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Biomechanics Jaberganza

Total questions: 170

Worksheet time: 43hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Which term matches the definition “The study of the description of motion including considerations of space and time”
a)
Kinematics
b)
Kinetics
c)
Biomechanics
d)
Mechanics 
2.
True or false? Translation can occurs in either a straight line or a curved line?
a)
true
b)
false
3.

When walking, what point on the body is performing translation?

a)

The arms

b)

The legs

c)

The feet

d)

The head

4.
Which axis is in the sagittal plane?
a)
Frontal plane
b)
Sagittal axis
c)
Vertical axis
d)
Frontal axis
5.
Which pair of movements are done in the frontal plane?
a)
Internal/External rotation
b)
Abduction/Adduction
c)
Flexion/Extension
d)
None of the above
6.
Which of the following exercises is open kinematic chain?
a)
Bicep curls with a dumbbells
b)
Push-ups
c)
Leg press
d)
Pull ups
7.
Which of the following exercises is closed kinematic chain?
a)
Shoulder press with barbell
b)
Leg curl machine
c)
Bent over dumbbell row
d)
Squat
8.
True or false? Multiple points on an articulate surface contacts multiple points on an opposing surface but an incongruent joint is the definition of sliding/gliding.
a)
true
b)
false
9.
True or false? If there is no gliding, a subluxation or dislocation of the joint could happen.
a)
true
b)
false
10.
When a convex over concave motion happens at a joint, what are the directions of the arthrokinematic motions?
a)
Roll and slide are opposite
b)
Roll and slide are the same
c)
Roll and spin are the opposite
d)
Slide and spin are same
11.
When a concave over convex motion happens at a joint, what are the directions of the arthrokinematic motions?
a)
Roll and slide are opposite
b)
Roll and slide are the same
c)
Roll and spin are the same
d)
Slide and spin are opposite
12.
True or false? Rolling is always in the same direction of the osteokinematic motion?
a)
true
b)
false
13.
When kicking a soccer ball, what is the arthrokinematic motions happening at the knee joint?
a)
Roll and slide happen in opposite directions
b)
Spin and slide happen in opposite directions
c)
Roll and slide happen in the same direction
d)
Roll and spin happen in the same direction
14.
The plane synovial joints have what kind of axial movement?
a)
Nonaxial
b)
Uniaxial
c)
Biaxial
d)
Multiaxial
15.
The hinge joints have what kind of axial movement?
a)
Nonaxial
b)
Uniaxial
c)
Biaxial
d)
Multiaxial
16.
The pivot joints have what kind of axial movement?
a)
Nonaxial
b)
Uniaxial
c)
Biaxial
d)
Multiaxial
17.
The condylar/ellipsoid joints have what kind of axial movement?
a)
Nonaxial
b)
Uniaxial
c)
Biaxial
d)
Multiaxial
18.
The saddle joints have what kind of axial movement?
a)
Nonaxial
b)
Uniaxial
c)
Biaxial
d)
Multiaxial
19.
The ball and socket joints have what kind of axial movement?
a)
Nonaxial
b)
Uniaxial
c)
Biaxial
d)
Multiaxial
20.
True or false, close-packed position are were the articulate surface of the joints are in minimal congruency status, lax/slackened.
a)
true
b)
false
21.
True or false, in the lower extremity, the loose-packed positions of the major joints are biased toward flexion
a)
true
b)
false
22.
Which of the following is the correct definition of relative reference frame?
a)
Describes the position of one limb segment with respect to an adjacent segment.
b)
To analyze motion with respect to the ground, direction of gravity, or other type of externally defined reference frame
c)
None of the above
23.
True or false: The study of the relationship between the motions of a body (object) and the forces acting upon them is kinetics
a)
true
b)
false
24.
Which of the following can a force do?
a)
Produce motion
b)
Change direction of the body
c)
Decelerate the body
d)
All of the above
25.
Which of the following is an external force on the body?
a)
Active force
b)
Muscle forces
c)
Mechanical forces applied during activities
d)
Passive forces generated by tension
26.
Which Newton’s law states that resistance of an object to change its current state?
a)
Law of acceleration
b)
Law of inertia
c)
Law of action-reaction
d)
Low of kinetics
27.
True or false: The parallel distance between the axis of rotation of the joint and the force is called a moment arm?
a)
true
b)
false
28.
Torque is a product of what?
a)
Force and moment arm
b)
Force and acceleration
c)
Momentum and axis of rotation
d)
Force and gravity
29.
Which of the following is the correct term for this definition: The perpendicular distance between the axis of rotation and the internal force.
a)
Internal forces
b)
External moment arm
c)
Axis of rotation
d)
Internal moment arm
30.

