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NURS 07: MIDTERM EXAM BSN 2-1

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A student nurse is present during her father’s birthday celebration. After eating dinner, the patient complains of chest pain unrelieved by any positions. Patient was given a sublingual nitroglycerin to alleviate the symptoms. After giving the second nitroglycerin, the pain did not subside. As a knowledgeable student nurse what will you do next?

a)

call 911

b)

Position patient in supine

c)

Position patient in semi-fowlers position

d)

Give another tablet of sublingual nitroglycerin

2.

A nurse walks into a patient's room and finds the patient lying on the floor next to the bed. The nurse has been previously reprimanded for forgetting to put the bed rails up after treatment. After checking to be sure the patient has no broken bones and is not in severe pain, the nurse helps the patient back into bed, and then leaves the room without reporting the incident. Which terms best describe the nurse's conduct?

a)

Legal and ethical

b)

Legal but unethical

c)

Ethical but illegal

d)

Illegal and Unethical

3.

The single most important measure to prevent the spread of infectious disease is

a)

Handwashing

b)

Pasteurisation

c)

Proper cooking

d)

Canning

4.

The following does not describe FDA Drug Risk Classification in Pregnancy Category C, except:

a)

Controlled studies in women fail to show a risk to the fetus and the possibility of fetal harm appears unlikely

b)

Animal-reproduction studies have not shown a fetal risk or adverse effect. Risks have not been confirmed in controlled studies in women.

c)

Either studies in animals have revealed adverse effects on the fetus and there are no controlled studies in women or studies in women and animals are not available.

d)

Animal and human studies have shown fetal abnormalities. The drug is contraindicated in women who are or may become pregnant.

5.

If 100mg of benzodiazepene is administered orally, and 50mg of the drug is absorbed and does not change, what is the bioavailability?

a)

100

b)

100.0%

c)

50

d)

50.0%

6.

Combination of acetaminophen and codeine produce increase in analgesic effect. The scenario describes

a)

Antagonism

b)

Synergism

c)

Interference

d)

Additive effects

7.

responsible for assuring that new drugs are safe and effective before approving the drugs and allowing them to be marketed.

a)

Food and Drug Agency

b)

Food and Drug Administration

c)

Food and Drug Association

8.

Before HEPA B vaccination, what precautionary action should the nurse perform first?

a)

Desensitise the area

b)

Apply gloves

c)

Calculate accurate dose

d)

Prepare appropriate syringe

9.

A newly prescriptive drug is found in the patient’s chart under doctor’s order. A knowledgeable nurse must know the following except:

a)

Name (generic and trade) and drug classification.

b)

Intended or proposed use.

c)

Effects on the body

d)

How medication is supplied by the distributor

10.

Upon entering the patient’s room, prior to administration of drug, a nurse should

a)

apply alcohol

b)

greet the family

c)

explain the side effect of the drug

d)

verify the identity of the patient

11.

When giving oral aspirin, the nurse should check for

a)

hepatologic disorders

b)

neurologic disorder

c)

bleeding disorder

d)

musculoskeletal disorders

12.

Body sites that are ideal for subcutaneous injections include the following except:

a)

Outer aspect of the upper arms, in the area above the biceps muscle

b)

Middle two thirds of the anterior thigh area

c)

Subscapular areas of the upper back.

d)

Abdominal areas, above the iliac crest and below the diaphragm, 1.5 to 2 inches out from the umbilicus.

13.

Upon patient assessment prior to giving oral medication, gag reflex is mainly for:

a)

preventing respiration

b)

preventing aspiration

c)

prevent choking

d)

. to ensure that the medication passes thru the esophagus.

14.

What is the firs thing to assess when giving oral medications?

a)

ability to swallow

b)

consciousness

c)

presence of edema

d)

vital signs

15.

Jannah is a top performing nurse in a JCI accredited hospital in Manila. Upon receiving the endorsement she noticed similar names of patient in the ward she’s been assigned to. How will she verify the patient’s identity in accordance to the prescription of the physician?

a)

confirm the room number

b)

ask other colleagues about the patients

c)

ask the patient to state her full name an date of birth

d)

call the doctor in charge

16.

What appropriate PPEs should you wear in performing skin test to a HIV infected patient? ( NO PULMONARY INFECTIONS DETECTED)

a)

Lab gown, mask, hair cap, gloves

b)

Mask, hair cap,gloves

c)

Gloves and protective eye wear

d)

Mask, gloves, protective eye wear

17.

A nicotine dependent person is recently diagnosed with Buerger’s disease. Primary care physician advised him to stop his smoking habits as soon as possible. The patient complied as soon as the doctor advised him to do so. After 2 weeks of no smoking, the patient went back to his doctor complaining symptoms of flu and dizziness. What is the possible cause of the symptoms?

a)

Psychological dependence due to long term use of cigarette

b)

Physical dependence due to long term use of cigarette

c)

Patient caught a flu while in the hospital

18.

