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CMMI

Total questions: 88

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Name the two types of model views.

(a)  

2.

An organization that primarily performs software development, could choose this predefined view.

(a)  

3.

A group of related Practice Areas that can provide improved performance in the skills and activities of an organization or projects.

(a)  

4.

Logical groups or views of related Capability Areas that address common problems encountered by businesses when producing or delivering solutions.

(a)  

5.

A tendency or practice, especially one that is hard to give up.

(a)  

6.

Firm or obstinate continuance in a course of action despite difficulty or opposition is called?

(a)  

7.

This PA contains practices that need to be performed by senior management to ensure that work is accomplished in a way that is relevant and important to the business and to the organization.

(a)  

8.

This PA describes the necessary infrastructure to ensure that processes are built, followed, sustained, and improved over time.

(a)  

9.

Practices in this Practice

Area are used to estimate the size, effort, and cost for the work required to develop, acquire, or deliver the product or service.​

(a)  

10.

Practices in this Practice Area are used to​ identify defects through an examination of work products by the producer’s peers.​

(a)  

11.

Practices in this Practice Area are used to​ develop the skills and knowledge of personnel so they perform their roles efficiently and effectively.​

(a)  

12.

The Improving Performance Capability Area belongs to which Category?

(a)  

13.

The Planning and Managing Work Capability Area belongs to which Category?

(a)  

14.

The Ensuring Quality Capability Area belongs to which Category?

(a)  

15.

What does REQM stand for?

a)

Requirement Maintenance

b)

Requirement Management

c)

Requirement Monitoring

d)

Required Maintenance

16.

What is level 4 of CMMI Maturity Level?

a)

Defined

b)

Optimizing

c)

Managed

d)

Quantitatively Managed

17.

Which of these documents are unique to REQM?

a)

Requirements Management Process Description

b)

Requirements Gate Review Checklist

c)

Business Requirements Template

d)

Requirements Management Plan Template

18.

During SCAMPI audit, if you are not involved in the task and do not know the answer:

a)

Answer the question

b)

Say, I don't remember

c)

Say, That task is not something I normally do, but I know there is a responsible person I can go to

d)

Say, I will research and give you the details later

19.

Where exactly are all templates and documents relevant to each process area located?

a)

Outlook

b)

eScope on SharePoint

c)

OneNote

d)

OneDrive

20.

……is NOT used to evaluate process performance.

a)

Schedule predictability

b)

Product reliability

c)

Process compliance

d)

Resource cost

e)

Delivered functionality

21.

What is the business value of implementing process that meet the intent of the practices from the Monitor and Control (MC) Practice Area?

a)

Keep track of schedule dates.

b)

Keep track of costs.

c)

Take corrective actions.

d)

Compare actuals to planned estimates.

e)

Increase the probability that performance objectives will be met.

22.

Within a Practice Area, increasing practice level numbers indicate:

a)

Increasing difficulty.

b)

Increasing business value.

c)

Increasing compliance.

d)

Increasing number of stakeholders.

23.

What is the full name of the RSK Practice Area?

a)

Risk and Opportunity Management

b)

Requirements and Operations Management

c)

Risk and Operations Monitoring

d)

Requirements and Opportunity Management

e)

Risk and Opportunity Monitoring

24.

Bidirectional traceability is:

a)

A matrix of requirements

b)

An association among two logical entities

c)

A way to track the relationship both to and from a source and something dependent on that source

d)

A way to map customer requirements to component requirements

25.

In a peer review, “peer” refers to:

a)

A member of the British House of Lords

b)

Someone with the same level of authority as the author of the material being reviewed

c)

Someone who works in the same department as the author of the material being reviewed

d)

Someone who looks closely (i.e., “peers”) at the material being reviewed

26.

A tailored process is a process that:

a)

Is written down and available in the process asset library

b)

Eliminates some steps of the standard process to make it more efficient

c)

Fits both large and small projects

d)

Is implemented appropriately for a project based on documented organizational criteria and guidelines

27.

In CMMI, “performance” refers to:

a)

Compliance to a standard process definition

b)

Results of implementing a process

c)

Ability to implement a process

d)

A play, concert, or other form of entertainment

28.

“Select outcomes for analysis” is a practice in this Practice Area:

a)

CAR

b)

DAR

c)

CM

d)

MC

e)

MPM

29.

