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Genetics Study Guide

Total questions: 51

Worksheet time: 2hrs 42mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

1. A man who has a genotype, Aa, marries a woman with the genotype, AA. What is the probability that their offspring will have the genotype, Aa?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

2.

Which pattern of heredity determines human hair color and skin color?

a)

multiple alleles

b)

polygenic inheritance

c)

incomplete dominance

d)

sex-linked inheritance

3.

In humans, tongue rolling is caused by a dominant autosomal allele. This pedigree shows three generations of a family and their ability to roll their tongues. Which phenotype best describes individual III-7?

a)

homozygous tongue rolling male

b)

heterozygous tongue rolling male

c)

homozygous tongue rolling female

d)

heterozygous tongue rolling female

4.

A red flower (RR) and a white flower (R'R') are crossed and produce pink flower offspring (RR'). What is the expected outcome for the offspring that result from the cross between two pink flower plants?

a)

0% red, 100% pink, 0% white

b)

25% red, 50% pink, 25% white

c)

25% red, 25% pink, 50% white

d)

50% red, 25% pink, 25% white

5.

A mother is heterozygous for blood type A and a father has blood type AB. What is the probability that their offspring would have type A blood?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

6.

The karyotype diagram below represents a human female with the genetic disorder known as Turner syndrome. Chromosomal analysis of this karyotype reveals the mutation is a result of

a)

a missing X chromosome.

b)

a missing Y chromosome.

c)

an extra chromosome on chromosome 9.

d)

a deletion of a section of chromosome 21.

7.

A woman is a carrier for color blindness, a sex–linked trait. If she marries a man who is not color–blind, what is the probability that one of their sons will inherit the trait?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

8.

In skunks, a white stripe down the back is dominant when compared to solid black skunks. If heterozygous striped skunks mated, which percentage of their offspring would be expected to have no stripes?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

9.

When a red bull (RR) is bred with a white cow (WW), a roan calf (RW) with red and white fur is sometimes produced. If a roan bull (RW) is bred with a roan cow (RW), what is the most likely outcome of the offspring?

a)

1 red : 1 white : 2 roan

b)

0 red : 1 white : 3 roan

c)

2 red : 2 white : 0 roan

d)

0 red : 0 white : 4 roan

10.

Shaded individuals in this pedigree express a particular trait. Based on this pedigree, what is the most likely pattern of inheritance of the trait?

a)

sex-linked dominant

b)

sex-linked recessive

c)

autosomal dominant

d)

autosomal recessive

11.

Four children in a family have four different blood types. If the father has type A blood, which blood genotype best represents the mother?

a)

IBIB

b)

IBi

c)

IAIB

d)

IAi

12.

A man and his wife both have widow’s peaks. Their baby has a continuous hairline. Which best explains how this could happen?

a)

Both parents have heterozygous genotypes.

b)

Both parents have homozygous dominant genotypes.

c)

One parent is homozygous dominant, and the other is heterozygous.

d)

One parent is homozygous dominant, and the other is homozygous recessive.

13.

Why are sex-linked recessive traits more common in males than females?

a)

Males have two X chromosomes, so they have to inherit two copies of the recessive allele to express the trait.

b)

Females have two X chromosomes, and sex-linked recessive traits are expressed by inheriting only one recessive allele.

c)

Males have only one X chromosome, so they will inherit the trait with only one copy of the recessive allele.

d)

Females have only one X chromosome, and sex-linked recessive traits are expressed by inheriting two copies of the recessive allele.

14.

Which explains why a person would possess only two of the three possible alleles for human blood type?

a)

A person inherits one allele from each parent.

b)

A person inherits a mutation that limits the number of alleles.

c)

A person inherits all three alleles, and the weakest one is destroyed.

d)

A person inherits all three, but two are combined when DNA is transcribed.

15.

Why can differences be observed in the personalities and appearances of identical twins?

a)

because of the expression of recessive genes

b)

because of the impact of a chromosomal mutation

c)

because of the impact of environment factors on gene expression

d)

because of the expression of genes caused by incomplete dominance

16.

Heart disease is a genetic trait that may run in a family’s health history. Which external factor may delay the onset of this disease?

a)

taking prescription medicine after being diagnosed with high blood pressure

b)

exercising regularly and proper nutrition

c)

getting on an organ transplant list early on

d)

not being involved in strenuous physical activity

17.

Which best explains how a person who smokes lightly can develop lung cancer while a person who smokes heavily does not?

a)

The person who smokes lightly has a family health history of developing cancer.

b)

The person who smokes heavily has a family health history of developing cancer.

c)

The person who smokes lightly is immune to the harmful effects of cigarette smoke.

d)

The person who smokes heavily is immune to the harmful effects of cigarette smoke.

