Free Printable PODA 3 Exam 1

1.

Which of the following antibiotics is NOT matched with its correct source?

a)

Thienamycin ( Streptomyces cattleya )

b)

Penicillin G ( Penicillium crysogenum )

c)

Cefoxitin ( Cephalosporium acremonium )

d)

Aztreonam ( Chromobacterium violaceum )

e)

Bacitracin ( Bacillus subtilis )

2.

A Pharmacist should question a prescription that calls for the per os administration of which of the following?

a)

Nafcillin

b)

Dicloxacillin

c)

Geocillin

d)

Azlocillin

e)

Amoxicillin

3.

Which of the following has the highest plasma protein-binding capability?

a)

Oxacillin

b)

Penicillin G

c)

Methicillin

d)

Ampicillin

e)

Piperacillin

4.

Which of the following is LEAST LIKELY to be inactivated by beta-lactamase I ?

a)

Penicillin VK

b)

Mezlocillin

c)

Amoxicillin

d)

Ticarcillin

e)

Cloxacillin

5.

Which of the following is BEST classified as a Monobactam?

a)

Biapenem

b)

Panipenem

c)

Meropenem

d)

Doripenem

e)

Tigemonam

6.

Which of the following should a Pharmacist suggest for the treatment of cellulitis caused by MRSA?

a)

Doribax

b)

Teflaro

c)

Veetids

d)

Invanz

e)

Primaxin

7.

All of the following properties are common to the Vancomycin-like peptide antibacterials EXCEPT:

a)

Long t_1/2

b)

IV administration

c)

Production of hemolytic episodes

d)

Effectiveness against VRE

e)

Concentration-dependent bactericidal effect

8.

Which of the following LEAST LIKELY to be observed as an adverse effect of Daptomycin?

a)

Eosinophilic pneumonia

b)

Hyperphosphatemia

c)

Hypophosphatemia

d)

Hyperkalemia

e)

Hypokalemia

9.

Which of the following produces its antibacterial effect by inhibiting the dephosphorylation of the bacterial membrane-associated carrier?

a)

Teichoplanin

b)

Bacitracin

c)

Cycloserine

d)

Fosfomycin

e)

Cefotaxime

10.

Which of the following inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to LIPID III?

a)

Oritavancin

b)

Cycloserine

c)

Carumonam

d)

Teixobactin

e)

Cefadroxil

11.

The mechanism of action of Recarbrio involves the inhibition of which of the following?

(SELECT ALL THAT APPLY):

a)

Penicillinase

b)

Transpeptidase

c)

Dehydropeptidase-I

d)

Amidase

e)

Elastase

12.

A disulfiram-like action can be observed when alcohol is ingested concurrently with which of the following? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY):

a)

Cefotetan

b)

Cefamandole

c)

Cefmetazole

d)

Cefoperazone

e)

Moxalactam

13.

In renal dysfunction, it is NOT necessary to alter the dose or frequency of administration of which of the following (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY):

a)

Cefobid

b)

Cefoxitin

c)

Cefepime

d)

Ceftriaxone

e)

Cefamandole

14.

Which of the following is a 1^st-generation Cephalosporin that is employed in dental surgery prophylaxis? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY):

a)

Ancef

b)

Keflex

c)

Duricef

d)

Rocephin

e)

Claforan

15.

Which of the following is a Cephalosporin that is LIKELY to be employed prophylactically during hysterectomy? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY):

a)

Cefotetan

b)

Cefoxitin

c)

Cefazolin

d)

Cefotaxime

e)

Cefdinir

16.

Which of the following bacteria has been implicated in human-bite wounds? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY):

a)

Bacteroides species

b)

Staphylococcus aureus

c)

Streptococcus pyogenes

d)

Eikenella corrodens

e)

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

17.

Which of the following grows readily on the MacConkey agar? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY):

a)

Streptococcus viridans

b)

Bacillus anthracis

c)

Pasteurella maltocida

d)

Francisella tularensis

e)

Listeria monocytogenes

18.

Mr. Kew presents with a high fever, headache, diarrhea, loss of appetite, malaise and weight loss. Rash associated with small red dots and chills were also noticed. Lab results from a culture of the biological specimen obtained from Mr. Kew confirmed the presence of Salmonella species and a diagnosis of Typhoid fever was made.