Which statement is true?

a)

PQA practices are used to make sure work products are created using the expected procedures and templates.

b)

VV practices are used to make sure work products are created using the expected procedures and templates

c)

PQA practices are used to make sure work products are delivered according to the plan

d)

VV practices are used to make sure work products are delivered according to the plan

e)

PQA practices are used to make sure work products meet the requirements

30.

Which of the following statements are true?


A. Practice Areas are groups of practices

B. Processes are groups of Practice Areas

C. Practice Areas are processes

D. Practices are implemented in processes

a)

A and B

b)

C and D

c)

A and D

d)

A and C

e)

B and C

31.

Which of these Practice Areas include practices used to address things that have not yet occurred?

a)

RSK

b)

IRP

c)

CONT

d)

RSK & CONT

e)

IRP, CONT, ROM

32.

Which of the following is NOT required to be an Appraisal Team Member?

a)

CMMI Institute authorization

b)

Experience performing relevant work

c)

Member of organization being appraised

d)

Availability during conduct phase of appraisal

e)

Completed Building Excellence course for model view

33.

Which of the following is NOT a requirement for CMMI Professional Certification?

a)

At least one Building Excellence course

b)

Appraisal Team Member experience

c)

Applying CMMI course

d)

Management experience

e)

CMMI Associate certification

34.

What is CMMI?

a)

It is a model that contains the best practices and that provides organizations with those elements that are essential for their business processes to be effective

b)

There are numerous benefits of implementing CMMI in an IT / Software Development Organization, some of these benefits are listed below

35.

What is a disadvantage of CMMI?

a)

Increased Customer Satisfaction

b)

CMMI-DEV is may not be suitable for every organization.

It may add overhead in terms of documentation.

36.

an option to turn a disadvantage into an advantage?

a)

Selection of the CMMI Model relevant to the Business Domain of the organization. CMMI Consultant can help in selecting the right CMMI Model from the three CMMI Models i.e. CMMI-DEV, CMMI-ACQ and CMMI-SVC, based on the analysis of existing Business Domain of organization.

b)

May require additional resources and knowledge required in smaller organizations to initiate CMMI-based process improvement.

37.

How to maintain a CMMI partner certification

a)

The CMMI Associate certification covers your understanding of the three CMMI models: CMMI Acquisition, CMMI Development and CMMI Services. You can take the Fundamentals of CMMI course, which is a one-day crash course on the CMMI model

b)

Certified CMMI Associates must retake the certification exam every three years to ensure that they are educated on the latest CMMI best practices and models.

38.

What is one of the requirements of CMMI?

a)

Fee: $250

b)

CMMI V2.0 Certification Policy

39.

What is the Appraiser Certifications

a)

Organizations around the world work diligently to achieve performance excellence based on CMMI’s benchmark practices

b)

CMMI maturity levels are assessed by SCAMPI (Standard CMMI Appraisal Method for Process Improvement) appraisers, who apply the SCAMPI framework to a business process to determine how far along it is in the five-stage maturity process

40.

What is a project scope?

a)

A project scope, or project scope statement, is a tool used to describe the major deliverables of a project including the key milestones, high level requirements, assumptions, and constraints.

b)

In order to become a Certified CMMI Instructor, you’ll need at least 10 years of experience working in your domain. All candidates, no matter what track you choose, need to have spent at least three years as a member of an engineering process group (EPG), a process improvement team or as a process improvement coach.

41.

which is to involve the right stakeholders

a)

We must indicate that things are left out of the project. That which is not considered with the execution of the project. As a general rule, what is not included in the Project is excluded.

b)

It of course goes without saying that for a project to be delivered successfully, the correct stakeholders from the organisation commissioning the project must be involved very intimately at various stages of the project scope.

42.

It is a reference or guide on the location of the documents

a)

Service Roster

b)

Risk Management Plan

c)

Baseline Map

d)

Service Request Document

43.

What is the meaning of CMMI?

a)

Capability Maturity Model Integration

b)

Capacity and Methodology Maturity Integration

c)

Creating Movement for Model Integrity

d)

Capability Model and Maturity Interface

44.

A list of services that A&I provide to its customers (technical view).

a)

Tailoring Guidelines

b)

Technical Service Catalog

c)

Service Portfolio

d)

Business Service Catalog

45.

A defined procedure for A&I to establish standard process for accepting and processing service request to deliver based on the agreed SOW.

a)

Coding Procedure

b)

Service Request Management Procedure

c)

Deployment Procedure

d)

None of the above

46.