18.

The sex of a reptile is determined by the temperature during development. Which best describes this type of gene expression?

a)

dominant

b)

recessive

c)

sex-linked

d)

environmentally-controlled

19.

In addition to hereditary causes, which of the following may lead to Type 2 diabetes?

a)

tobacco use

b)

improper diet

c)

sun exposure

d)

vitamin D deficiency

20.

DNA mutations caused by ultraviolet radiation are responsible for which condition?

a)

diabetes

b)

lung cancer

c)

skin cancer

d)

phenylketonuria (PKU)

21.

In a particular species of plants, when the soil pH is greater than 7, blue flowers are produced. However, when the soil pH is less than 7, pink flowers are produced. Which statement best explains the color change in the plant?

a)

Multiple alleles determine the color of the flowers.

b)

The change in flower color is a result of a mutation.

c)

Polygenic inheritance produces the different flower colors.

d)

The environment influences the expression of the gene for flower color.

22.

How can patients reduce the symptoms associated with PKU (phenylketonuria)?

a)

by exercising weekly

b)

by keeping a strict diet

c)

by getting vitamin treatments

d)

by receiving antibiotic treatments

23.

Which is an example of the environment influencing the expression of a genetic trait?

a)

hemophilia in Queen Victoria’s family

b)

widow’s peak in each generation of a family

c)

great variation in height seen in members of a family

d)

formation of freckles after sun exposure in members of a family

24.

Which of these traits is most likely influenced by heredity and environmental influence?

a)

tongue rolling ability

b)

athletic performance

c)

language

d)

natural hair color

25.

What is the term for the technique performed by using gel electrophoresis to identify an individual using a DNA sample?

a)

cloning

b)

gene therapy

c)

transformation

d)

DNA fingerprinting

26.

Dogs are closely related to wolves. To support this statement, what type of testing or experiment would a scientist most likely carry out?

a)

compare wolf and dog DNA

b)

examine their social habits and record similarities

c)

feed them similar foods and see if they have similar diets

d)

determine whether a female dog will care for a wolf pup

27.

The illustration below shows the results of gel electrophoresis of 4 different deer species. Which two species of deer are more closely related?

a)

1 and 3

b)

1 and 4

c)

2 and 3

d)

2 and 4

28.

What is the primary purpose of using restriction enzymes prior to gel electrophoresis?

a)

It allows the scientist to start with a very small sample of DNA.

b)

It allows the strands of DNA to be cut into various lengths for testing.

c)

It allows the DNA to be visible on the gel.

d)

It allows the DNA strands to be charged so the electrical current can send the strands through the gel.

29.

What is the purpose of gel electrophoresis?

a)

to make extra copies of chromosomes

b)

to cut DNA into fragments

c)

to inject DNA into cells

d)

to separate DNA fragments by size

30.

Why do the fragments of DNA in gel electrophoresis travel away from the negative electrode?

a)

The DNA is positively charged.

b)

The DNA is negatively charged.

c)

The agarose gel is positively charged.

d)

The agarose gel is negatively charged.

31.

A sample of DNA was taken from a crime scene and four different suspects. The gel electrophoresis below shows their profiles. Which suspect was most likely at the scene of the crime?

a)

Suspect 1

b)

Suspect 2

c)

Suspect 3

d)

Suspect 4

32.

Which specific characteristic of DNA allows geneticists to identify people using DNA fingerprinting?

a)

The shape of the DNA molecule is unique to every person.

b)

The size of each chromosome is unique to every person.

c)

The number of chromosomes is unique to every person.

d)

The nucleotide sequence is unique to every person.

33.

When running different size fragments of DNA through a gel during electrophoresis, which is true about the sizes of the fragments of DNA?

a)

Longer fragments of DNA will run slower than shorter fragments of DNA.

b)

Shorter fragments of DNA will run slower than longer fragments of DNA.

c)

Fragments must be cut into the same size so that all fragments can be run at the same speed.

d)

Longer and shorter fragments will run at the same speed.

34.

Gel electrophoresis can be used to analyze DNA. Which best represents a use of this process?

a)

to determine if the cell has made a mistake during translation

b)

to identify the sequence of DNA nitrogenous bases in a sample

c)

to compare DNA from two different individuals

d)

to provide the number of chromosomes present in an individual

35.

Several procedures involved in the creation of a transgenic organism are listed.