Which of the following statements about the causative agent of Mr. Kew’s infection is FALSE?

a)

It is a gram-positive, aerobic bacillus

b)

It is a gram-positive, aerobic coccus

c)

It is a gram-positive, anaerobic coccus

d)

It is a gram-negative, anaerobic bacillus

e)

It is a gram-negative, aerobic bacillus

19.

Mr. Kew presents with a high fever, headache, diarrhea, loss of appetite, malaise and weight loss. Rash associated with small red dots and chills were also noticed. Lab results from a culture of the biological specimen obtained from Mr. Kew confirmed the presence of Salmonella species and a diagnosis of Typhoid fever was made.

The Medical team wants to use a Cephalosporin to treat Mr. Kew’s infection; which of the following should the Pharmacist suggest?

a)

Ancef

b)

Claforan

c)

Cefobid

d)

Spectracef

e)

Duricef

20.

Mr. Kew presents with a high fever, headache, diarrhea, loss of appetite, malaise and weight loss. Rash associated with small red dots and chills were also noticed. Lab results from a culture of the biological specimen obtained from Mr. Kew confirmed the presence of Salmonella species and a diagnosis of Typhoid fever was made.

Considering their spectra of antibacterial activity, which of the following should NOT be used to treat Mr. Kew’s infection?

a)

Penicillin G

b)

Primaxin

c)

Geopen

d)

Dynapen

e)

Azactam

21.

Mr. Wek presented with a Proteus-induced UTI which was effectively treated with Ampicillin only at a dosage of 500mg PO TID x 5 days. Based on that information, which of the following statements about the causative agent of Mr. Wek’s UTI is FALSE? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY):

a)

It is a gram-negative, aerobic bacillus

b)

It elaborates an enzyme that converts Urea to ammonia, water and carbon dioxide

c)

It is Indole-negative

d)

It elaborates an enzyme that converts tryptophan to pyruvic acid, ammonia and indole

e)

It grows readily on the MacConkey agar

22.

Which of the following is used to manage Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction?

a)

Penicillin G

b)

Procaine Penicillin G

c)

Aspirin

d)

Benadryl

e)

Probenecid

23.

Mr. Lud presented with signs and symptoms that were consistent with a diagnosis of “Lumpy jaw”. A culture of a biological specimen that was obtained from Mr. Lud revealed the presence of a bacterium that was shaped like a molar tooth. The infection abated when it was treated with Penicillin VK 500mg PO q 6hr. x 10 days

Which of the following was MOST LIKELY the causative agent of Mr. Lud’s infection?

a)

Rickettsia rickettsii

b)

Yersinia pestis

c)

Actinomyces israelii

d)

Clostridium perfringes

e)

Treponema buccale

24.

Mr. Lud presented with signs and symptoms that were consistent with a diagnosis of “Lumpy jaw”. A culture of a biological specimen that was obtained from Mr. Lud revealed the presence of a bacterium that was shaped like a molar tooth. The infection abated when it was treated with Penicillin VK 500mg PO q 6hr. x 10 days

Which of the following statements about the drug that was used to treat Mr. Lud’s infection is FALSE?

a)

It is a beta-lactam antibacterial

b)

It can be administered orally and intramuscularly

c)

It is better absorbed on an empty stomach

d)

Its plasma protein-binding capability is about 75-80%

e)

It is not resistant to beta-lactamase I

25.

Mr. Lud presented with signs and symptoms that were consistent with a diagnosis of “Lumpy jaw”. A culture of a biological specimen that was obtained from Mr. Lud revealed the presence of a bacterium that was shaped like a molar tooth. The infection abated when it was treated with Penicillin VK 500mg PO q 6hr. x 10 days

Select the CORRECT statement: Hyperkalemia may result from the concomitant administration of __________ and the drug that Mr. Lud was treated with:

a)

Lasix

b)

Chlorthalidone

c)

Oretic

d)

Tekturna

e)

Bumex

26.

Mr. Lud presented with signs and symptoms that were consistent with a diagnosis of “Lumpy jaw”. A culture of a biological specimen that was obtained from Mr. Lud revealed the presence of a bacterium that was shaped like a molar tooth. The infection abated when it was treated with Penicillin VK 500mg PO q 6hr. x 10 days

Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to decrease the secretion of the drug on Mr. Lud’s profile

Into the renal tubules?

a)

Gentamicin

b)

Clavulanic acid

c)

Sulbactam

d)

Benemid

e)

Oral contraceptives

27.