What is the definition of pressure?

a)

Total amount of force applied between bodies/objects

b)

Amount of force applied per unit area to each body/object

c)

The force required to accelerate a 1-kg mass 1 meter per sec squared

d)

None of the above

31.
Which of the following describes angular displacement?
a)
Single force applied at or through the COM/COG of a body
b)
Single force applied that does not pass through the COM of an object
c)
Two net parallel forces, opposite in direction, that do not pass through the COM of an object
d)
Two net parallel forces, opposite in direction that pass through the COM of an object
32.
Select all that apply: Which of the following are type of loads (external forces acting on an object) and stresses (internal forces occurring within the material)
a)
Tension
b)
Compression
c)
Sheer
d)
Ripping
33.
True or false, injury in a ligament or tendon begin to happen in the elastic region
a)
true
b)
false
34.
Where does tissue break down occurs in the stress/strain relationship or a ligament/tendon?
a)
Toe region
b)
Elastic region
c)
Plastic region
d)
Necking and failure region
35.
Which lever class has the fulcrum (axis) between the weight (external force/load) and the force (internal force or effort)? [EF - F - IF]
a)
First class
b)
Second class
c)
Third class
d)
Fourth Class
36.
Which lever class has the weight (external force/load) between the fulcrum (axis) and the force (internal force or effort)? [F - EF - IF]
a)
First class
b)
Second class
c)
Third class
d)
Fourth Class
37.
Which lever class has the force (internal force or effort) between the fulcrum and the weight (external force/load)? [F - IF - EF]
a)
First class
b)
Second class
c)
Third class
d)
Fourth Class
38.
Which of the three class levers can have a mechanical advantage? (Select all that apply)
a)
First class
b)
Second class
c)
Third class
d)
Fourth Class
39.
Which of the three class levers can have a mechanical disadvantage? (Select all that apply)
a)
First class
b)
Second class
c)
Third class
d)
Fourth Class
40.

During a dumbbell curl with the biceps brachii as the prime mover, which class lever is it and why?

a)

Second class because the internal moment arm is closer to the fulcrum than the external moment arm

b)

Second class because the external moment arm is closer to the fulcrum than the internal moment arm

c)

Third class because the external moment arm is closer to the fulcrum than the internal moment arm

d)

Third class because the internal moment arm is closer to the fulcrum than the external moment arm

41.
What is the definition or the equation in calculating work?
a)
Product of force times the distance through which it is applied
b)
Product of force divided by the distance through which it is applied
c)
The distance applied divided by the product of the force
d)
None of the above
42.
True or false, the center of mass is the point at which its mass is evenly distributed in all direction?
a)
true
b)
false
43.
True or false, the center of gravity is the point about which the effects of body weight are completely balanced?
a)
true
b)
false
44.
When describing elbow joint range of motion, which reference frame is used when the long axes of the upper arm and forearm segments are used for measurements?
a)
Global reference frame
b)
Relative reference frame
c)
Both A and B
d)
Fourth Class Lever
45.

When analyzing anterior or lateral deviations of the trunk during gait, what reference frame is used when using the position of the trunk with respect to an external vertical reference?

a)

Global reference frame

b)

Relative reference frame

c)

Both A and B

d)

Fourth Class Lever

46.
True or false, when two or more forces applied to a segment are combined into a single resultant force, the magnitude of the resultant force is considered equal to the sum of the component vectors.
a)
true
b)
false
47.
True or false, vector resolution is the process of replacing a single force with two or more forces that when combined are greater to the original force
a)
true
b)
false
48.
During the exercise of a barbell squat, what muscle action is happening when the person is lowering to the bottom of the squat?
a)
Isometric
b)
Concentric
c)
Eccentric
49.
During the exercise of a pushup, what muscle action is happening when staying at the top of the movement?
a)
Isometric
b)
Concentric
c)
Eccentric
50.
During the exercise of box squats, what muscle action is happening when standing up from the box?
a)
Isometric
b)
Concentric
c)
Eccentric
51.
True of false, during a dumbbell curl, the antagonist muscle of the movement is the biceps brachii?
a)
true
b)
false
52.
True or false, the antagonist muscles performs the opposite movements of the agonists prime movers?
a)
true
b)
false
53.
Which of the following is the correct definition for synergistic muscles?
a)
Muscles who bring about the movement by contraction
b)
Muscles that are opposing group of prime movers
c)
Work or relax to modify the movement of the prime movers
d)
None of the above
54.
True or false, force-coupling is when two or more muscles simultaneously produce force in the same linear directions.
a)
true
b)
false
55.
Which joints rotate due to force coupling?
a)
Glenohumeral joint
b)
Pelvic girdle
c)
Atlantoaxial joint
d)
All of the above
56.
True or false, parallel muscles are capable of producing more range of motion than pinnate muscles?
a)
true
b)
false
57.
True or false: Passive tension is also known as non contractile tension
a)
true
b)
false
58.

