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Worksheetsob2ndforssaturday
Total questions: 90
Worksheet time: 28mins
If the cervix dilatation is 4-8, it means it is in what state?
transition
active
latent
vigilance
The cervix is fully dilated if the measurement is
7cm
8cm
9cm
10cm
8-10 cm is included in what phase?
transition
active
latent
If the client is hyperventilated, how will you reverse respiratory alkalosis?
give Oxygen 2 liters per minute
give Oxygen 10 liters per minute
allow the client to re-breath the expelled CO2
ask the client to inhale and exhale the right way..inhale ,stomach out,exhale,stomach in
second stage of labor is
stage of placental delivery
stage of dilatation
stage of vigilance
stage of expulsion of the fetus
placental delivery is in what stage
1st stage of labor
2nd stage of labor
3rd stage of labor
4th stage of labor
for the first to second hour after placental delivery, you must palpate fundus at least
every 10 minutes
every 15 minutes
every 20 minutes
every 30 minutes
6 weeks period after birth is term as
postpartum
involution
puerperium
postterm
If the woman has more than one fetus, dysfunctional labor is likely for the following reasons except
¨Abnormal presentation or position of one or more fetuses interferes with labor mechanisms
¨Uterine overdistention contributes to poor contraction quality
the fetus might be too large for the pelvic
¨Often one fetus is delivered as cephalic and the second as breech unless version is done
The following are related to a loop of the umbilical cord that slips down in front of the presenting part, but one
prolapsed of the umbilical cord
cord prolapse
cord loops
if there is cord prolapse,these are what you are going to do, except
push the cord inside so that it will not be dried
¨Cover the expose portion with a sterile saline, compress, to prevent drying
Do not attempt to push back the exposed cord as this may add compression
Less common tissue obstructions include , but one
Pelvic tumors like benign fibroids
Scarred cervix from previous delivery/infection/surgery
full bladder
none of the above
defines as the narrowing of the transverse diameter at the lower part of the pelvis to less than 11cm. This is the distance between the ischial tuberosity, measurement that is easy to make during prenatal visits
inlet contraction
outlet contraction
diagonal conjugate
none of the above
when does Hypertonic labor dysfunction ussualy occur?
latent phase
active phase
transition phase
none of the above
These are the characteristics of hypertonic labor dysfunction
Frequent, cramp-like and poorly coordinated
¨Begins labor normally, but contractions diminish during the active phase
Painful but not productive
Uterus is tense even between contractions which reduces blood flow to the placenta
the denominator of the face is
sacrum
mentum
scapula
acromion process
These are the type of malposition in vertex position except
LOP
LOA
ROT
ROP
¨Is the rarest presentation
¨It occurs in a multipara or a woman with relaxed abdominal muscles, leads to obstructed labor, can cause
¨Facial edema
brow presentation
face presentation
occiput presentation
mentum presentation
occurs when the fetal hips are flexed but the legs are extended and resting on the chest, causing the buttocks to present first
complete brech
frank breech
footling breech
occurs when the thighs of the fetus are tightly flexed on the abdomen, causing the buttocks and flexed feet to present first
complete breech
footling breech
frank breech
A tocolytic, which is a beta adrenergic blocker and most commonly used
propanolol
terbutaline
nifedipine
indomethacin
why is shoulder dystocia hazardous to the fetus?