1. A specific gene of interest is identified in DNA.

2. The DNA fragment is placed in a plasmid.

3. The DNA fragment of interest is isolated.

4. The plasmid is transferred to a bacterial cell.

5. A plasmid is cut by a restriction enzyme.


Which selection represents the correct order of events in creating a transgenic organism?

a)

1, 3, 2, 4, 5

b)

1, 3, 5, 2, 4

c)

3, 5, 2, 4, 1

d)

3, 1, 4, 2, 5

36.

A type of fish has been engineered with a special gene allowing it to live in a low-oxygen environment. Because of this, many more fish are able to be raised in giant tanks at a time. What benefit will this transgenic organism most likely have for humans?

a)

longer fish life span

b)

healthier food source

c)

fish are less territorial

d)

increased food production

37.

Which is a use of genetically engineered bacteria?

a)

identifying the remains of an unknown person

b)

developing a DNA fingerprint for blood left at a crime scene

c)

making human insulin for diabetics

d)

producing clones of animals

38.

Which would be the benefit of a transgenic crop?

a)

decreased drought tolerance

b)

decreased disease resistance

c)

increased resistance to pests

d)

increased demands for nutrients

39.

How can it be verified that an animal is a transgenic organism?

a)

its DNA can be found in a bacterium

b)

its DNA contains a gene(s) from a foreign source

c)

its DNA has been cut repeatedly by restriction enzymes

d)

its DNA is identical to the DNA of another individual of the same species

40.

A scientist has isolated a gene within a cold water fish that helps the fish withstand extremely cold temperatures. How might this scientist use this gene to improve the survival of plants that are easily damaged by cold weather?

a)

Spray the crops with the new gene.

b)

Insert the gene into the mitochondria of the plant cells.

c)

Inject the desired gene into the chromosome of the plant cell.

d)

Exchange all the plant chromosomes with the fish chromosomes.

41.

Genetically engineered bacteria are currently being used to produce certain human proteins. Which best explains the advantage associated with this process?

a)

The genetically engineered proteins can be used to produce human clones.

b)

The genetically engineered proteins have been found to cure most cancers.

c)

The genetically engineered proteins are less harmful than normal human proteins.

d)

The genetically engineered proteins can be produced in large quantities with less cost.

42.

Which has the Human Genome Project been useful in determining?

a)

the gender of an individual

b)

whether a fetus has Down Syndrome

c)

how often crossing-over happens during meiosis

d)

whether individuals could carry genes for a certain condition

43.

Which is a benefit of stem cell research?

a)

It is a useful tool for identifying people.

b)

It has the potential to cure many diseases.

c)

It allows large scale production of medications.

d)

It ensures all organisms used in research studies are identical.

44.

What is the main goal of the Human Genome Project?

a)

to discover a new medicine for cancer

b)

to understand how the human body heals

c)

to determine the genetic makeup of humans

d)

to determine how the human digestive system functions

45.

How might the applications of biotechnology have the potential to negatively impact individuals?

a)

using genetically-engineered enzymes in laundry detergents

b)

producing genetically-engineered bacteria for creating human drugs

c)

producing genetically-engineered foods without having research on their safety

d)

using genetically-engineered enzymes for biofuels in an attempt to replace fossil fuels

46.

How does the human genome correct gene-related problems in people?

a)

A defective gene can be targeted and removed from the genome permanently.

b)

An absent or faulty gene can be identified and supplemented by a normal, working gene.

c)

Genes from other species can be substituted for the defective human genes during surgery.

d)

Genes can be created by scientists and inserted into embryos before genetic disorders begin to develop.

47.

Which is least likely to be a concern involving the Human Genome Project?

a)

how companies can use genetic information

b)

the use of genetic fingerprinting in forensics

c)

which agency has control of genetic information

d)

which agency has access to personal genetic information

48.

Which source of stem cells is the cause of ethical debate?

a)

adult stem cells

b)

amniotic stem cells

c)

embryonic stem cells

d)

plant stem cells

49.

Which would best explain why the production of transgenic plants may be harmful?

a)

They reproduce rapidly.

b)

They contain vital nutrients.

c)

They are used in the production of rare medicines.

d)

They produce natural insecticides which could kill beneficial insects.

50.

How can gene therapy positively impact society?

a)

by producing insulin using bacteria

b)

by creating fingerprints of criminals

c)

by mapping all genes in the human population

d)

by treating genetic disorders with the insertion of normal genes

51.

Which best describes the impact of the Human Genome Project on future drug development?

a)

Doctors will be able to prescribe new antibiotics that attack viruses.

b)

Doctors will be able to cure all diseases by giving each individual the same course of treatment.

c)

Doctors will be able to prevent outbreaks of all diseases by prescribing preventative medication.

d)

Doctors will be able to better determine which medications will work best for individuals based on their genetic makeups.