What is the function of the passive length-tension curve?

a)

Must combine with force velocity relationship to determine the effect that both length and velocity have on muscle tension

b)

Illustrate the positively correlated relationship between muscle length and passive tension, which can move or stabilize a joint.

c)

The amount of tension generated depends on the neural factors and mechanical properties of muscle

d)

All of the above

59.
During the movement torque produced at the joint is not only due to muscle force but also...
a)
Function of moment arm
b)
Passive length-tension
c)
Active length-tension
d)
Isometric length-tension
60.
True or false: torque of muscle reduces when full ROM is attempted at all joints crossed by multi joint muscle. This decrease in torque is called passive insufficiency.
a)
true
b)
false
61.
Active insufficiency occurs when:
a)
The multi-joint muscle is lengthened
b)
The multi-joint muscle is the same
c)
The multi-joint muscle is shortened
d)
The multi-joint muscle is shortened at one joint and lengthened at another joint.
62.
Which of the following are common muscles that have active and passive insufficiency? (Select all that apply)
a)
Hamstrings
b)
Triceps Brachii
c)
Brachialis
d)
Extensor carpi radialis brevis
63.
True or false, during active insufficiency the multi-joint muscles create so much slack, that muscle tension is almost completely lost.
a)
true
b)
false
64.
True or false: During a maximal-effort concentric activation, the amount of muscle force produced is directly proportional to the velocity of muscle shortening?
a)
true
b)
false
65.

Fill in the blank: during a force velocity curve, as speed decreases, tension increases in a (a)   contraction.

66.

Fill in the blank: during a force velocity curve, as speed of length increases, tension increases and then plateaus in a (a)   contraction

67.
True or false, muscle produces greater force isometrically than at any speed of shortening
a)
true
b)
false
68.

Select all that apply, what possibilities are why muscles produce greater force during eccentric activation than isometric and concentric?

a)

A greater average force produced per cross bridge, as each cross bridge is pulled apart and detached

b)

Inherent limitation in the speed of attachment and reattachment of the cross bridges

c)

Passive tension produced by the viscoelastic properties of the parallel and serial elastics components of muscle

d)

A maximal number of cross bridges axis to within a given sarcomere at any given instant

69.
Select all that apply, which factors affect muscle function?
a)
Types of joint
b)
Number of joints crossed by the muscle
c)
Passive insufficiency
d)
Sensory receptors
70.
True or false: When the distal attachment is at a far distance form the joint axis, it acts as a stability function rather than a wide ROM
a)
true
b)
false
71.

During which muscle movement is the joint motion kept at a constant velocity throughout?

a)

Eccentric

b)

Concentric

c)

