdivision of the autonomic nervous system increases heart rate, vasoconstriction, and bronchodilation?

a)

Sympathetic nervous system

b)

Parasympathetic nervous system

c)

Pathetic nervous system

19.

Where do more complex movement patterns originate from compared to motor reflexes?

a)

Cerebral cortex

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Brain Stem

d)

Spinal cord

20.

What part of a muscle fiber stores calcium?

a)

Sarcoplasm

b)

T-tubules

c)

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

21.

What is a motor unit?

a)

An alpha motor neuron and all the fibers it innervates

b)

A gamma motor neuron and all the fibers it innervates

c)

the site where a neuron and muscle meet

22.

Describe the sliding filament theory

a)

Calcium binds to troponin. Tropomyosin moves off the actin binding sites. Myosin binds with active actin binding sites and pulls.

b)

Calcium binds to tropomyosin. Troponin moves off the actin binding sites. Myosin binds with active actin binding sites and pulls.

c)

Calcium binds to troponin. Tropomyosin moves off the actin binding sites. Actin heads binds with active myosin binding sites and pulls.

23.

When does a muscle contraction end?

a)

When calcium travels down the t-tubules

b)

When sodium is pumped out of the cell

c)

When calcium is taken back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum

24.

What muscle fiber type has the lowest motor unit strength?

a)

Type I

b)

Type IIa

c)

Type IIx

25.

What muscle fiber type has the highest sarcoplasmic reticulum development?

a)

Type I

b)

Type IIx

c)

Type IIa

26.

All fiber types tend to reach their peak power at what peak force?

a)

10%

b)

45%

c)

20%

27.

What are two dynamic muscle actions?

a)

Isotonic and isometric

b)

Concentric and eccentric

c)

static and isometric

28.

Increasing firing rate and recruiting more MU’s are two ways more force can be generated with a muscle contraction

a)

True

b)

False

29.

Compare and contrast a twitch, summation, and tetanus

a)

Single stimulus, extended stimuli, more than 3 stimuli added

b)

multiple stimuli, more than 10 stimuli added, extended stimuli

c)

Single stimulus, more than 3 stimuli added, extended stimuli

30.

During the concentric phase of a movement, more force is generated at what velocity?

a)

Slow

b)

Fast

31.

What are two factors the determine blood hormone concentrations?

a)

Plasma volume, and receptors available

b)

pH levels and the organ

32.

What is the difference between hormonal, humoral, and neural stimulation?

a)

the first uses NS, second uses changing ion and nutrient levels, and third uses hormones

b)

the first uses hormones, second uses changing ion and nutrient levels, and third is stimulated by the NS

33.

A decrease in receptor number in response to high concentrations of a hormone is called?

a)

Down regulation

b)

Up regulation

c)

Saturation

34.

What type of hormone is lipid soluble and has mRNA activate protein synthesis?

a)

non-steroid hormones

b)

steroid hormones

c)

adrenaline

d)

T3 and T4

35.

Name one steroid hormone and one nonsteroidal hormone

a)

Cortisol; epinephrine

b)

epinephrine; cortisol

c)

T3; aldosterone

d)

aldosterone; testosterone

36.

What hormone increases gluconeogenesis and stimulates the release of IGF-1?

a)

Growth Hormone

b)

testosterone

c)

estrogen

d)

catecholamines

37.

What two hormones are permissive hormones?

a)

epinephrine and norepinephrine

b)

testosterone and GH

c)

T3 and T4

38.

Why is glycogenolysis related to exercise intensity?

a)

Because you need to break down more glucose into glycogen to generate ATP

b)

Because you need to break down more glycogen into glucose to generate ATP

c)

Because you need to break down more glycogen into FFA to generate ATP

39.

What hormones promote muscle glycogen, liver glucose, and FFA mobilization but interfere with glucose uptake?

a)

Steroid hormones

b)

Catecholamines

c)

T3 and T4

40.

What are two pancreatic endocrine hormones and what are their roles?

a)

Insulin: stimulates glucose, amino acid, and FFA uptake by cells; Glycogen: primary storage of glucose

b)

Insulin: stimulates glucose, amino acid, and FFA uptake by cells; glucagon: promotes mobilization of glucose release from liver, and FFA from adipose tissue

c)

ADH: Hemoconcentration during exercise, increased plasma osmolarity, and low plasma volume stimulate the release of ADH. glucagon: promotes mobilization of glucose release from liver, and FFA from adipose tissue

41.

What hormone promotes protein catabolism?

a)

Cortisol

b)

Epinephrine

c)

GH

42.

What hormone is released from the posterior pituitary and promotes water retention in the kidneys in an effort to dilute plasma electrolyte concentrations?

a)

ADH

b)

Aldosterone

c)

Insulin

d)

Glucagon

43.

What is renin?

a)

Stimulates lipolysis via lipase

b)

Promotes renal reabsorption of sodium, causing the body to retain sodium

c)

Initiates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism to help maintain plasma volume and blood pressure

44.

What is the difference between direct and indirect calorimetry?

a)

Direct calorimetry measures heat while indirect calorimetry measures oxygen consumed vs carbon dioxide produced

b)

Indirect calorimetry measures heat while direct calorimetry measures oxygen consumed vs carbon dioxide produced

45.

What is the respiratory exchange ratio?

a)

VO2/VCO2

b)

VCO2/VO2

c)

VCO2/VO2max

46.

What does a RER value of 0.7 indicate?

a)

Use of carbohydrates as an energy source

b)

Use of fat as an energy source

c)

Use of protein and an energy source

47.

What is resting metabolic rate?

a)

The minimum amount of energy required by the body to sustain basic cellular function

b)

The maximum amount of energy required by the body to sustain basic cellular function

48.

At what % of VO2max does lactate threshold occur in untrained people compared to elite athletes?

a)

50-60% in untrained vs 70-80% in trained

b)

70-80% in untrained vs 50-60% in trained

49.

What is the primary buffer used to maintain cell pH between 7.1 and 6.4?

a)

Bicarbonate

b)

lactic acid

c)

hemoglobin

50.

What is the best measure for endurance performance?

a)

Lactate threshold

b)

VO2max

c)

broad jump