For service, it is a document that contains the request information, request definition (scope, deliverables), requirement assessment, request estimates and cost and request schedule

a)

Initiation Document

b)

Service Request Document

c)

Service Level Agreement

d)

Statement of Work

47.

Choose the PROJECT ID with correct coding format :

a)

<YYYY>-<Service Line>-<Ticket/Atlas Project Code>-<Group>-<Sub-group>-<Project Name>

b)

<YYYY>-<Ticket/Atlas Project Code>-<Group>-<Sub-group>-<Service Line>-<Project Name>

c)

<Ticket/Atlas Project Code>-<MM><YYYY>-<Service Line>-<Group>-<Sub-group>-<Project Name>

d)

<YYYY>-<Service Line>-<Group>-<Sub-group>-<Ticket/Atlas Project Code>-<Project Name>

48.

It is a framework where service is provided for ongoing feature development projects; Ensure ongoing applications and defect fixing is quick.

a)

Application Design

b)

Application Support

c)

R&D

49.

It is a framework where service is provided for ongoing feature development projects; Ensure ongoing applications and defect fixing is quick.

a)

Application Design

b)

Application Support

c)

R&D

50.

It will be the main storage for all project artifacts and will be the one to prevent the unauthorized changes to the baseline project artifacts.

a)

Process Asset Location

b)

Project Asset Library

c)

Process Artifact Library

d)

Process Asset Library

51.

A document that defines the Service Team, Service Goals, Organizational Structure, list of stakeholders/customers, and how the Service Team will deliver its services to its customers.

a)

Service Management Plan

b)

Service Request Management Plan

c)

Service Request Document

d)

Service Roster

52.

Defines how the service team accept and register Service Requests and directly handling them according to the priority level.

a)

Service Management Plan

b)

Service Request Management Plan

c)

Service Roster

d)

Technical Service Catalog

53.
CMMI (Capability Maturity Model Integration) is a quality assurance method designed to help organisations improve their performance.
a)
True
b)
False
c)
Maybe
54.
What do models like CMMI help organisation with?
a)
Required for a business plan
b)
Has a structure
c)
Build on its past experience
d)
To repeat mistakes
55.
This level there is minimal organisation and planning.
a)
Level 1
b)
Level 2
c)
Level 3
d)
Level 4
56.
Allows the organisation to track important elements such as the cost and time scale of projects, start to plan projects, and to review by comparing final performance with the plan.
a)
Level 1
b)
Level 2
c)
Level 5 
d)
Level 5
57.
An Engineering Process Group (EPG) within the organisation defines standard approaches for key tasks, addressing a key problem from a previous level
a)
Level 2
b)
Level 3
c)
Level 4
d)
Level 5
58.
Here statistical data and tools begin to be used in order to define goals for the organisation and thus improve its performance. 
a)
Level 2
b)
Level 3
c)
Level 4
d)
Level 5
59.
Here an organisation makes small, continuous improvements to its methods. 
a)
Level 2
b)
Level 3
c)
Level 4
d)
Level 5
60.
CMMI (Capability Maturity Model Integration) is a quality assurance method designed to help organisations improve their performance.
a)
True
b)
False
c)
Maybe
61.
What do models like CMMI help organisation with?
a)
Required for a business plan
b)
Has a structure
c)
Build on its past experience
d)
To repeat mistakes
62.
This level there is minimal organisation and planning.
a)
Level 1
b)
Level 2
c)
Level 3
d)
Level 4
63.
Allows the organisation to track important elements such as the cost and time scale of projects, start to plan projects, and to review by comparing final performance with the plan.
a)
Level 1
b)
Level 2
c)
Level 5 
d)
Level 5
64.
An Engineering Process Group (EPG) within the organisation defines standard approaches for key tasks, addressing a key problem from a previous level
a)
Level 2
b)
Level 3
c)
Level 4
d)
Level 5
65.
Here statistical data and tools begin to be used in order to define goals for the organisation and thus improve its performance. 
a)
Level 2
b)
Level 3
c)
Level 4
d)
Level 5
66.
Here an organisation makes small, continuous improvements to its methods. 
a)
Level 2
b)
Level 3
c)
Level 4
d)
Level 5
67.
Which level would determine projects that fall outside of its goals, a managerial review will take place to determine whether they should continue.
a)
Level 2
b)
Level 3
c)
Level 4
d)
Level 5
68.
What level would employees give feedback on these processes using a Quality Management System (QMS), so that the EPG can improve the standards over time.
a)
Level 1
b)
Level 2
c)
Level 3
d)
Level 4
69.
This level could have tasks which occur on a project-by-project basis – there are no central organisational standards for how these tasks should be performed
a)
Level 1
b)
Level 2
c)
Level 3
d)
Level 4
70.