Isokinetic

72.
True or false, under the same load and velocity, a muscle that is activated concentrically will exhibit less fatigue than when activated eccentrically
a)
true
b)
false
73.
Which repeated muscle action will cause delayed onset of muscle soreness (DOMS)?
a)
Eccentric
b)
Isometric
c)
Concentric
d)
Isokinetic
74.
During resistance training, at what point will a person begin seeing increased hypertrophy?
a)
From the start
b)
4-8 weeks
c)
1-4 weeks
d)
after 8 weeks
75.
Which of the following choices best represents the safest and reliable method of testing a non trained individuals 1 Rep Max (1RM)?
a)
1 rep at the maximum weight a person can move through full ROM and unable to perform a 2nd rep
b)
3 reps at the maximum weight a person can move through full ROM and unable to perform a 4th rep
c)
10 reps at the maximum wight a person can move through full ROM and unable to perform an 11th rep
d)
The safest method is not given
76.
Which of the following percentages of one rep max is the training zone for for an untrained healthy individual?
a)
30-40% of 1RM
b)
60-70% of 1RM
c)
80-95% of 1RM
d)
All of the above
77.
During resistance training, which timeframe below shows when the neural adaption takes place?
a)
<4 weeks
b)
6-12 weeks
c)
After 8 weeks
d)
None of the above
78.
Which type of collagen is less elastic, where having a higher proportion can lead to motion loss following trauma and decreased dislocation recurrence rates?
a)
Type I
b)
Type II
c)
Type III
79.
Muscles produce the greatest amount of force during concentric activation
a)
true
b)
false
80.
Which is not a mechanical characteristic of forces involving the musculoskeletal system?
a)
Magnitude
b)
Direction
c)
Velocity
d)
Line of action
81.
Which degree range will produce the greatest compressive force on the knee joint in a seated knee extension?
a)
120-90 deg
b)
90-70 deg
c)
70-45 deg
d)
45-0 deg
82.
How do the characteristics of pennate muscles compare to parallel muscles? Pennate muscles have:
a)
Less ROM and less force capability
b)
Greater ROM and greater force capability
c)
Less ROM and greater force capability
d)
Greater ROM and less force capability
83.
when an external force or pressure is placed on an object or body, there is an internal resistance force that reacts to the pressure. This reaction is called:
a)
viscoelasticity
b)
strain
c)
stress
d)
deformation
e)
creep
84.
if a patient has limited hip flexion, a physical therapist can assist in mobilizing the hip joint by gliding the head of the femur in what direction?
a)
superiorly
b)
inferiorly
c)
laterally
d)
medially
85.
which of the following is an example of a condylar joint?
a)
intertarsal joints
b)
atlantoaxial joint
c)
intercarpal joints
d)
interphalangeal joints
e)
metacarpophalangeal joints
86.
Flexion and extension occur in which plane?
a)
Tranverse plane
b)
Frontal plane
c)
Sagittal plane
d)
Airplane
e)
Fourth Class Lever
87.
True or False: Isometric contractions produce the most force.
a)
true
b)
false
88.
What are the characteristics of force?
a)
Space Force
b)
Line of Action
c)
Magnitude
d)
Point of Application
e)
Direction
89.
True or False. The active length tension curve is greatest when the muscle fiber is stretched.
a)
true
b)
false
90.
Which of the following is not a unit for kinetics?
a)
Newtons
b)
Feet
c)
kPa
d)
kg m/s
91.
Which type of synovial joint is matched with the correct information?
a)
Plane joint- biaxial movement
b)
Pivot joint- wrist joints
c)
Saddle joint- uniaxial movement
d)
Ellipsoid joint- radiocarpal joint
92.
When a baseball player goes to throw a pitch, muscle spindles are sending a signal to do which of the following?
a)
inhibit teres minor
b)
activate teres minor
c)
inhibit subscapularis
d)
activate subscapularis
93.
Doing which of the following before a bicep curl will increase the amount of force produced by the biceps brachii?
a)
a stretch of the biceps immediately before
b)
increasing the external load
c)
position the person upside down
d)
increasing the internal moment arm
94.
A progressive strain of a material when exposed to constant load over time,” is the definition of what?
a)
Stress
b)
Deformation
c)
Creep
d)
Viscoelasticity
95.
Describe the arthrokinematics at the joint during closed chain knee extension.
a)
Anterior roll and anterior glide of tibia.
b)
Posterior roll and anterior glide of femur over tibia.
c)
 Anterior roll and posterior glide of femur over tibia.
d)
Posterior roll and posterior glide of tibia.
96.
How many planes of motion can an ellipsoid joint perform?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
0
97.
Muscles produce greater force during eccentric activation than during isometric or any velocity of concentric activation.
a)
true
b)
false
98.

