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GPM Exam 1 Review (part 1)

Total questions: 105

Worksheet time: 5hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the 2 components of a drug therapy problem?

a)

undesirable event/risk experienced by the patient

b)

relationship between undesirable event/risk and drug therapy

c)

nonadherance to therapy

d)

relationship between the patient and drug therapy

e)

need for additional drug therapy

2.

What is a dosage form?

a)

combination of drug substances and excipients to facilitate manufacturing, dosing, administration and delivery of the medication

b)

the shape, color, and size of the medication

c)

the path by which a drug is brought into the body

d)

the form of the dose

3.

What types of dosage form(s) are subject to first pass effect?

a)

oral

b)

IV

c)

topical

d)

rectal

e)

sublingual

4.

What is route of administration?

a)

the path the drug travels throughout the body

b)

the path by which a drug is brought into contact with or introduced into the body

c)

how the drug exits the body

d)

the path the drug avoids in the body

5.

Which line(s) on the graph shows sustained release?

a)

line 1

b)

line 2

c)

line 3

d)

none of them

e)

lines 1 and 2

6.

Which line(s) on the graph show controlled release?

a)

line 1

b)

line 2

c)

line 3

d)

lines 1 and 3

e)

lines 2 and 3

7.

What is first pass effect?

a)

a drug being carried to the liver before reaching systemic circulation

b)

when a drug gets gets absorbed and gets excreted immediately after

c)

reduced bioavailability to the rest of the body and site of action

d)

when a drug does reach systemic circulation at all

8.

What does PPCP stand for?

a)

Patient Pharmacist Care Process

b)

Pharmacist Patient Care Process

c)

Process Patient Care Pharmacist

d)

Pharmacist Process Care Patient

9.

Which step of the PPCP process include the medication(s), dose, dosage form, route, and frequency?

a)

collect

b)

assess

c)

plan

d)

implement

e)

follow up

10.

Is the chief complaint subjective or objective data?

a)

subjective

b)

objective

c)

neither, it's just the patient's problem

11.

In PQRSTU symptom analysis, what does P stand for?

a)

pain

b)

precipitating

c)

palliative

d)

patient

e)

previous

12.

In PQRSTU symptom analysis, what does S stand for?

a)

social history

b)

severity

c)

subjective information

d)

symptoms

e)

side effects

13.

What is triage?

a)

giving a patient their treatment

b)

process of determining the priority of patient's treatments based on severity of condition

c)

determining what treatment is best for a patient

d)

when a patient is seeking treatment

14.

In community practice, what are possible triage decisions?

a)

recommend OTC treatment

b)

do not provide treatment and reassure the patient

c)

instruct the patient to continue an existing medication

d)

refer the patient to medical care

e)

call 911

15.

What are the 3 C's of the American Red Cross?

a)

cool, calm, call

b)

check, call, care

c)

calm, call, check

d)

care, call, calm

e)

check, calm, call

16.

Test result variability can depend on which of the following:

a)

storage conditions of the sample

b)

exposure to UV light

c)

the type of test you are taking

d)

whether the patient is lying down or standing up

e)

competence of the clinician

17.

Spectroscopy is based on:

a)

light passing through a solution can be absorbed or scattered

b)

chemical reactions driven by an electric current

c)

interaction of electromagnetic waves with matter

d)

variation in electrophoretic mobility

e)

motion of charged molecules in a magnetic field

18.

What does spectroscopy measure?

a)

percent of light absorbed

b)

total concentration of solute particles

c)

presence and quantity of various organic compounds

d)

separating molecules

e)

presence of an antigen

19.

Electrochemistry is based on:

a)

presence and quantity of various organic compounds

b)

chemical reactions driven by an electric current

c)

percent of light absorbed

d)

variation in molecule mobility in a carrier phase

e)

molecular recognition by antibodies

20.

What does electrochemistry measure?

a)

presence and quantity of ions in solution

b)

percent of light absorbed

c)

size, shape, and charge of a macromolecule

d)

presence of an antigen

e)

mass-to-charge ratio of molecules

21.