the fetus will deliver through mentum presentation
the fetus might not able to be delivered
if the cord is compressed between the fetal body and the bony pelvis
the fetus might be distress
If head appears on the perineum, it retracts instead of protruding with each contractions
turtle sign
mc roberts sign
woods maneuver
rubin maneuver
the posterior shoulder is rotated 180 degrees in a corkscrew manner so that the anterior shoulder is released
mc roberts maneuver
woods maneuver
rubin maneuver
babinski maneuver
prolonged labor means
if it exceeds 48 hours in 12 hours of established labor
if it exceeds 48 hours of established 10 hours of labor
if it exceeds 24 hours in 10 hours of established labor
if it exceeds 24 hours in 12 hours of established labor
Prolonged latent phase is
longer than 24 hours in nullipara and 12 hours in multipara
longer than 20 hours in nullipara and 14 hours in multipara
longer than 16 hours in nullipara and 12 hours in multipara
Protracted active phase is
longer than 12hrs in primigravida and 6hrs in multigravida
longer than 24 hours in primigravida and 12 hours in multipara
longer than 16 hours in primigravida and 8 hours in multipara
if cpd is present,this emdicine is givent o augment labor
terbutaline
indomethacin
oxytocin
tocolytic
retraction rings or bandls ring usually occurs in
1st stage of labor
2nd stage of labor
3rd stage of labor
4th stage of labor
antidote for terbutaline
tocolytic
propanolol
nifedipine
indometahcin
A condition in which the placenta separates from the endometrium before delivery.
Placenta Previa
Placenta Accreta
Placental Abruption
Sheehan's Syndrome
A condition in which the trophoblast cells dig to deep into the decidua (endometrium) attaching to the myometrium of the uterus.
Placenta Previa
Placenta Accreta
Placental Abruption
Preeclampsia/Eclampsia
A condition in which a woman develops high blood pressure after 20 weeks of pregnancy.
Placenta Previa
Preeclampsia
Eclampsia
Placenta Accreta
A condition in which a woman develops high blood pressure after 20 weeks of pregnancy accompanied by seizures.
Preeclampsia
Sheehan's Syndrome
Placenta Accreta
Eclampsia
A condition in which the placenta implants itself at the opening of the cervix.
Placenta Previa
Placental Abruption
Placenta Accreta
Placenta Succintiriata
Occurs when placenta rips from uterine wall causing damage of blood vessels.
Placental Abruption
Placenta Previa
Placenta Vera
placenta Succinturiata
Result from irregular development of blood vessels that connect placenta to uterus (blood vessels are narrow) cause the mother’s heart to do more work
Placenta Previa
Placenta Accreta
Preeclampsia/Eclampsia
Placental Abruption
Results from partial or complete damage of pituitary gland.Symptoms include lack of pubic hair, reduced breast size, lack milk production.Caused by severe low blood pressure caused by blood loss
Placenta Previa
Sheehan's Syndrome
Placenta Accreta
Placental Abruption
The most common abnormal blood test in preeclampsia is:
Anaemia
Low fibrinogen
Elevated bilirubin
Thrombocytopaenia
Side effects of MgSO4 infusion include except
Respiratory depression and apnoea
Hyperreflexia
ECG changes
ECG changes
Sinus pauses
The midwife knows that preeclampsia tends to occur during what time in a pregnancy?
before 20weeks
after 20 weeks
in the 3rd trimester and postpartum
in the 1st and 2nd trimester
A patient is currently 34 weeks pregnant with her first baby. Which findings below could indicate the development of preeclampsia in this patient that would need to be reported to the physician? Select all that apply:(pick 2 answers)
4:00pm: blood pressure 144/100, 5:00pm: blood pressure 120/80
8:00am: blood pressure 142/92, 12:30pm: blood pressure 144/98
<300 mg/dL 24-hour urine protein
1 hour glucose tolerance test 90 mg/dL
3+ dipstick urine protein
You're providing an in-service to a group of new labor and midwifery graduating students about the pathophysiology of preeclampsia. Which statement by one of the group participants demonstrates they understood how this condition develops?
The placenta experiences ischemia because the spiral arteries of the uterus fail to reshape and increase in diameter
The basal arteries of the myometrium fail to widen to support blood flow to the placenta."
The cardiovascular system of the mother fails to compensate for the increased blood flow from the fetus and placental ischemia occurs
"If the mother experience uncontrolled hypertension and proteinuria, it compromises blood flow to the placenta and leads to preeclampsia."
