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Are you a neuronerd?

Total questions: 41

Worksheet time: 21mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is the most common intraaxial, supratentorial tumor in adults?

a)

Oligodendroglioma

b)

Meningioma

c)

Pinealoma

d)

Glioblastoma

2.

Which of the following biomarkers is associated with good prognosis and better therapeutic response in patients with glioblastoma?

a)

MGMT hyper-methylation

b)

IDH-1 and -2 phosphorylation

c)

HDMI methylation

d)

MGMT hypomethylation

3.

Select an histological feature of the most common extra axial intracranial tumor

a)
b)
c)
d)
4.

Which bacterial pathogen is the common in adolescents and young adults?

a)

N. meningitidis

b)

S. Pneumoniae

c)

L. Monocytogenes

d)

Enterovirus

5.

Which type of cell is located between neurons and capillaries to control what enters the cells from the blood?

a)

Astrocytes

b)

Oligodendrocytes

c)

Schwann cells

d)

Satellite cells

6.

Which two types of cells produce myelin coverings around the nerves?

a)

Microglia and astrocytes

b)

Schwann cells and satellite cells

c)

Schwann cells and oligodendrocytes

d)

Oligodendrocytes and astrocytes

7.

This glial cell is responsible for creating the myelin for the Central Nervous System.

a)

Neuron

b)

Schwann cell

c)

Oligodendrocyte

d)

Microglia

8.

Which neuron structure is indicated by #1 ?

a)

Dendrite

b)

Axon

c)

Axon terminal

d)

Myelin sheath

9.

Which neuron structure is indicated by #7 ?

a)

Dendrite

b)

Nodes of Ranvier

c)

Axon terminal

d)

Myelin sheath

10.
The occipital lobe controls __________.
a)
Vision
b)
Problem Solving
c)
Memory 
d)
Arithmetic & Spelling
11.
Makes decisions, plans, reasons, and carries out behaviors
a)
Frontal Lobe
b)
Parietal Lobe
c)
Occipital Lobe
d)
Temporal Lobe
12.

Sensory areas are associated with touch and temperature awareness

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Temporal lobe

c)

Parietal lobe

d)

Occipital lobe

13.

Association areas have been linked to emotions and interpreting speech

a)

Frontal lobe

b)

Temporal lobe

c)

Parietal lobe

d)

Occipital lobe

14.

A 72-year-old man presents to his primary care provider for evaluation of his advanced dementia. Testing has revealed significant cell loss in his hippocampal formation. The hippocampal formation is part of which lobe?

a)

Temporal

b)

Occipital

c)

Parietal

d)

Frontal

15.

An elderly patient presents to his audiologist for a hearing evaluation. In explaining the anatomy of the auditory system, the audiologist explains that the primary auditory cortex (Heschl’s gyrus) receives input from which

gyrus/structure?

a)

Angular gyrus

b)

Medial geniculate nucleus

c)

Pulvinar

d)

Primary auditory cortex

16.

Patients with the severe form of this type of aphasia do not respond appropriately to questions and follow virtually no commands.

a)

Broca

b)

Transcortical

c)

Wernicke

d)

Global

17.

From the following options, choose the one structure that does not embryologically come from the telencephalon

a)

Subcortical white matter

b)

Midbrain tectum

c)

Cerebral hemispheres

d)

Basal ganglia

18.

What is your diagnosis?

a)

Pilocytic astrocytoma

b)

Ependymoma

c)

Oligodendroglioma

d)

Glioblastoma

19.

What acronym can help you identify a stroke?

a)

SLOW

b)

FAST

c)

STROKE

d)

SLEEP

20.

Which of these are risk factors for stroke?

a)

High blood pressure

b)

Age > 55 years

c)

Low cholesterol

d)

Family history of stroke

e)

All of the above

21.

During your discharge teaching to a patient with multiple sclerosis, you educate the patient on how to avoid increasing symptoms and relapses. You tell the patient to avoid: (select all that apply)

a)

Cold temperatures

b)

Infection

c)

Overexertion

d)

Salt

e)

Stress

22.

Which of the following assessment findings should the healthcare provider expect to identify as an early clinical characteristic of MS?

a)

Muscle atrophy

b)

Dementia

c)

Vision loss

d)

Clonus

23.

What is the most common type of MS?

a)

Secondary progressive MS

b)

Relapsing remitting MS

c)

Primary progressive MS

d)

Benign

24.

Which of the following is the most helpful study in the clinical investigation of MS?

a)

MRI

b)

Radiography

c)

Visual evoked potentials

d)

Lumbar puncture

25.

Criteria used in the diagnosis of MS

a)

Jones

b)

Duke

c)

McDonald

26.

Select the TRUE statements about the pathophysiology of multiple sclerosis

a)

Plaques of demyelination, disseminated in time and space, interfere with neuronal transmission

b)

The dendrites on the neuron are overstimulated leading to the destruction of the axon.

c)

The dopaminergic neurons in the part of the brain called substantia nigra have started to die.