Turbidimetry is based on:

a)

variation in electrophoretic mobility

b)

electrolyte characterization

c)

identification of molecules

d)

movement in an electric field

e)

light passing through a solution can be absorbed or scattered

22.

What does turbidimetry measure?

a)

percent of light absorbed

b)

identification of molecules

c)

individual cell count

d)

electrolyte characterization

e)

total concentration of solute particles

23.

What is osmolality?

a)

# of osmoles of solute in 1 liter of solvent

b)

# of osmoles of solute in 1 kilogram of solvent

c)

# of osmoles of solvent in 1 kilogram of solute

d)

# of osmoles of solvent in 1 liter of solute

24.

What is osmolarity?

a)

# of osmoles of solute in 1 liter of solvent

b)

# of osmoles of solute in 1 kilogram of solvent

c)

# of osmoles of solvent in 1 kilogram of solute

d)

# of osmoles of solvent in 1 liter of solute

25.

Electrophoresis is based on:

a)

variation in electrophoretic mobility

b)

variation in molecule mobility in a carrier phase

c)

motion of charged molecules in a magnetic field

d)

molecular recognition by antibodies

e)

chemical reactions driven by an electric current

26.

What does electrophoresis measure?

a)

presence and quantity of ions in solution

b)

mass-to-charge ratio of molecules

c)

presence of an antigen

d)

percent of light absorbed

e)

size, shape, and/or charge of a macromolecule

27.

Thin layer chromatography is based on:

a)

variation in molecule mobility in a stationary phase

b)

molecular recognition by antibodies

c)

variation in molecule mobility in a carrier phase

d)

light passing through a solution can be absorbed or scattered

e)

presence of an antigen

28.

What does thin layer chromatography measure?

a)

separating molecules

b)

light passing through a solution can be absorbed or scattered

c)

genomic sequences

d)

presence of an antigen

e)

individual cell count

29.

Mass spectrometry is based on:

a)

molecular recognition of antibodies

b)

interaction of electromagnetic waves with matter

c)

chemical reactions driven by an electric current

d)

motion of charged molecules in a magnetic field

e)

variation in electrophoretic mobility

30.

What does mass spectrometry measure?

a)

presence of an antigen

b)

mass-to-charge ratio of molecules

c)

size, shape, and/or charge of a macromolecule

d)

presence and quantity of ions in solution

e)

separating molecules

31.

Immunoassays are based on:

a)

light scatter by cells

b)

molecular recognition by antibodies

c)

movement in an electric field

d)

role of genes in disease

e)

chemical reactions driven by an electric current

32.

What do immunoassays measure?

a)

presence of an antigen

b)

percent of light absorbed

c)

genomic sequences

d)

rate of enzymatic reaction

e)

number of substrates that bind to enzyme

33.

Which of the following are used to analyze small molecules?

a)

electrospray ionization (EI)

b)

chemical ionization (CI)

c)

slow atom bombardment (FAB)

d)

fast atom bombardment (FAB)

e)

MALDI

34.

When going from A to B on the graph shown:

a)

you are displacing the fluorophore due to competition with the analyte

b)

polarization increases

c)

polarization decreases

d)

the tumbling gets slower

e)

the tumbling gets faster

35.

Flow cytometry is based on:

a)

light scatter by cells

b)

light passing through a solution can be absorbed or scattered

c)

molecular recognition by antibodies

d)

total concentration of solute particles

e)

separating molecules

36.

In the Enzyme Linked ImmunoSorbent Assay (ELISA), a color change indicates (a)   of an antigen.

37.

Southern blotting genetic testing is based on:

a)

role of genes in disease

b)

how many genes are defective

c)

molecular recognition of antibodies

d)

how many proteins are in a gene

e)

motion of charged molecules in a magnetic field

38.

Subjective data includes which of the following:

a)

chief complaint

b)

history of present illness

c)

lab data

d)

chest x-rays

e)

medication history

39.

Objective data includes which of the following:

a)

vital signs

b)

physical examination

c)

surgical history

d)

review of systems

e)

review of symptoms

40.

What is an important difference in components of an inpatient medical record vs. ambulatory medical record?

4 lines
41.

Information in the medical record can be divided into __________ and __________ information.

(a)  

42.

