wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

501 Dr. Poon's material review

Total questions: 42

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a brand name for oral KCL? SATA

a)

Renagel

b)

Klor-Con

c)

Kayexalate

d)

K-tab

2.

What is the brand name of Patiromer?

a)

Sevelamer

b)

Kayexalate

c)

K- tab

d)

Veltassa

3.

What is Patiromer used for?

a)

Hyponatremia

b)

Hyperkalemia

c)

Hyperphosphatemia

d)

Hypokalemia

4.

What is Sevelamer used for?

a)

Hyponatremia

b)

Hypokalemia

c)

hyperphosphatemia

d)

Hyperkalemia

5.

In patients with hyperkalemia and EKG changes, which medication is recommended because it can stabilized myocardiocytes?

a)

Insulin with glucose

b)

Furosemide

c)

Kayexalate

d)

Calcium gluconate IV

6.

Which of the following are main causes of hypocalcemia? SATA

a)

Vitamin D deficiency

b)

Hypomagesemia

c)

Hypoparathyroidism

d)

Hypokalemia

7.

Contraindications and precautions of antimuscarinic agents include for those patient who has(SATA):

a)

Severely decreased GI motility

b)

uncontrolled narrow angle glaucoma

c)

urinary retention

d)

frequent urination

8.

What is the brand name of Tolterodine extended release formulation?

a)

Sanctura XR

b)

Detrol LA

c)

Ditropan XL

d)

Vesicare

9.

Which of the following drug is a ADH receptor antagonist?

a)

Sevelamer

b)

Kayexalate

c)

Conivaptan

d)

Patiromer

10.

What is the brand name of Mirabegron?

(a)  

11.

Which of the following are the brand names for Sevelamer? SATA

a)

Kayexalate

b)

K-vescent

c)

Renagel

d)

Renvela

12.

A patient's potassium level is 3.3. The normal range for potassium is 3.5-5.0. What is the estimated K deficit in this patient?

a)

between 10-40 mEq

b)

between 20-80 mEq

c)

between 30-120 mEq

d)

between 40-160 mEq

13.

Which of the following medications may worsen UI? SATA

a)

Furosemide

b)

Nortriptyline

c)

Clozapine

d)

Oxycodone

14.

A patient complains of small leakage in urine when she cough, sneeze, and carrying heavy objects. Which type of UI is this?

a)

Urge

b)

Stress

c)

Functional

d)

Overflow

15.

What is the name of the antimuscarinic for UI that is available OTC?

a)

Tolterodine (Detrol)

b)

Oxybutynin (Oxytrol)

c)

Oxybutynin (Ditropan XL)

d)

Oxybutynin (Genique)

16.

Which of the following agent is a beta agonist and may increase blood pressure?

a)

Fesoterodine

b)

Solifenacin

c)

Mirabegron

d)

Oxybutynin

17.

Where can Genique be applied to: SATA

a)

Stomach

b)

Vagina

c)

Shoulder

d)

Back

18.

How often is Oxybutynin gel administered?

a)

Twice daily

b)

Once daily

c)

twice weekly

d)

Once weekly

19.

Select causes for elevated anion gap metaoblic acidosis? SATA (Remember: GOLDMARK)

a)

Ketoacidosis

b)

Methanol

c)

Ethylene glycol

d)

Lactate

e)

Pneumonia

20.

Which ABD is this?

pH 7.3

paCO2 41

HCO3 20

anion gap 20

a)

Anion gap metabolic acidosis

b)

Non-gap metabolic acidosis

c)

Respiratory acidosis

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

21.

What ABD is this?

pH 7.28

PaCO2 50

HCO3 24

a)

Metabolic acidosis

b)

Metabolic alkalosis

c)

Respiratory acidosis

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

22.

What ABD is this?

pH 7.52

PaCO2 30

HCO3 24

a)

Metabolic acidosis

b)

Metabolic alkalosis

c)

Respiratory acidosis

d)

Respiratory alkalosis

23.

What is the anion gap?

pH 7.3

PaCO2 42

HCO3 24

Na 130

Cl 90

a)

11

b)

14

c)

16

d)

21

24.

Which of the following are causes for repiratory acidosis? SATA

a)

Pneumonia

b)

COPD

c)

Asthma

d)

Pneumonthorax

25.

A patient has the following ABG

pH 7.28

PCO2 50

HCO3 28

This patient has metabolic acidosis. What is the secondary compensatory mechanism of the kidney?

a)

Reabsorbing HCO3

b)

Exceting HCO3

c)

Excreting potassium

d)

Retaining Na

26.

