Free Printable NBDE Part 2 Sec 4

1.

Which syndrome has Cafe au laits spots, axillary freckles and lisch nodules?

a)

Neurofibromatosis

b)

Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Syndrome

c)

none of the above

d)

all of the above

2.

What is the primary indication for splinting?

a)

Mobile teeth and pt’s discomfort

b)

Trauma from occlusion

c)

all of the above

3.

Effects of opioids are all of the following except?

a)

Peripheral

b)

Constipation

c)

All of the above

4.

Side effect of nitroglycerin?

a)

Severe Hypotension, flushing and headache

b)

Respiratory depression, Hypotension

5.

Which one binds to a specific receptor?

a)

Antacids

b)

Atrophine Sulfate

6.

You have a patient that takes tranquilizers, what is your concern about the treatment?

a)

Local Anesthesia IV causes hypertension crisis

b)

None of the above

7.

Endodontic pain is characterized by all except:

a)

Dull, aching pain

b)

Sharp, shooting pain

c)

Throbbing Pain

d)

Electrical Pain

8.

Which will provide longer duration of anesthesia:

a)

2% Lidocaine with epi 1:100,000

b)

0.5% Bupivicaine with epi 1:100,000

9.

Histoplasmosis oral lesions resemble:

a)

Candidiasis

b)

Carcinoma

c)

Pseudomembranous colitis

10.

Pseudomembranous colitis is caused by:

a)

Overgrowth of crostidium difficile

b)

Taking narrow spectrum antibiotics for short period of time (1 week I think)

11.

22 year old female patient has fever, malaise erythematous gingiva with multiple ulcerations in tongue, lips everywhere, had vesicles in the tongue/oral mucosa and maybe in lips too, and had marginal gingivitis. This showed up 3 days ago, like 3 days ago she didn’t have it, now she does. What is it?

a)

Aphtous Stomatitis

b)

ANUG

c)

Primary Herpetic Gingivostomatitis

12.

Which muscle is most likely to get pierced if IANB is placed MEDIAL to the pterygomandibular raphe?

a)

Buccinator and Lateral Pterygoid

b)

Buccinator and Medial Pterygoid

c)

Buccinator with Superior Constrictor Muscle

13.

How many pins should you place in amalgam?

a)

1 pin for each cusp

b)

2 pins for each cusp

c)

1 pin in proximal side

d)

2 pin in proximal side

14.

Cracked tooth with no pulpal involvement, treatment?

a)

RCT

b)

Extra-coronal (crown)

c)

Reduce occlusion

15.

Cleft lip and palate is

a)

Autosomal recessive

b)

Autosomal Dominant

c)

X-linked recessive

d)

Genetically multifactorial

16.

At which weeks does cleft lip forms?

a)

2-3 weeks

b)

6-9 weeks

c)

12-15 weeks

d)

18-20 weeks

17.

Gingivectomy incision?

a)

90 degree incision facial or lingual toward the tooth

b)

Apical to pocket depth

c)

Coronal to Mucogingival junction, just above

18.

Best toothbrushing technique?

a)

Stillman

b)

Charter

c)

Sulcular

19.

Dens in Dente most common in?

a)

Primary Maxillary Lateral Incisor

b)

Permanent Maxillary Lateral Incisor

c)

Permanent Maxillary Central Incisor

d)

Primary Maxillary Central Incisor

20.

Most common congenitally missing tooth?

a)

Mandibular 1st premolar

b)

Maxillary Laterals

21.

Conditions least likely to have alveolar bone loss in primary dentition

a)

Hypophosphatasia

b)

Leukemia

c)

Poor Oral Hygiene

22.

Varices under tongue most associated with:

a)

Hypertension

b)

Elderly

23.

A big factor of Implant failure is:

a)

Osteopenia

b)

Osteopetrosis

c)

Poor Oral Hygiene

24.

White spot lesions are:

a)

Only Seen when dried with air-dried with air syringe

b)

Subenamel porosities

c)

Restored with Composite

25.

Contraindications for Endo:

a)

Recent MI

b)

Leukemia

26.