A baby is born at 36 weeks gestational age. How long will the baby be classified as a neonate?

a)

1 week

b)

4 weeks

c)

6 weeks

d)

8 weeks

e)

10 weeks

43.

A baby is born at 37 weeks gestational age. How long will the baby be classified as a neonate?

a)

3 weeks

b)

4 weeks

c)

5 weeks

d)

6 weeks

e)

7 weeks

44.

A baby is born at 40 weeks gestational age. How long will the baby be classified as a neonate?

a)

0 weeks

b)

1 week

c)

2 weeks

d)

3 weeks

e)

4 weeks

45.

What is meconium passing?

a)

when the newborn is unable to poop

b)

when the mom is unable to poop after giving birth

c)

the newborn's first stool

d)

the mom's first stool after giving birth

46.

Erythromycin orally tends to work __________ in children than in adults because children have __________ motilin receptors.

a)

better; less

b)

better; more

c)

worse; less

d)

worse; more

47.

In terms of oral drug absorption, children have __________ gastric pH due to __________ gastric acid production.

a)

higher; increased

b)

higher; reduced

c)

lower; increased

d)

lower; reduced

48.

Pediatric patients have (a)   muscle mass and erratic blood flow.

49.

Where should intramuscular injections be given to babies less than 1 year of age?

a)

deltoid muscle of arm

b)

anterolateral aspect of thigh

c)

anterolateral aspect of arm

d)

deltoid muscle of thigh

50.

Pediatric patients have a (a)   body surface area to body mass ratio.

51.

Babies haves a __________ stratum corneum, meaning that there is __________ absorption of topical medication and __________ risk of toxicities in premature neonates and infants.

(a)  

52.

Neonates have a total body water of 75%-85%. This means there is a(n) __________ volume of distribution of hydrophilic drugs and a(n) __________ volume of distribution of lipophilic drugs.

a)

increased; decreased

b)

decreased; increased

c)

increased; increased

d)

decreased; decreased

53.

Babies have __________ concentrations of albumin and 𝛼-1-acid glycoprotein and __________ binding affinity of fetal albumin.

a)

decreased; increased

b)

increased; decreased

c)

decreased; decreased

d)

increased; increased

54.

What is kernicterus?

4 lines
55.

Which phase II reaction pathway is fully developed at birth?

a)

oxidation

b)

reduction

c)

conjugation

d)

sulfation

e)

glucuronidation

56.

When considering a baby's renal elimination, how should you adjust the frequency of a medication?

4 lines
57.

Which equation is used to calculate creatine clearance (CrCl) in pediatric patients?

a)

cockcroft-gault equation

b)

MDRD equation

c)

bedside Schwartz equation

d)

A1c equation

58.

What is the most common pediatric medication error?

a)

adherence

b)

dosing

c)

unnecessary drug therapy

d)

adverse drug reaction

e)

drug interaction

59.

When administering oral medications to an infant, you should administer the liquid in increments of how many mLs?

a)

0.5 mL

b)

1 mL

c)

2 mL

d)

5 mL

e)

10 mL

60.

How many minutes do you have to wait before instilling another drop when administering ophthalmic medications to an infant?

a)

0, no need to wait

b)

1 minute

c)

5 minutes

d)

10 minutes

e)

15 minutes

61.

If a child is 2 years old, otic medications are administered by:

a)

pulling the ear lobe down and back

b)

pulling the ear lobe up and back

c)

pulling the ear lobe down and forward

d)

pulling the ear lobe up and forward

62.

What is presbyopia?

a)

increased pressure inside the eye that can lead to permanent vision loss and blindness

b)

tear glands produce poor quality tears and can lead to discomfort

c)

loss in the ability to see close objects or small print

d)

seeing small spots of flecks floating across the field of vision

e)

cloudy developments in the lens of the front eye that cause vision to decrease

63.

What are floaters?

a)

increased pressure inside the eye that can lead to permanent vision loss and blindness

b)

tear glands produce poor quality tears and can lead to discomfort

c)

loss in the ability to see close objects or small print

d)

seeing small spots of flecks floating across the field of vision

e)

cloudy developments in the lens of the front eye that cause vision to decrease

64.

