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AMT263 Fuel Fire & Instruments, M3 & M4

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

(8698) Fuel jettisoning is usually accomplished

a)

through a common manifold and outlet in each wing.

b)

by gravity flow into the outboard wing tanks and overboard through a common outlet in each wing.

c)

through individual outlets for each tank.

2.

(8701) Which of the following is employed to maintain lateral stability when jettisoning fuel?

a)

Two separate independent systems.

b)

Crossfeed system.

c)

Two interconnected systems.

3.

(8702) A fuel jettison system is required under certain conditions if the maximum takeoff weight exceeds the maximum landing weight. What regulations cover the requirements of fuel jettisoning?

a)

Federal Aviation Regulation Part 43 and 91.

b)

Federal Aviation Regulation Part 23, 25 and CAM 4b.

c)

Federal Aviation Regulation Part 21, 43 and CAM 8.

4.

(8713) Which of the following precautions is most important during refueling operations?

a)

All outside electrical sources must be disconnected from the aircraft.

b)

Fuel to be used must be appropriately identified.

c)

All electrical switches must be in OFF position.

5.

(8715) What flight safety-related advantage does a pressure fueling system provide?

a)

Keeps the aircraft within weight and balance limitations.

b)

Reduces the chances for fuel contamination.

c)

Reduces the time required for fueling.

6.

(8716) Aircraft pressure fueling systems instructional procedures are normally placarded on the

a)

fuel control panel access door.

b)

lower wing surface adjacent to the access door.

c)

aircraft ground connection point.

7.

(8725) Which gas is used for purging an aircraft fuel tank?

a)

Helium or argon.

b)

Carbon dioxide.

c)

Carbon monoxide.

8.

(8730) As a general rule, which statement is true regarding fuel leaks?

a)

Stains, seeps, and heavy seeps are not flight hazards.

b)

All fuel leaks regardless of location or severity are considered a hazard to flight.

c)

Stains, seeps, and heavy seeps, (in addition to running leaks) are considered flight hazards when located in unvented areas of the aircraft.

9.

(8766) Which of the following is necessary to effectively troubleshoot a fuel pressure warning system?

a)

The manufacturer's maintenance manuals.

b)

AC 43.13-1B, Acceptable Methods, Techniques, and Practices -- Aircraft Inspection and Repair.

c)

A set of Federal Aviation Regulations.

10.

(8776) When an aircraft is fueled from a truck or fuel farm that has not been contaminated, daily draining

a)

is not required because fuel trucks and fuel farms may make use of laser contaminant identification technology.

b)

of strainers and sumps is combined with periodic filter changes and inspection to ensure fuel is contaminant free.

c)

is only required if the fuel truck or farm has not been in continuous service.

11.

(8744.5) It is desirable that fuel lines have a gentle slope upward or downward and not have sharp curves or sharp rises and/or falls in order to

a)

prevent vapor lock.

b)

prevent stagnation or 'pooling' of fuel in the fuel lines.

c)

minimize the generation of static electricity by decreasing fluid friction in the lines.

12.

(8745.5) The fuel systems of aircraft certificated in the standard classification must include which of the following?

a)

An engine-driven fuel pump and at least one auxiliary pump per engine.

b)

A positive means of shutting off the fuel to all engines.

c)

A reserve supply of fuel, available to the engine only after selection by the flightcrew, sufficient to operate the engines at least 30 minutes at METO power.

13.

(8756.5) If an engine equipped with a float-type carburetor backfires or misses when the throttle is advanced, a likely cause is that the

a)

float level is too high.

b)

main air bleed is clogged.

c)

accelerating pump is not operating properly.

14.

(8759) Fuel pressure produced by the engine-driven fuel pump is adjusted by the

a)

bypass valve adjusting screw.

b)

relief valve adjusting screw.

c)

engine-driven fuel pump adjusting screw.

15.

(8762.5) It is necessary to control acceleration and deceleration rates in turbine engines in order to

a)

prevent blowout or die-out.

b)

prevent overtemperature.

c)

prevent friction between turbine wheels and the case due to expansion and contraction.

16.

(8766.5) How often should float carburetors be overhauled?

a)

At engine overhaul.

b)

Annually.

c)

At engine change.

17.

(8767.5) What is the final authority for the details of carburetor overhaul?

a)

The local FAA safety inspector.

b)

The Type Certificate Data Sheets for the engine.

c)

The manufacturer's recommendations.

18.

(8768.5) Excessively rich or lean idle mixtures result in

a)

too rapid completion of combustion.

b)

incomplete combustion.

c)

incomplete cylinder scavenging.

19.