“Pt has failed RCT, re-current endodontic infection, which antibiotic is not good for endodontic infection. (or just basically which antibiotic is NOT good for infection of endo origin.

a)

Metronidazole

b)

Minocycline

c)

Amoxicillin

27.

Pt 1: 1st Smoker patient of the day, has a mandibular partial RPD, replacing most posterior teeth, and replacing lower incisors. Maxilla: FPD Dental Hx: hasn't been to dentist in years! Med Hx: Previous Hx of Infective Endocarditis, and I think he had an organ removed (gallbladder, etc, not important for dx) Meds: takes penicillin 200mg per day. Clinical: Patient has left only 20, 21, and 27, & maybe 28 in the mandible, maybe a back molar too. Opposing, in the maxilla he had an FPD which was probably full arch, or 6-11 and crowns in the back. This case, the guy had the last molars on both quadrants of the maxilla FULL of plaque, they looked green covered in plaque. The mandibular prosthesis had clasps which were NOT retentive at all, but clasps were like bracing, and he had no occlusal rests anywhere** remember this for a question below.

TRUE OR FALSE

what phase is he in. The guy said he didn’t have time to quit smoking.

Precontemplation

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

28.

Pt 1: 1st Smoker patient of the day, has a mandibular partial RPD, replacing most posterior teeth, and replacing lower incisors. Maxilla: FPD Dental Hx: hasn't been to dentist in years! Med Hx: Previous Hx of Infective Endocarditis, and I think he had an organ removed (gallbladder, etc, not important for dx) Meds: takes penicillin 200mg per day. Clinical: Patient has left only 20, 21, and 27, & maybe 28 in the mandible, maybe a back molar too. Opposing, in the maxilla he had an FPD which was probably full arch, or 6-11 and crowns in the back. This case, the guy had the last molars on both quadrants of the maxilla FULL of plaque, they looked green covered in plaque. The mandibular prosthesis had clasps which were NOT retentive at all, but clasps were like bracing, and he had no occlusal rests anywhere** remember this for a question below.

what I should have him do about quitting?

a)

acupuncture

b)

counseling

c)

Buspirone or Chantix

29.

An adult patient is missing his wisdom teeth, what is the most appropriate reason for missing his third molars

a)

Trauma

b)

Medication

c)

Radiation

d)

Congenital

30.

Identify in image?

(a)

31.

By encircling an abutment tooth 180 degrees, a removable partial denture clasp assembly serves to

a)

Prevent tooth movement away from the clasp

b)

Increase the retention provided by the clasp

c)

Increase the support derived from the abutment tooth

d)

Decrease the applied occlusal torquing forces

32.

Which of the following is contraindicated as a pre-prosthodontic regimen to optimize soft tissue health?

a)

Oral hygiene instructions

b)

Prophylaxis

c)

Daily rinses of chlorhexidine

d)

Premedication with oral antibiotics

33.

Diazepam-mediated effects include

a)

Peripherally-acting muscle relaxation

b)

Lowering seizure Threshold

c)

Anterograde amnesia

d)

Analgesia

34.

primary drug for The treating oral candidiasis in patient with HIV is

a)

Nystatin (Mycostatin)

b)

Acyclovir (Zovirax)

c)

Penciclovir (Denavir)

d)

Chlorhexidine (Peridex)

35.

Which of the following represents the major cause of pulpal damage associated with cavity preparation?

a)

Vibration

b)

Heat generation

c)

Dentin desiccation

d)

Adverse effects of local anesthesia

36.

A new diagnostic test is evaluated against an independent “gold” standard” in 100 subjects with the following results:

True positive = 48

True negative = 8

False positive = 12

False negative= 32

What is the negative predictive value of this new diagnostic test?

TN/TN+FN *100% = 8/8+32*100% = 20%

a)

20 percent

b)

40 percent

c)

60 percent

d)

80 percent

37.

Adrenal suppression may result from which of the following regimens of hydrocortisone?

a)

20 mg for 2 weeks within 2 years

b)

2 mg for 2 weeks within 2 years

c)

10 mg for 1 week within 1 year

d)

1 mg for 1 week within 1 year

NBDE Part 2 Sec 4

Total questions: 37

Worksheet time: 2hrs 49mins

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