What are dry eyes?

a)

increased pressure inside the eye that can lead to permanent vision loss and blindness

b)

tear glands produce poor quality tears and can lead to discomfort

c)

loss in the ability to see close objects or small print

d)

seeing small spots of flecks floating across the field of vision

e)

cloudy developments in the lens of the front eye that cause vision to decrease

65.

What are cataracts?

a)

increased pressure inside the eye that can lead to permanent vision loss and blindness

b)

tear glands produce poor quality tears and can lead to discomfort

c)

loss in the ability to see close objects or small print

d)

seeing small spots of flecks floating across the field of vision

e)

cloudy developments in the lens of the front eye that cause vision to decrease

66.

What is glaucoma?

a)

increased pressure inside the eye that can lead to permanent vision loss and blindness

b)

tear glands produce poor quality tears and can lead to discomfort

c)

loss in the ability to see close objects or small print

d)

seeing small spots of flecks floating across the field of vision

e)

cloudy developments in the lens of the front eye that cause vision to decrease

67.

Changes in which of the following pharmacokinetic parameters are seen in geriatric patients?

a)

absorption

b)

distribution

c)

metabolism

d)

elimination

e)

excretion

68.

Geriatric patients have a (a)   in liver mass as well as blood flow to the liver.

69.

Geriatric patients have a __________ in renal mass and a __________ in glomerular filtration rate.

a)

decrease; increase

b)

decrease; decrease

c)

increase; decrease

d)

increase; decrease

70.

Geriatric patients have an increased sensitivity to anticholinergic effects. Which of the following might a geriatric patient experience when taking anti-cholinergic medications?

a)

confusion/delirium

b)

hunger

c)

constipation

d)

urinary retention

e)

xeriostoma

71.

Geriatric patients have an increased sensitivity to which of the following medications? *BASED ON WHAT WAS DISCUSSED IN CLASS*

a)

topical medications

b)

anti-cholinergic medications

c)

NSAIDs

d)

warfarin

e)

anti-psychotics

72.

What is intracellular fluid?

a)

fluid contained within the cells themselves

b)

fluid around the cells but not in the vasculature

c)

fluid within the blood vessels, plasma/serum

73.

What is extracellular fluid?

a)

fluid contained within the cells themselves

b)

fluid around the cells but not in the vasculature

c)

fluid within the blood vessels, plasma/serum

74.

What is interstitial fluid?

a)

fluid contained within the cells themselves

b)

fluid around the cells but not in the vasculature

c)

fluid within the blood vessels, plasma/serum

75.

What is intravasculature fluid?

a)

fluid contained within the cells themselves

b)

fluid around the cells but not in the vasculature

c)

fluid within the blood vessels, plasma/serum

76.

What is the main determinant of plasma osmolality in the extracellular fluid?

a)

sodium

b)

potassium

c)

glucose

d)

proteins

e)

water

77.

What is the main determinant of plasma osmolality in the intracellular fluid?

a)

sodium

b)

potassium

c)

glucose

d)

proteins

e)

water

78.

How do you calculate osmolal gap?

a)

measured serum osmolality - calculated osmolality

b)

measured serum osmolality - calculated osmolarity

c)

measured serum osmolarity - calculated osmolality

d)

measured serum osmolarity - calculated osmolarity

79.

What is hypovolemia?

a)

normal volume

b)

lower than normal volume

c)

higher than normal volume

d)

somewhat normal volume

80.

What is hypervolemia?

a)

normal volume

b)

lower than normal volume

c)

higher than normal volume

d)

somewhat normal volume

81.

Which of the following can cause hypovolemia?

a)

renal failure

b)

heart failure

c)

shock/trauma

d)

excessive administration of IV fluids

e)

dehydration

82.

Which of the following can cause hypervolemia?

a)

renal failure

b)

heart failure

c)

shock/trauma

d)

excessive administration of IV fluids

e)

dehydration

83.

When osmolality is high, osmoreceptors stimulate which of the following?

a)

vasopressin

b)

anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)

c)

renin angiotensin aldosterone system

d)

thirst receptors

84.

When osmolality is low, osmoreceptors stimulate which of the following?

a)

vasopressin

b)

anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)

c)

renin angiotensin aldosterone system

d)

thirst receptors

85.