In the Shoulder Press Lab, we were measuring the degrees during scapulohumeral rhythm. What kind of study is this lab?

a)

Law of physics

b)

Newoton’s 1st law

c)

Newtons 2nd law

d)

Newtons 3rd law

99.
Two forces acting in equal but apposite direction that result in rotatory effects is called a
a)
Force couple
b)
Dislocating Force
c)
Stabilizing force
d)
moment arm force
100.
Wanda is a 39 year old NASA astronaut on the moon, her weight is significantly lower than on Earth's surface. And her center of gravity has been shifted:
a)
Upwards
b)
Downwards
c)
No change
d)
To a Fourth Class Lever
101.
Closed-chain dorsiflexion arthrokinematics:
a)
anterior roll - posterior glide
b)
anterior roll - anterior glide
c)
posterior roll - anterior glide
d)
posterior roll - posterior glide
102.
The triceps have been placed in a position of passive insufficiency and its non-contractile structures have been elongated. The displacement of these structures can be described as:
a)
Load
b)
Stress
c)
Strain
103.
The joint reaction force can be best explained by which of Newton's law of motion:
a)
1st
b)
2nd
c)
3rd
104.
Without resolving x-y force vector components, moving from 90 to 135 degrees of elbow flexion, the internal moment arm of the biceps force has been:
a)
not change
b)
increased
c)
decreased
105.
All of these are examples of force couples at the scapulothoracic joint (motions of the scapula) except:
a)
Lower trapezius/serratus anterior/upper trapezius - upward rotation
b)
Middle trapezius/serratus anterior - external rotation
c)
Lower trapezius/serratus anterior - posterior tilt
d)
Rhomboids/levator scap/pec minor - downward rotation
e)
Teres minor/infraspinatus/subscapularis - internal rotation
106.
Which of these synovial joints are not examples of plane joints?
a)
intertarsal
b)
intercarpal
c)
acromioclavicular
d)
interphalangeal
107.
A cell phone is on a table. A force is applied on the left side edge closest to you in a forward direction. Another force is applied in the same direction, but on the right side with a higher magnitude. This results in a:
a)
Combination of linear and rotation toward the left
b)
Combination of linear and rotation toward the right
c)
Forward translation
d)
Left Rotation
108.
Osteokinematics of ulnar deviation:
a)
Sagittal plane / Frontal axis
b)
Frontal plane / Sagittal axis
c)
Horizontal plane / Vertical axis
109.
The line of gravity extends from the center of gravity of a body to the center of mass of Earth. This in a:
a)
Relative frame of reference
b)
Global frame of reference
110.
An isometric contraction of the biceps at 45 degrees of elbow flexion produces negative work.
a)
true
b)
false
111.
A square block is nailed down on a table. The nail is in the center of the block and allows rotation of the block. A force that bisects the square block into two equal parts going through the axis of rotation will cause:
a)
Rotation
b)
No rotation
c)
Forward translation
d)
Upward translation
112.
In a concentric contraction of the biceps, from 90 degrees to 135 degrees of flexion, the parallel component of the biceps force produces positive work.
a)
true
b)
false
113.
Which of the following statements regarding isometric muscular tension is false?
a)
There is a direct relationship between isometric tension development and length of sarcomeres in a fiber
b)
Maximal isometric tension is produced at the ideal resting length of a muscle
c)
As muscle elongates beyond its resting length, active elastic tension increases
d)
A muscles strength and neuromuscular recovery is generally indicated by the isometric measurement of internal torque it produces
114.
What muscle fibers are most prone to atrophy?
a)
Fibers that are associated with larger motor units, which are typically recruited after fibers of smaller motor units,
b)
Fibers associated with small motor units
c)
Fibers that shorten at a constant velocity
d)
Fibers furthest away from a given joint axis, because they are the least influenced by CNS communication
115.
When looking at the Stress/Strain relation for Tendons/Ligaments, the Plastic region is associated with
a)
Taking up the slack
b)
Normal physiologic range
c)
Permanent deformation with compromising tissue integrity
d)
Tissue breaks down
e)
None of the above
116.
While testing the isometric muscle tension of the hamstrings in various positions, a lower magnitude force was recorded at full knee flexion and hip extension. This can be explained by
a)
Passive Insufficiency
b)
The Force/Velocity Curve
c)
The Henneman Size Principle
d)
Inhibition from GTOs
e)
Active Insufficiency
117.
Internal and External Rotation of the humerus occurs in which plane of motion?
a)
Transverse
b)
Sagittal
c)
Coronal
d)
Frontal
e)
Longitudinal
118.

The internal effect of force is the tendency to deform the body.

a)

True

b)

False

119.

Which of the following is not an external force?

a)

joint forces

b)

gravity

c)

A dumbbell's weight (while holding)

d)

assistive devices used during activities

120.

A newton is the force required to accelerate a 1-kg mass 1 meter/sec^2

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

121.