What is the ABD of this patient?

pH 7.51

HCO3 28

PaCO2 38

a)

Metabolic acidosis

b)

metabolic alkalosis

c)

respiratory acidosis

d)

respiratory alkalosis

27.

Which of the following is the first line treatment for patients with overactive bladder (urge) UI? SATA

a)

B3 agonist only

b)

Antimuscarinic agent only

c)

Behavioral therapies only

d)

Behavioral therapies combined with antimuscarinic agents

28.

Check all the side effects caused by Solifenacin SATA:

a)

constipation

b)

Blurred vision

c)

Dry mouth

d)

orthostatic hypotension

29.

Patients with hypokalemia may present with: SATA

a)

Diarrhea

b)

muscle cramps

c)

ST segment depression

d)

T wave inversion

30.

Which of the following is a brand name for Conivaptan?

a)

Renagel

b)

Phoslo

c)

Vaprisol

d)

Samsca

31.

Which of the following is the most appropriate IV potassium infusion dose for peripheral line?

a)

40 mEq in 1L D5W over two hours

b)

20 mEq in 100ml NS over 30 minutes

c)

10 mEq in 100ml NS over an hour

d)

40 mEq in 500ml NS over an hour

32.

Which of the following are monitoring parameters when administering IV potassium? SATA

a)

Check calcium level

b)

Check Magnesium level

c)

ECG if infusion rate is > 10 mEq/h

d)

Check potassium level at least one hour after infusion

33.

Which medications may cause hyperkalemia?

a)

Aliskerin

b)

Spironolactone

c)

Losartan

d)

Enalapril

34.

Which of the following cause hyponatremia? SATA

a)

Furosemide

b)

Lithium

c)

Carbamazepine

d)

Fluoxetine

35.

When administering 0.9% NaCl infusion for patients with hyponatremia, the rise in sodium level cannot be over ______ mg/dL in 24 hours. This is to prevent osmotic demyelination syndrome.

a)

6

b)

12

c)

18

d)

24

36.

Which of the following is an exchange resins that works by increasing potassium excetion for hyperkalemia? SATA

a)

Kayexalate

b)

Patiromer

c)

Sevelamer

d)

Furosemide

37.

Write down the administration techniques for using oral Kayexalate.

4 lines
38.

Which of the following oral KCL formulation causes less GI erosion?

a)

K-Vescent

b)

Klor-Con

c)

Klor-Con Sprinkle

d)

K- sol

39.

Which of the following crystalloid IV solution is hypotonic? SATA

a)

0.45% NaCl

b)

0.9% NaCl

c)

3% NaCl

d)

D5W

40.

Which of the following is a common side effect of K-tab?

a)

Depression

b)

Blurred vision

c)

abdominal pain

d)

Headache

41.

A 45-year-old woman with previous peptic ulcer disease was admitted with persistent vomiting. She looked dehydrated, with dry mucus membranes and skin tenting. Her blood results were Na+ 142 mEq/L, K+ 2.6 mEq/L, Cl– 88 mEq/L, pH 7.52, PaCO2 51 mm Hg, and HCO3– 42 mEq/L.

Has the patient appropriately compensated for the primary acid–base disorder?

a)

Yes, the PaCO2 is elevated, indicating appropriate compensation.

b)

Yes, the PaCO2 is high, indicating appropriate compensation.

c)

Yes, the HCO3– is elevated, indicating appropriate compensation.

d)

Yes, the HCO3– is low, indicating appropriate compensation.

42.

A 45-year-old woman with previous peptic ulcer disease was admitted with persistent vomiting. She looked dehydrated, with dry mucus membranes and skin tenting. Her blood results were Na+ 142 mEq/L, K+ 2.6 mEq/L, Cl– 88 mEq/L, pH 7.52, PaCO2 51 mm Hg, and HCO3– 42 mEq/L.

What is the primary acid–base disorder?

a)

Increase anion gap metabolic acidosis

b)

normal anion gap metabolic acidosis

c)

Metabolic alkalosis

d)

respiratory acidosis

Similar Resources on Wayground

PODA 3 Dr Mo Chemo Questions for Final

43 questions

PODA 3 Dr Mo Chemo Questions for Final

quiz

Worksheet

•

University - Professi...

EXANI II PREMEDICINA 2

42 questions

EXANI II PREMEDICINA 2

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

PARCIAL I MI Rotación3 2021

47 questions

PARCIAL I MI Rotación3 2021

quiz

Worksheet

•

University

EXAMEN ENFERMEDADES METABOLICAS

40 questions

EXAMEN ENFERMEDADES METABOLICAS

quiz

Worksheet

•

University