These are the the risk factors that increases a woman’s risk for developing preeclampsia, except:
primigravida
history of lupus and diabetes
Age 25 years old
maternal history of preeclampsia
pregnant with twins
Your patient with preeclampsia is started on Magnesium Sulfate. The midwife knows to have what medication on standby?
calcium gluconate
terbutaline
oxytocin
acetylceistein
A 39 week pregnant patient is in labor. The patient has preeclampsia. The patient is receiving IV Magnesium Sulfate. Which finding below indicates Magnesium Sulfate toxicity and requires you to notify the physician?
Deep tendon reflex 4+
Clonus presenting in the lower extremities
patient reports flushing and feeling hot
Urinary output of 600 mL over 12 hours
Respiratory rate of 13 breaths per minute
A 37 week pregnant patient is admitted with severe preeclampsia. The patient begins to experience a tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the following would the midwife AVOID during the seizure?
Timing the seizure
place the patient in a supine position
Staying with the patient and activating the emergency response tea
roviding 8 to 10 L of oxygen
A 36 year old woman, who is 38 weeks pregnant, reports having dark red bleeding. The patient experienced abruptio placentae with her last pregnancy at 29 weeks. Theseare the signs and symptoms that can be present with abruptio placentae except
fetal distress
decrease in fundal height
hard abdomen
tender uterus
You're performing a head-to-toe assessment on a patient admitted with abruptio placentae. Which of the following assessment findings would you immediately report to the physician?
vaginal bleeding
tender uterus
hard abdomen
oozing around the IV site
A pregnant woman arrives at the emergency department (ED) with abruptio placentae at 34 weeks’ gestation. She’s at risk for which of the following blood dyscrasias?
thrombocytopenia
Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
Heparin-associated thrombosis and thrombocytopenia (HATT).
A midwife is caring for a client with abruptio placentae and is monitoring the client for disseminated intravascular coagulopathy. Which assessment finding is least likely to be associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation?
swelling of the calf in one leg
decreased platelet count
prolonged clotting times
Petechiae, oozing from injection sites, and hematuria
A midwife is assessing a pregnant client in the 2nd trimester of pregnancy who was admitted to the maternity unit with a suspected diagnosis of abruptio placentae. Which of the following assessment findings would the midwife expect to note if this condition is present?
Absence of abdominal pain
Uterine tenderness/pain
A soft abdomen
Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding
Which of the following is described as premature separation of a normally implanted placenta during the second half of pregnancy, usually with severe hemorrhage?
placenta previa
incompetent cervix
abruptio placenta
ectopic pregnancy
Which of the following is not true about Type II DM?
Cause unknown may be due to genetics
May take a drug that sensitize cells or increase insulin release
Require insulin 80% of cases
Considered adult onset diabetes
Which of the following clinical characteristics is associated with Type 1 diabetes (previously referred to as insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus [IDDM])?
Presence of islet cell antibodies
Obesity
Requirement for oral hypoglycemic agents
Rare ketosis
Clients with diabetes mellitus require frequent vision assessment. Midwife should instruct the client about which of the following eye problems most likely to be associated with diabetes mellitus?
cataracts
retinopathy
astigmatism
glaucoma
two days after ceasarian section, patient with a diabetes mellitus has complained of nausea and isn't able to eat solid foods. Midwife enters the room to find the patient confused and shaky. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms?
hypoglycemia
anesthesia reaction
hyperglycemia
diabetic ketoacidos
Midwife enters a patient's room and sees the patient breathing rapidly with a fruity breath smell. This is known as...
Trousseau's
Kaussmaul's
Cullne's
Bitot's
Formerly called juvenile-onset ; characterized by the presence of autoantibodies that destroy the insulin producer beta cells of the pancreas leading to absence of insulin production.
Type 1 diabetes
Type 2 diabetes
Type 3 diabetes
Type 4 diabetes
formerly called gestational diabetes; onset during pregnancy; reversal after the termination of pregnancy. Develops during pregnancy and spontaneously resolves after delivery. Results from inadequate insulin response to carbohydrate or from excessive resistance to insulin.