Pressure is the total amount of force applied between bodies/objects

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

122.

How do you achieve a combination of rotation/translation of movement?

a)

Applying a single force at or through the COM/COG of a body

b)

Two net parallel forces, opposite in direction, that does not pass through the COM of an object.

c)

A single force applied that does not pass through the COM of an object

123.

Jane has a partial biceps tendon tear; the tendon has been reduced in cross-sectional area. To resist the same loads that she normally uses, the amount of stress on the tendon:

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

c)

No change

124.

Abduction and adduction are movements:

a)

In the sagittal plane about the frontal axis

b)

In the frontal plane about the sagittal axis

c)

In the horizontal plane about the vertical axis

d)

None of the above

125.

Which of the following types of synovial joints allows movement in one plane only?

a)

Pivot

b)

Ellipsoid

c)

Saddle

d)

Condylar

126.

Which of the following regarding open kinematic chains is true?

a)

The distal segment of the chain moves while the proximal is fixed

b)

The proximal segment of the chain moves while the distal is fixed

c)

The proximal and distal segments of the chain move

d)

None of the above

127.

During femoral-on-tibial knee flexion in a closed chain:

a)

Femur rolls posteriorly and glides anteriorly on tibia

b)

Femur rolls and glides posteriorly on tibia

c)

Femur rolls anteriorly and glide posteriorly on tibia

d)

Femur rolls and glides anteriorly on tibia

128.

During tibial-on-femoral extension of the knee in an open chain:

a)

Tibia rolls posteriorly and glides anteriorly on femur

b)

Tibia rolls anteriorly and glides posteriorly on femur

c)

Tibia rolls and glides anteriorly on femur

d)

Tibia rolls and glide posteriorly on femur

129.

All of the following interventions are appropriate for a pt with a 20 degree knee flexion contracture except:

a)

Stretching of the semimembranosus muscle

b)

Strengthening of vastus medialis

c)

Inferior gliding of the patella

d)

Mobility of the posterior capsule of the knee joint

130.

Pt. with limited dorsiflexion will benefit from which of the following passive mobilization techniques?

a)

Posterior glide of talus on tibia

b)

Lateral glide of calcaneus on tibia

c)

Posterior glide of tibia on talus

d)

Anterior glide of talus on tibia

131.

The mechanical characteristics of forces involving the musculoskeletal system involve:

a)

Magnitude and direction only

b)

Magnitude, velocity, point of application, and line of action

c)

Magnitude, direction, point of application, and line of action

d)

Magnitude, acceleration, angles, and line of action

132.

A moment arm refers to the:

a)

Change in time by which a force is applied to the length of the rigid body

b)

Perpendicular distance from the force vector to the axis of rotation

c)

The changes in distance (arm of the change) of a rigid body

d)

Intersection between the parallel & rotational segments of a body in motion

133.

Most muscles in the human body operate within a:

a)

1st class lever

b)

2nd class lever

c)

3rd class lever

d)

4th class lever

134.

The typical muscle lever system in the human body is 3rd class. Because of this you would expect:

a)

A lower muscle force than the load supported with a limited ROM

b)

A higher muscle force than the load supported with an advantageous ROM

c)

A lower muscle force than the load supported with an advantageous ROM

d)

A higher muscle force than the load supported with limited ROM

135.

A force which is eccentric to a fixed axis of rotation of a rigid body will:

a)

Result in rotation of the rigid body

b)

Result in translation of the rigid body

c)

Result in a combination of rotation and translation

d)

Result in a stabilizing force into the joint axis

136.

Which of the following postures would have the greatest patellar compression force?

a)

Kicking a soccer (player)

b)

Knee extension exercises in a sitting position

c)

Deep squatting

d)

Straight leg raising in a lying position

137.

Muscle contractions in which the muscle exerts force while it lengthens are known as:

a)

Fast-twitch contractions

b)

Slow-twitch contractions

c)

Eccentric contractions

d)

Concentric contractions

138.

Muscle contractions in which the muscle exerts force while it lengthens are known as:

a)

Fast-twitch contractions

b)

Slow-twitch contractions

c)

Eccentric contractions

d)

Concentric contractions

139.

The anterior tilt of the pelvis is performed by a force couple between:

a)

Hip flexor and abdominal muscles

b)

Hip flexor and back extensor

c)

Hamstring and abdominal muscles

d)

Hamstring and back extensor

140.