Which of the following conditions is NOT matched with its correct causative agent?

a)

Scarlet fever (Streptococcus pyogenes)

b)

Trench mouth (Treponema vincentii)

c)

Toxic Shock Syndrome (Staphylococcus aureus)

d)

Lyme disease (Borrelia burgdorferi)

e)

Chancroid (Hemophilus influenzae)

28.

An S-shaped bacterium will be retrieved from the biological specimen obtained from an individual who has which of the following conditions? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY):

a)

Weil’s disease

b)

Relapsing fever

c)

Rat-bite fever

d)

Gingivostomatitis

e)

Syphilis

29.

Mr. Kool, who is a heroin abuser, presented with fever, fatigue, chills, night sweats, arthralgia, myalgia, heart murmur, shortness of breath, chest pain and swelling of the feet. A culture of the biological specimen obtained from Mr. Kool revealed the presence of an aerobic bacterium that was shaped like a safety-pin. A diagnosis of infective endocarditis was made and the patient was effectively treated with Primaxin 500mg IV q 6hr.

Which of the following statements about the drug that Mr. Kool’s infection was treated with is FALSE?

a)

It contains a transpeptidase inhibitor

b)

It has a shorter half-life than Invanz

c)

It has a higher plasma protein-binding capability than Doribax

d)

It mostly undergoes renal excretion

e)

It is not administered intramuscularly

30.

Mr. Kool, who is a heroin abuser, presented with fever, fatigue, chills, night sweats, arthralgia, myalgia, heart murmur, shortness of breath, chest pain and swelling of the feet. A culture of the biological specimen obtained from Mr. Kool revealed the presence of an aerobic bacterium that was shaped like a safety-pin. A diagnosis of infective endocarditis was made and the patient was effectively treated with Primaxin 500mg IV q 6hr.

Which of the following is Mr. Kool LEAST LIKELY to experience or exhibit during the drug therapy for his infection?

a)

Seizures

b)

Elevated BUN, AST and ALT

c)

Negative direct Coomb’s test

d)

Arrhythmia

e)

Jaundice and Phlebitis

31.

Mr. Kool, who is a heroin abuser, presented with fever, fatigue, chills, night sweats, arthralgia, myalgia, heart murmur, shortness of breath, chest pain and swelling of the feet. A culture of the biological specimen obtained from Mr. Kool revealed the presence of an aerobic bacterium that was shaped like a safety-pin. A diagnosis of infective endocarditis was made and the patient was effectively treated with Primaxin 500mg IV q 6hr.

Which of the following species is MOST LIKELY the causative agent of Mr. Kool’s infection?

a)

Hemophilus

b)

Acinetobacter

c)

Enterobacter

d)

Burkholderia

e)

Bacteroides

32.

Aztreonam should NOT be used to treat infections caused by which of the following?

a)

Aeromonas hydrophilia

b)

Moraxella catarrhalis

c)

Morganella morganii

d)

Enterobacter aerogenes

e)

Serratia marcescens

33.

Which of the following statements about drug-to-drug interactions involving the Penicillins is FALSE? A concurrent administration of ________ and ________ will result in _______:

a)

Nafcillin; Warfarin; decreased INR

b)

Ticarcillin; Coumadin; hemorrhagic episodes

c)

Penicillin VK; Invokana; additive hyperkalemia

d)

Piperacillin; HCTZ; additive hypokalemia

e)

Methicillin; Gentamicin; reduced incidence of nephrotoxicity

34.

Which of the following is an adverse effect of Bacitracin? (SELECT ALL THAT APPLY):

a)

Azotemia

b)

Nausea and Diarrhea

c)

Skin rash

d)

Pain at injection site

e)

Albuminuria

35.

Which of the following is an appropriate dosage of Teflaro when it is used to treat community- acquired pneumonia caused by Klebsiella pneumoniae?

a)

200mg PO BID x 10 days

b)

400mg IM q 12 hr x 5 days

c)

400mg IV q 6 hr x 14 days

d)

600mg IM q 6 hr x 5 days

e)

600mg IV q 12 hr x 7 days

PODA 3 Exam 1

Total questions: 35

Worksheet time: 21mins

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