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RAD 211 Chapter 20

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals is used for thyroid uptake studies?

a)

Sodium iodide

b)

Technetium 99-m

c)

Xenon 133

d)

Thallium

2.

Ionizing radiation with characteristics of an electron but emitted from the nucleus of a radioactive atom is identified as a(n):

a)

alpha particle

b)

beta particle

c)

gamma ray

d)

positron

3.

What is the name of the device required to produce positron-emitting elements?

a)

Linear accelerator

b)

Particle accelerator

c)

Cyclotron

d)

Positron generator

4.

Imaging system that uses one to three gamma detectors to produce tomographic images of an organ or structure

a)

SPECT

b)

Fusion imaging

c)

Hybrid imaging

d)

MRI/CT

5.

Regions of metastatic disease in the body have a(n) ____ uptake of 18F-FDG.

a)

increased

b)

decreased

6.

PET brain mapping techniques are intended to:

a)

identify possible primary tumors.

b)

identify thought-processing functions of the brain.

c)

distinguish between gray and white matter structures.

d)

identify key motor or sensory regions of the brain.

7.

Which radioactive tracer is commonly used to assess amino acid metabolism in a central nervous system (CNS) tumor?

a)

O-water

b)

N-ammonia

c)

C-methionine

d)

Technetium 99m

8.

Another term for short distance radiation therapy is:

a)

gamma exposure.

b)

external beam.

c)

brachytherapy.

d)

teletherapy

9.

The type of radiation therapy that uses multiple beams of radiation to three-dimensionally target a tumor is termed:

a)

intraoperative radiation therapy.

b)

brachytherapy.

c)

palliative therapy.

d)

stereotactic radiosurgery.

10.

Which member of the radiation oncology team maintains and directs the quality control and quality assurance activities associated with the use of ionizing radiation?

a)

Radiation therapist

b)

Radiation oncologist

c)

Radiation oncology nurse

d)

Medical physicist and dosimetrist

11.

What type of material makes up the functional aspect of the transducer that creates the high-frequency sound?

a)

Crystals

b)

Tungsten

c)

Silver/chromium alloy

d)

Iron oxide

12.

Ultrasound images that demonstrate dynamic motion or changes within a structure are termed:

a)

pulse echo sonography.

b)

sonographic elastography.

c)

real-time imaging.

d)

fusion imaging.

13.

Sonographic contrast agents are currently only approved by the U.S. FDA:

a)

for cardiac studies.

b)

for thyroid imaging.

c)

for vascular studies.

d)

for echocardiographic studies.

14.

Tissue heating, during an MRI procedure, is measured in _____ per kilogram.

a)

calories

b)

watts

c)

joules

d)

ionizations

15.

Which of the following occupational workers must have conventional radiographic images of the orbits taken before an MRI head scan?

a)

Radiographer

b)

Landscaper

c)

Machinist

d)

None of the above

16.

Which of the following factors helps reduce peristaltic motion during an MRI of the abdomen?

a)

Physiologic gating

b)

Use of a gradient pulse sequence

c)

Use of a spin echo pulse sequence

d)

Higher magnet strength

17.

Functional MRI is based on the:

a)

decrease in blood flow to the local vasculature that accompanies neural activity in the brain.

b)

changes in blood flow to the local vasculature that accompany neural activity in the brain.

c)

increase in the uptake of contrast media within the brain.

d)

decrease in signal produced during selective neural activity of the brain

18.

Neural activity in the brain during a functional MRI procedure is gauged by the:

a)

increase in signal intensity produced by certain regions of the brain.

b)

decrease in signal intensity by certain regions of the brain.

c)

blood oxygen level–dependent (BOLD) signal.

d)

contrast enhancement of selective regions of the brain.

19.

Why can AEC not be used for mammography of a breast with an implant?

a)

The image will be overexposed.

b)

The image will be underexposed.

c)

AEC provides greater patient dose as compared with manual techniques.

d)

This statement is false; AEC should be used for all studies including implants.

20.

Which is the method of choice for evaluating trabecular bone?

a)

Quantitative computed tomography

b)

Dual-energy x-ray absorptiometry

c)

Quantitative ultrasound

d)

Dual-energy photon absorptiometry

21.

Which other region of the body can be scanned if the patient has spine or hip artifacts (i.e., advanced arthritis)?

a)

Cervical spine

b)

Mandible

c)

Foot

d)

Forearm

22.

Which region of the spine is scanned during a DXA procedure?

a)

C7-T-5

b)

Sacroiliac joints

c)

T-12 to the iliac crest

d)

T1 to T-12

23.

Alendronate (Fosamax) is an example of a(n):

a)

bisphosphonate.

b)

selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM).

c)

parathyroid hormone.

d)

estrogen.

24.

Reproducibility as applied for DXA systems is also termed:

a)

quality assessment.

b)

system reliability.

c)

accuracy.

d)

precision.

25.

Five to ten pounds of compression of the breast is typically used during mammography.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Breathing must be suspended for projections of the breast.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

The fatty breast will usually require a reduction in exposure factors as compared with the fibroglandular breast.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

Compression should not be used on a breast with an implant.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

In thin, elderly females, it is difficult to obtain an accurate soft-tissue analysis during a DXA scan.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

There have been some documented adverse long-term effects for childbearing-age technologists working in an MRI department, but additional studies are needed to affirm this.

a)

True

b)

False