The advantage of a muscle to possess long muscle fibers involves:

a)

The ability to produce more isometric torque

b)

The ability to create greater shortening excursions of the whole muscle

c)

Less stress on the musculotendinous junction

d)

Greater elastic moduli

141.

The structure thought to be responsible for creating greater forces during eccentric activity vs. isometric activity

a)

Myosin

b)

Actin

c)

Collagen

d)

Titin

142.

In the three component model of a muscle, the tendon is considered the:

a)

Passive contractile element

b)

In-parallel component

c)

Winding component

d)

In-series component

143.

The molecule providing resistance to sarcomere elongation during passive stretch is:

a)

Myosin

b)

Titin

c)

Actin

d)

Chondrotin Sulfate (GAGs)

144.

When a muscle tendon unit is elongated during the time it is actively stimulated it should be referred to as:

a)

Eccentric activity

b)

Concentric activity

c)

Isometric activity

d)

Isokinetic activity

145.

Cross-bridges can develop the most force during:

a)

Fast shortening contractions

b)

Fast lengthening contractions

c)

Slow shortening contractions

d)

Slow lengthening contractions

146.

Which of the following is a potential disadvantage of multi-joint muscles?

a)

Activate insufficiency

b)

Passive insufficiency

c)

Active and passive insufficiency

d)

None of the above

147.

Combined wrist and finger extension is a good example of (for wrist and finger flexors):

a)

An eccentric contraction

b)

Passive insufficiency

c)

Active insufficiency

d)

A concentric contraction

148.

During an exercise activity, increasing the speed of the shortening contraction of a muscle will:

a)

Reduce the maximal force it can generate

b)

Increase the maximal force it can generate

c)

Have no effect on force but will generate increases in its work

d)

Lower the amplitude of its EMG signal

149.

Which of the following is NOT true about measured strength?

a)

It is dependent on the posture measured in cuz it affects the muscle length

b)

It is dependent on the posture measured in cuz it affects muscle line of pull

c)

It only depends on the force generating capability of the muscle

d)

It is dependent on the muscle cross-sectional area

150.

Which of the following hip abductors testing positions produces the highest hip abduction torque?

a)

Sidelying the hip held in the near-maximal degrees of abduction

b)

Sidelying with hip held in 30 degrees of abduction

c)

Sidelying with hip held in neutral position (0 degrees)

d)

Sidelying with hip held in a slightly adducted position

151.

Concerning with a concave on convex joint, which of the following statements is Not True:

a)

It indicates the articulate surface of the proximal segment is convex where that of the distal segment is concave

b)

The tibiofemoral joint is one of the examples of the concave on convex joint

c)

The articular surface moves in the direction opposite to that of the moving bone

d)

It can provide both open and closed kinematic chain motions

152.

A quantitative analysis requires:

a)

A framework within which skilled performances can be observed

b)

Set of principles within which movement can be analyzed

c)

Checklist to use when identifying errors

d)

Techniques to use to correct errors in performance

e)

All of the above are true

153.

Compared to a short moment arm with a muscle contractile force of 10N, a muscle also with 10N of contractile force but a longer moment arm will generate:

a)

Greater linear movement but less torque

b)

Greater torque

c)

Less overall power

d)

Greater movement of the distal component of the lever it is acting upon

154.

With the knee in full extension at the end of the table with weight at the ankle, the quadriceps vector will demonstrate:

a)

A greater parallel component than a rotational component

b)

A greater rotational component than a parallel component

c)

Equal rotational and parallel components

d)

A pure rotational component since the cosine of 0=1

155.

While observing the ambulation of a 57 year old man with an arthritic right hip, the therapist observes a right lateral trunk lean. Why does the patient present with this gait deviation?

a)

To move weight toward the involved hip and increase joint compression force

b)

To move weight toward the uninvolved hip and decrease joint compression force

c)

To bring the line of gravity closer to the involved hip

d)

To bring the line of gravity away from the involved hip

156.

You are to advise a patient with a right hip joint pain due to osteoarthritis on the proper way of using a cane and/or carrying an external load. Which of the following practical advices would most likely benefit this patient?

a)

Use a cane in the left hand and carry an object on the right side

b)

Use a cane in the left hand and carry an object on the left side

c)

Use a cane on the right hand and carry an object on the right side

d)

Use a cane on the right hand and carry an object on the left side

157.