……is NOT used to evaluate process performance.

a)

Schedule predictability

b)

Product reliability

c)

Process compliance

d)

Resource cost

e)

Delivered functionality

71.

What is the business value of implementing process that meet the intent of the practices from the Monitor and Control (MC) Practice Area?

a)

Keep track of schedule dates.

b)

Keep track of costs.

c)

Take corrective actions.

d)

Compare actuals to planned estimates.

e)

Increase the probability that performance objectives will be met.

72.

Within a Practice Area, increasing practice level numbers indicate:

a)

Increasing difficulty.

b)

Increasing business value.

c)

Increasing compliance.

d)

Increasing number of stakeholders.

73.

What is the full name of the RSK Practice Area?

a)

Risk and Opportunity Management

b)

Requirements and Operations Management

c)

Risk and Operations Monitoring

d)

Requirements and Opportunity Management

e)

Risk and Opportunity Monitoring

74.

Bidirectional traceability is:

a)

A matrix of requirements

b)

An association among two logical entities

c)

A way to track the relationship both to and from a source and something dependent on that source

d)

A way to map customer requirements to component requirements

75.

In a peer review, “peer” refers to:

a)

A member of the British House of Lords

b)

Someone with the same level of authority as the author of the material being reviewed

c)

Someone who works in the same department as the author of the material being reviewed

d)

Someone who looks closely (i.e., “peers”) at the material being reviewed

76.

A tailored process is a process that:

a)

Is written down and available in the process asset library

b)

Eliminates some steps of the standard process to make it more efficient

c)

Fits both large and small projects

d)

Is implemented appropriately for a project based on documented organizational criteria and guidelines

77.

In CMMI, “performance” refers to:

a)

Compliance to a standard process definition

b)

Results of implementing a process

c)

Ability to implement a process

d)

A play, concert, or other form of entertainment

78.

“Select outcomes for analysis” is a practice in this Practice Area:

a)

CAR

b)

DAR

c)

CM

d)

MC

e)

MPM

79.

Which statement is true?

a)

PQA practices are used to make sure work products are created using the expected procedures and templates.

b)

VV practices are used to make sure work products are created using the expected procedures and templates

c)

PQA practices are used to make sure work products are delivered according to the plan

d)

VV practices are used to make sure work products are delivered according to the plan

e)

PQA practices are used to make sure work products meet the requirements

80.

Which of the following statements are true?


A. Practice Areas are groups of practices

B. Processes are groups of Practice Areas

C. Practice Areas are processes

D. Practices are implemented in processes

a)

A and B

b)

C and D

c)

A and D

d)

A and C

e)

B and C

81.

Which of these Practice Areas include practices used to address things that have not yet occurred?

a)

RSK

b)

IRP

c)

CONT

d)

RSK & CONT

e)

IRP, CONT, ROM

82.

Which of the following is NOT required to be an Appraisal Team Member?

a)

CMMI Institute authorization

b)

Experience performing relevant work

c)

Member of organization being appraised

d)

Availability during conduct phase of appraisal

e)

Completed Building Excellence course for model view

83.

Which of the following is NOT a requirement for CMMI Professional Certification?

a)

At least one Building Excellence course

b)

Appraisal Team Member experience

c)

Applying CMMI course

d)

Management experience

e)

CMMI Associate certification

84.

Identifying risk is part of which process area?

a)

Project Planning (PP)

b)

Project Monitoring and Control (PMC)

c)

Integrated Project Management (IPM)

d)

Requirements Management (REQM)

85.

Planning the required knowledge and skills, includes which work products?

a)

Research matrix

b)

Training matrix

c)

Action Item list

d)

Skills matrix

86.

Milestone reviews are part of which process area?

a)

Project Planning (PP)

b)

Project Monitoring and Control (PMC)

c)

Integrated Project Management (IPM)

d)

Quatitative Project Management (QPM)

87.

When establishing teams within IPM what tool is NOT noted?

a)

Schedule

b)

RASCI

c)

Org Chart

d)

None of the above

88.

What resource is your PAL?

a)

Intranet

b)

SharePoint

c)

eScope

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