A patient with conjunctivitis in right eye comes to you asking for assistance in administering ophthalmic dexamethasone drug. The following protocols should be observed except:

a)

Instruct the patient to lie supine or sit with the head slightly tilted back.

b)

With the nondominant hand, pull the lower lid down gently to expose the conjunctival sac, creating a pocket

c)

Ask the patient to look upward

d)

Hold the eyedropper 1/4–1/2 inch above the conjunctival sac. Do not hold the dropper over the eye, as this may stimulate the blink reflex.

19.

What is the appropriate patient’s position when giving otic drop medications?

a)

side lying affected down

b)

side lying unaffected ear up

c)

side lying affected ear up

d)

side lying unaffected ear down

20.

Drops or sprays are often used for their systemic astringent effect; that is, they shrink swollen mucous membranes or loosen secretions and facilitate drainage. This brings immediate relief from the nasal congestion caused by the common cold.

a)

First statement is correct, second statement in incorrect.

b)

Fist statement is incorrect, second statement is correct

c)

Both statements are correct

d)

Both statements are incorrect

21.

The nurse is caring for an elderly client who has been diagnosed as having sundown syndrome. He is alert and oriented during the day but becomes disoriented and disruptive around dinnertime. He is hospitalized for evaluation. The nurse asks the client and his family to list all of the medications, prescription and nonprescription, he is currently taking. What is the primary reason for this action?

a)

. Multiple medications can lead to dementia

b)

. The medications can provide clues regarding his medical background

c)

. Medications taken by a client are part of every nursing assessment

22.

Mrs. Johanson’s physician has prescribed tetracycline 500 mg po q6h. While assessing Mrs. Johanson’s nursing history for allergies, the nurse notes that Mrs. Johanson’s is also taking oral contraceptives. What is the most appropriate initial nursing intervention?

a)

Administer the dose of tertracycline

b)

Notify the physician that Mrs. Johanson is taking oral contraceptives

c)

Tell Mrs. Johanson, she should stop taking oral contraceptives since they are inactivated by tetracycline

d)

Tell Mrs. Johanson, to use another form of birth control for at least two months

23.

Is the ability of an organism to cause infection, or, depends on an organism’s ability to evade or overcome body defenses

a)

pathogens

b)

bacteriology

c)

pathogenicity

d)

virulence

24.

Type of bacteria that leaves a purple or blue stain after a gram stain test.

a)

gram positive

b)

gram negative

c)

aerobic

d)

anaerobic

25.

Type of bacteria that leaves a red or pink stain after a gram stain test.

a)

gram negative

b)

gram positive

c)

anaerobic

d)

aerobic

26.

Medications that accomplish this goal by killing bacteria are called

a)

bacterocidal

b)

bacterostatic

c)

bacteriocidal

d)

bacteriostatic

27.

The following are correct statements are true about the selection of antibiotic except:

a)

selection of correct drug will delay the proper treatment, giving the microorganisms more time to invade

b)

laboratory test should be conducted to identify the specific pathogen prior to beginning of anti-infective therapy.

c)

. Laboratory tests may include the examination of urine, stool, spinal fluid, etc.

d)

. Take only antibiotic when there is a clear rational of use

28.

This process of growing the pathogen and identifying the most effective antibiotic is called

a)

Kerby Bauer Test

b)

Gram Staining

c)

Culture and Sensitivity Testing

29.

Health care providers play important roles in delaying

the emergence of resistance. The following are five principles recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) except

a)

This includes teaching patients the importance of getting immunizations to protect against diseases such as influenza, tetanus, polio, measles, and hepatitis B.

b)

Infections should be cultured so that the offending organism can be identified and the correct drug chosen.

c)

Antibiotics should be prescribed only when there is a clear rationale for their use

d)

Stopping antibiotic therapy prematurely allows some pathogens to survive, thus promoting the development of resistant strains.

e)

This includes not applying standard infection control procedures and teaching patients methods of proper hygiene for preventing transmission in the home and community settings

30.

Many bacterial cell walls contain a substance called penicillin binding protein that serves as a receptor for penicillin the actions of the Penicillin are specific to bacterial cells.

a)

first statements is correct, second statement is incorrect.

b)

first statement is incorrect, second statement is incorrect

c)

both statements are correct

d)

both statements are incorrect

31.