A muscular force-couple is formed when two or more muscles simultaneously produce force in different linear directions with a resulting torques act in the same rotatory directions.

a)

True

b)

False

158.

Which of the following statements is/are true:

a)

Pennate muscles are capable of producing more tension per unit of cross-sectional area than parallel muscles

b)

Parallel muscles are capable of producing more range of motion than pennate muscles

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the options are true

159.

To increased the muscle-tendon’s capacity to generate more tensile force, an exercise activity should intrinsically:

a)

Decrease the number of sarcomeres in parallel, increase the number of sarcomeres in-series

b)

Increase the number of sarcomeres in parallel

c)

Increase tendon compliance

d)

Lower the frequency of stimulation through the motor end plate to allow time for repolarization

160.

Stretching a muscle elongates both parallel and series elastic components, generating a resistance (stiffness) within the muscle. This resistance is referred to as (Check all that apply)

a)

Passive tension

b)

Non active or non-volitional contraction

c)

Active tension

d)

Contractile tension

161.

If the line of gravity is posterior to the hip joint in standing, on what does the body first rely to keep the trunk from moving into excessive lumbar extension?

a)

Iliopsoas

b)

Abdominal muscle activity

c)

Anterior pelvic ligaments and the hip joint capsule

d)

Posterior pelvic ligaments and the hip joint capsule

162.

While ascending stairs, an older adult patient leans forward with increased hip flexion. Which of the following muscles are being used to best advantage with this forward posture?

a)

Rectus femoris

b)

Tensor fasciae latae

c)

Semitendonosus

d)

Lumbar paraspinal

163.

When an individual lies down on a table and raises one leg toward the ceiling with knee extension, which of the following muscles is stretched because for eh nature of two-joint muscles?

a)

The rectus femoris

b)

The gastrocnemius

c)

The adductor longus

d)

The hamstrings

164.

Which of the following statements is/are true in regard to force-velocity relationship?

a)

During a maximal-effort concentric activation, the amount of muscle force produced is inversely proportional to the velocity of muscle shortening

b)

During a maximal-effort concentric activation, the amount of force produced is directly proportional to the velocity of muscle shortening

c)

During a maximal-effort eccentric activation, the amount of muscle force produced is inversely proportional to the velocity of muscle lengthening

d)

A and C are correct

165.

The reason the force generation Freon a muscle during an isometric activity is greater when compared to slope concentric activity relates to the:

a)

Rate of myosin actin attachment

b)

Stiffness of the parallel elastic component

c)

Motor neuron activation rate

d)

Compliance of the i series elastic components

166.

At a particular joint position, muscle length may be short, but the muscle can still produce a higher torque because:

a)

The muscle may have a long MA

b)

The muscle may have a short MA

c)

The number of potential cross bridges decreases and thus larger amounts of active force are generated

d)

The muscle cannot produce a higher torque if it is in a shortened length

167.

When performing a bicep curl on an incline bench, which position would the normal force of the biceps be the largest?

a)

At the top

b)

In the middle

c)

At the bottom

d)

All create the same normal force

168.

Resting length of the biceps occurs when the elbow is at approximately 90 degrees. You would expect the minimum force producing capability of the biceps to occur:

a)

When the elbow is flexed and the shoulder is extended

b)

When the elbow and shoulder are in full extension

c)

When the elbow and shoulder are flexed

d)

All are the same

169.

With the biceps brachii muscle carrying weight in 90 deg flexion in mind, what can be stated regarding mechanical advantage? (Assume static equilibrium, not moving)

a)

The biceps have a mechanical advantage

b)

The biceps do NOT have a mechanical advantage

c)

The condition is in static equilibrium, so the biceps do NOT affect the condition of mechanical advantage

d)

Relative to the local frame of reference, mechanical advantage cannot be determined.

170.

Strengthening of the quadricep muscles is an important component in the rehabilitation of patients with patellofemoral pain syndrome. Which exercise recommendation would be appropriate at the early stages of rehab?

a)

Tibial-on-femoral (open chain) full knee extension performed from 45 degrees of knee flexion while sitting on the edge of a treatment table

b)

Femoral-on-tibial (closed chain) knee extension from partial squat performed between 45 and 0 degrees of flexion

c)

Femoral-on-tibial extension from full squat performed between 45-90 degrees of flexion

d)

Tibial-on-femoral knee extension performed between 90-45 degrees of flexion while sitting on the edge of a treatment table with external load placed around the ankle

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