(8769.5) Which statement is true regarding proper throttle rigging of an airplane?

a)

The throttle stop on the carburetor must be contacted before the stop in the cockpit.

b)

The stop in the cockpit must be contacted before the stop on the carburetor.

c)

The throttle control is properly adjusted when neither stop makes contact.

20.

(8770.5) What precaution should be taken when putting thread lubricant on a tapered pipe plug in a carburetor float bowl?

a)

Put the thread lubricant only on the first thread.

b)

Do not use thread lubricant on any carburetor fitting.

c)

Engage the first thread of the plug, then put a small amount of lubricant on the second thread and screw the plug in.

21.

(8997) In what areas of aircraft would you find a carbon monoxide detector?

a)

Cargo and baggage compartment.

b)

Cabin and cockpit.

c)

Lavatory and engine nacelle.

22.

(8998) What occurs when a visual smoke detector is activated?

a)

A warning bell within the indicator alarms automatically.

b)

A lamp within the indicator illuminates automatically.

c)

The test lamp illuminates and an alarm is provided automatically.

23.

(9000) When air samples contain carbon monoxide, portable carbon monoxide detectors containing yellow silica gel will turn which color?

a)

Blue.

b)

Green

c)

Red.

24.

(9001) Smoke detection instruments are classified by their method of

a)

construction.

b)

maintenance.

c)

detection.

25.

(9002) Smoke detectors that use a measurement of light transmissibility in the air are called

a)

thermocouple devices.

b)

photoelectrical devices.

c)

ultraviolet optical devices.

26.

(9004) Which fire-detection system measures temperature rise compared to a reference temperature?

a)

Fenwal continuous loop.

b)

Lindberg continuous element.

c)

Thermocouple.

27.

(9007) Smoke in the cargo and/or baggage compartment of an aircraft is commonly detected by which instrument?

a)

Chemical reactor.

b)

Photoelectric cell.

c)

Sniffer.

28.

(9008) Light refraction smoke detectors are activated when the detector

a)

measures a reduction in the amount of visible or infrared light in the surrounding area.

b)

senses light reflected from smoke particles passing through a chamber.

c)

uses radiation induced ionization to detect the presence of smoke.

29.

(9009) Why does the Fenwal fire-detection system use spot detectors wired parallel between two separate circuits?

a)

A control unit is used to isolate the bad system in case of malfunction.

b)

This installation is equal to two systems: a main system and a reserve system.

c)

A short may exist in either circuit without causing a false fire warning.

30.

(9012) The most common cause of false fire warnings in continuous-loop fire-detection systems is

a)

improper routing or clamping of loops.

b)

moisture.

c)

dents, kinks, or crushed sensor sections.

31.

(9013) A thermocouple in a fire-detection system causes the warning system to operate because

a)

it generates a small current when heated.

b)

heat decreases its electrical resistance.

c)

it expands when heated and forms a ground for the warning system.

32.

(9014) The thermocouple fire-warning system is activated by a

a)

certain temperature.

b)

core resistance drop.

c)

rate-of-temperature rise.

33.

(8310) Which of the following fire detection systems are commonly used in an engine nacelle?

a)

Fire detection control unit.

b)

Thermocouple detector.

c)

Kidde continuous-loop.

34.

(8311) What is the function of a fire detection system?

a)

To discharge the powerplant fire-extinguishing system at the origin of the fire.

b)

To activate a warning device in the event of a powerplant fire.

c)

To identify the location of a powerplant fire.

35.

(8316) A continuous-loop fire detector is what type of detector?

a)

Spot detector.

b)

Overheat detector.

c)

Rate-of-temperature-rise detector.

36.

(8317) What is the operating principle of the spot detector sensor in a fire detection system?

a)

Resistant core material that prevents current flow at normal temperatures.

b)

A conventional thermocouple that produces a current flow.

c)

A bimetallic thermoswitch that closes when heated to a high temperature.

37.

(8320) Which of the following is NOT used to detect fires in reciprocating engine nacelles?

a)

Smoke detectors.

b)

Rate-of-temperature-rise detectors.

c)

Flame detectors.

38.

(8321) What is the principle of operation of the continuous-loop fire detector system sensor?

a)

Fuse material which melts at high temperatures.

b)

Core resistance material which prevents current flow at normal temperatures.

c)

A bimetallic thermoswitch which closes when heated to a high temperature.

39.

(8324) Why does one type of Fenwal fire detection system use spot detectors wired in parallel between two separate circuits?

a)

To provide an installation that is equal to two separate systems: a primary system and a secondary, or back-up system.

b)

So that a double fault may exist in the system without sounding a false alarm.

c)

So that a single fault may exist in the system without sounding a false alarm.

40.

(8325) Which of the following fire detection systems measures temperature rise compared to a reference temperature?

a)

Thermocouple.

b)

Thermal switch.

c)

Lindberg continuous element.