. When combined with a penicillin, these agents protect the penicillin molecule from destruction, extending its spectrum of activity. The three beta-lactamase inhibitors, clavulanate, sulbactam, and tazobactam, are available only in fixed-dose combinations with specific

penicillin. These include

a)

Augemetine, Timetine, Unasyne, Zosyne

b)

Augemente, Timetine, Unasyne,Zosyne

c)

Augmentin, Timetin, Unasyn, Zosyn

d)

a. None of these

32.

Patient X has undergone Penicillin therapy, as a knowledgeable nurse in charge, the following are signs to look for a patient experiencing penicillin allergy, except:

a)

rashes

b)

pruritus

c)

eutikaria

d)

fever

33.

Comprise the largest antibiotic class. _______act by essentially the same mechanism as the penicillins and have similar pharmacologic properties.

a)

cephalosporines

b)

cephalosporins

c)

cephallosporins

d)

cephalosporinz

34.

People are making antibiotic resistance worse by

a)

Taking antibiotics only when they need them

b)

Not sharing antibiotics with others

c)

finishing the full course of prescribed antibiotics

d)

Taking antibiotics for when they have a virus

35.

What is happening because bacteria became more resistant to antibiotics?

a)

bacteria are dying out

b)

humans are increasing in population

c)

antibiotics are becoming weaker

d)

bacteria are starting to multiply and grow

36.

Antibiotic resistant bacteria can

a)

survive

b)

reproduce

c)

pass on the gene to their offspring

d)

all of the above

37.

A patient taking aminoglycoside drug therapy develops hematuria, proteinuria, and an elevated BUN level. The nurse suspects that the patient developed which adverse reaction?

a)

ototoxicity

b)

cardiotoxicity

c)

hepatotoxicity

d)

nephrotoxicity

38.

Streptomycin is obtained from

a)

S. fradiae

b)

S. tenebrarius

c)

M. purpurea

d)

S. griseus

39.

Which of the following classes of antibiotics bind to 30S subunit of rRNA

a)

cephalosporins

b)

carbapenems

c)

macrolides

d)

aminoglycosides

40.

Which of the following is not an antibiotic?

a)

Imipinem

b)

Clavulanic Acid

c)

Macrolides

d)

Amoxicillin

41.

Beta lactam antibiotics act by

a)

preventing cross-linking peptides to bind to tetrapeptide side chain

b)

prevents translation

c)

causes disruption and distortion of bacterial ribosome

d)

prevent aminoacyl tRNA bind to ribosome

42.

Clinical applications of this class of antibiotics include include infections of the respiratory, GI, and genitourinary tracts, and some skin and soft-tissue infection

a)

cephalosporins

b)

penicillins

c)

macrolides

d)

fluoroquinoles

43.

This class of antibiotics suppress bacterial growth by inhibiting the synthesis of folic acid or folate. Also referred to as folic acid inhibitors

a)

sulfonamides

b)

cephalosporins

c)

aminoglycosides

d)

macrolides

44.

Damage to the inner ear, or ototoxicity, is recognized by hearing impairment, dizziness, loss of balance, persistent headache, and ringing in the ears.

a)

macrolides

b)

tetracycline

c)

aminoglycosides

d)

carbapenem

45.

Granulocytes that are responsible for bacterial infections

a)

neutrophils

b)

eosinophils

c)

basophils

d)

macrophage

46.

Lymphocyte that originated in thymus

a)

T-CELLS

b)

B-CELLS

47.

Food antigen in the GI tract

a)

Ig G

b)

Ig A

c)

Ig M

d)

Ig E

48.

Acquired from the donor

a)

natural passive immunity

b)

natural active immunity

c)

artificial active immunity

d)

artificial passive immunity

49.

A student is assigned to measure the susceptibility of a strain of bacteria to 3 different antibiotics in Biology class. The student first divides the agar plate into four different quadrants, one of which is reserved for a Control. Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Control in this experiment?

a)

The Control quadrant is used to grow a different strain of bacteria so that you can compare it with the one you are testing.

b)

The Control quadrant helps demonstrate whether or not the same strain of bacteria grew correctly on the plate in the absence of any antibiotic.

c)

The Control quadrant contains all three antibiotics to show what completely inhibited growth would look like.

d)

The Control quadrant is the only quadrant on which no bacteria is grown and so that none of the bacteria comes in direct contact with the antibiotic.

50.

Over time, bacteria can become resistant to antibiotics. Why can this be considered harmful for humans?

a)

It is harmful to humans because all bacteria are bad and humans won’t be able to eat food with bacteria in it anymore.

b)

It is harmful to humans because when we get sick from bacteria that are resistant to antibiotics we won’t have anything to help make us better.

c)

It is harmful to humans because bacteria are only killed with antibiotics and if we don’t have antibiotics humans will get sick and die.

d)

No antibiotic is effective because bacteria are usually resistant to any antibiotic that has been used before.