27.

You’re developing a plan of care for a patient with multiple sclerosis who presents with Uhthoff’s Sign. What interventions will you include in the patient’s plan of care?

a)

Avoid movements of the head and neck downward

b)

Keep room temperature cool

c)

Encourage patient to use warm packs and heating pads for symptoms

28.

Presence of lesions in different regions of the CNS in a patient with MS.

a)

Dissemination in time (DIT)

b)

Dissemination in space (DIS)

29.

Which lobe of the human brain would be involved in vision?

a)

Occipital

b)

Lumbar

c)

Parietal

d)

Frontal

30.

With a lesion in this cortical area (Brodmann’s), patient understands spoken word but cannot form fluent sentences.

a)

22

b)

44

c)

17

d)

3

31.

The acute local blood flow for gray matter is:

a)

750 ml/100g/min

b)

75-90 ml/100 g/min

c)

25-30 ml/100g/min

d)

120 ml/100g/min

32.

You are on your first clinical rotation and the attending of the neurology ward, asks you to perform a lumbar puncture (LP) on a patient who probably has an inflammatory process of meninges. You get an opening pressure of 180 cm H20, which is an abnormal result. What is the normal opening pressure when your perform an LP?

a)

12 cm H20

b)

6-25 cm H20

c)

170 cm H20

d)

30 cm H20

33.

If a patient gets damage to this cortical area, the result will be contralateral failure of tactile recognition of objects

a)

Parietal

b)

Temporal

c)

Occipital

d)

Frontal

34.

After the occurrence of an action potential, there is a repolarization of the membrane. The principal explanation for this event is that...

a)

The membrane becomes impermeable to all ions

b)

Sodium Channels have been opened

c)

Potassium channels have been opened

d)

Potassium channels have been inactivated

35.

The trigger zone that integrates incoming signals from other cells and initiates the signal that the neuron sends to another neuron or muscle cell is the

a)

Axon terminal

b)

Dendritic trunk

c)

Cell body

d)

Axon hillock

36.

This pathway of the spinal cord, conveys discriminatory touch (two-point touch), vibration, proprioception and stereognosis.

a)

Lateral hor

b)

Ventral horn

c)

Posterior column

d)

Lateral column

37.

A 37-year-old man comes into your office with the complaint that he cannot smell. He states that several months ago he was involved in a bar fight in which his nose and several other facial bones were fractured. Ever since he was discharged from the hospital at that time, he has not been able to smell. The injury to one of the following structures is the reason for this patient clinical picture.

a)

Inferior orbital fissure

b)

Foramen magnum

c)

Cribriform plate

d)

Internal nasal valve

38.

Sugammadex is a drug that reverses the action of rocuronium and certain other skeletal muscle-relaxing agents (steroidal neuromuscular blocking agents). It appears to interact directly with the rocuronium molecule and not at all with the rocuronium receptor. Which of the following terms best describes sugammadex? 

a)

Chemical antagonist

b)

Noncompetitive antagonist

c)

Partial agonist

d)

Pharmacologic antagonist

39.

Ampicillin is eliminated by first-order kinetics. Which of the following statements best describes the process by which the plasma concentration of this drug declines? 

a)

There is only 1 metabolic path for drug elimination 

b)

The half-life is the same regardless of the plasma concentration

c)

The drug is largely metabolized in the liver after oral administration and has low bioavailability

d)

The rate of elimination is always proportional to the rate of administration

e)

The drug is distributed to only 1 compartment outside the vascular system

40.

A 55-year-old man is seen in the clinic with hypertension of 150/95 mm Hg (millimeters of mercury). His personal medical history and physical examination are otherwise unremarkable, but his family history is positive for early deaths due to cardiovascular disease. A decision is made to treat his hypertension, starting with a calcium channel blocker. Blocker A in a dose of 5 mg produces the same decrease in blood pressure as 500 mg of blocker B. Which of the following predictions is most accurate? 

a)

Blocker A will be more efficacious than blocker B

b)

Blocker A will be about 100 times more potent than blocker B

c)

Toxicity of blocker A will be less than that of blocker B 

d)

Blocker A will have a wider therapeutic window than blocker B

e)

Blocker A will have a longer half-life than blocker B

41.

You are planning to treat chronic major depression in a 35-year-old patient with recurrent suicidal thoughts. She has several comorbid conditions that require drug therapy, including rifampin for tuberculosis and amiodarone for arrhythmia. You are concerned about drug interactions caused by changes in drug metabolism in this patient. Drug metabolism in humans usually results in a product that is: 

a)

Less lipid soluble than the original drug

b)

More likely to distribute intracellularly

c)

More likely to be reabsorbed by kidney tubules

d)

More lipid soluble than the original drug

e)

Less water soluble than the original drug