What is the main determinant of movement of fluid between body compartments?

a)

osmosis

b)

sodium

c)

osmotic forces

d)

hydrostatic pressures

e)

potassium

86.

Hypertonic solutions cause:

a)

cells to shrink

b)

cells to swell

c)

cells to stay the same size

d)

cells to disappear

87.

Hypotonic solutions cause:

a)

cells to shrink

b)

cells to swell

c)

cells to stay the same size

d)

cells to disappear

88.

Signs and symptoms of hypovolemia include:

a)

weight loss

b)

weight gain

c)

dry skin

d)

hypertension

e)

tachycardia

89.

Signs and symptoms of hypervolemia include:

a)

distended neck veins

b)

decreased Hgb/Hct

c)

dry skin

d)

hypertension

e)

tachycardia

90.

Which of the following are crystalloid solutions?

a)

normal saline

b)

albumin

c)

lactated-ringer's

d)

hypertonic saline

e)

plasma-lyte

91.

Crystalloid solutions (a)   osmotic/oncotic pressure.

92.

A 65 year old female has been admitted for hypovolemia. She is given 1000 mL of 0.9% NaCl. What will be the change in her interstitial volume?

a)

0 mL

b)

250 mL

c)

500 mL

d)

750 mL

e)

1000 mL

93.

A 65 year old female has been admitted for hypovolemia. She is given 1000 mL of 0.9% NaCl. What will be the change in her intravascular volume?

a)

0 mL

b)

250 mL

c)

500 mL

d)

750 mL

e)

1000 mL

94.

A 65 year old female has been admitted for hypovolemia. She is given 100 mL of 5% albumin. What will be the change in her intravascular volume?

a)

0 mL

b)

50 mL

c)

100 mL

d)

500 mL

e)

1000 mL

95.

A 65 year old female has been admitted for hypovolemia. She is given 100 mL of 25% albumin. What will be the change in her intravascular volume?

a)

0 mL

b)

50 mL

c)

100 mL

d)

500 mL

e)

1000 mL

96.

What is the normal range for sodium? *WITH UNITS*

(a)  

97.

Which of the following are the primary etiologies of electrolyte disorders?

a)

increase/decrease in intake

b)

increase/decrease in hormones

c)

increase/decrease in utilization

d)

increase/decrease in severity

e)

increase/decrease in excretion

98.

What are the regulatory factors of sodium?

a)

anti-diuretic hormone (ADH)

b)

natriuretic hormones

c)

beta-agonists

d)

aldosterone

e)

insulin

99.

Which of the following is the most common form of hyponatremia?

a)

hypotonic hyponatremia

b)

hypertonic hyponatremia

c)

euvolemic hyponatremia

100.

What causes osmotic demyelination?

a)

improper therapy (too rapid correction of hypertonic state)

b)

improper therapy (too slow correction of hypotonic state)

c)

improper therapy (too rapid correction of hypotonic state)

d)

improper therapy (too slow correction of hypertonic state)

101.

Which of the following is the most common form of hypernatremia?

a)

hypovolemic hypernatremia

b)

hypervolemic hypernatremia

c)

euvolemic hypernatremia

102.

What causes cerebral edema?

a)

improper therapy (too rapid correction of hypertonic state)

b)

improper therapy (too slow correction of hypotonic state)

c)

improper therapy (too rapid correction of hypotonic state)

d)

improper therapy (too slow correction of hypertonic state)

103.

What is the normal range for sodium? *WITH UNITS*

a)

136 - 145 mEq/L

b)

100 - 108 mg/dL

c)

100 - 108 mEq/L

d)

136 - 145 mg/dL

e)

108 - 136 mEq/L

104.

What is the normal range for chloride? *WITH UNITS*

a)

136 - 145 mEq/L

b)

100 - 108 mg/dL

c)

100 - 108 mEq/L

d)

70 - 110 mg/dL

e)

108 - 136 mEq/L

105.

Chloride abnormalities are mostly associated with which electrolyte:

a)

potassium

b)

sodium

c)

calcium

d)

phosphate

e)

magnesium

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