Type 1 diabetes
Type 3 diabetes
Type 2 diabetes
Type 4 diabetes
Midwife is educating her pregnant patient, who has been recently diagnosed with GDM or gestational diabetes mellitus, about the various signs of hyperglycemia. These are thee following signs of hyperglycemia that the midwife would discuss with her patient except
cool,clammy skin
polyuria or increased urine output
hot, flushed skin
polydipsia
An excessive amount of glucose in the maternal blood that is transported to the fetus through the placenta causes:
macrosomia of the fetus and possible damage to arterial walls
macrosomia of the fetus and no possible damage to arterial walls
hypoglycemia of the fetus and possible damage to arterial walls
When do most patients tend to develop gestational diabetes during pregnancy?
usually during the 1-3 month of pregnancy
usually during the 1-2 trimester of pregnancy
usually during the 2-3 month of pregnancy
usually during the 2-3 trimester pregnancy
The underlying causes of maternal deaths are delays in critical actions except
delay in assisting the client
delay in seeking care
delay in providing of appropriate medical management.
delay in making referral
As a midwife, you want to know the past illnesses/reproductive history of the client.Your request for VDRL.This test will determine if the client has
syphilis
gonorrhea
leprosy
candidiasis
Proven to be a potent teratogen to unborn children because of the high proportion of rapidly growing cells present.
radiation
cytotoxic agent
prohibited drugs
cancer drugs
Fetuses cannot remove the breakdown products of alcohol from their body and the large build-up can lead to vitamin deficiency.What vitamin deficiency ?
Vit B
vit A
Vit D
Vit C
A woman with this category of heart disease can complete pregnancy by maintaining almost complete bed rest
class I
class II
class III
class IV
A woman with this category of heart disease are poor candidates for pregnancy because they are in cardiac failure even at rest and when they are not pregnant; and they are usually advised to avoid pregnancy
class I
class II
class III
class IV
Adolescents younger than age 15 are at risk of the following except
low birth weight
CPD
down syndrome
preterm neonates
Smoking during pregnancy results in which of the following outcome
premature and small for gestational age infants
uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage
hyperglycemia and post maturity
large for gestation age infants and polyhydramnios
Higher levels of HCG are found in all the following except
multifetal pregnancy
hydatidiform mole
hydrocepahlic pregnnacy
erythroblastosis fetalis
A "sickle cell crisis" means a sudden onset of pain throughout the body.
true
false
A client comes into your clinic and you have inspected and observed that that the umbilicus has a bluish tinge referred to as Cullen's sign which is due to the blood that is slowly seeping into the peritoneal cavity.If you assess this one, what possible pregnancy disease she may be experiencing
hmole
placenta previa
ectopic pregnancy
hyperemesis gravidarum
You assess your client who is in her 12th week AOG. if you suspected her with ectopic pregnancy ,how should your client describe her pain since blood accumulates in the abdominal cavity and irritates the phrenic nerve in the diaphragm??
pain is radiating to the neck and shoulder
pain is radiating to the right arm
pain is radiating to the umbilical part then to the right hip
pain is radiating to the shoulder then to the right arm
Restriction of activities and cervical cerclage are the treatments for
ectopic pregnancy
trophoblastic disease
H-mole
incompetent cervix
It is the most frequent cause of bleeding in early pregnancy
ectopic pregnancy
complete abortion
sickle cell anemia
postpartum hemorrhage
This is described as an "Hour glass sign” – highly vascularized, bleeding and enlarged cervix, tight internal os and dilated external os.Thin walled cervix.Painless vaginal bleeding.Seldom goes beyond 20 weeks gestation.This means patient is having
ovarian pregnancy
tubal pregnancy
abdominal pregnancy
cervical pregnancy
A 21-year old client, 6 weeks’ pregnant is diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. This excessive vomiting during pregnancy will often result in which of the following conditions?
bowel perforation
miscarriage
electrolyte imbalance
Pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH)
A client is being admitted to the antepartum unit for hypovolemia secondary to hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following factors predisposes a client to the development of this?
trophoblastic disease
malnourished or underweight clients
MATERNAL AGE MORE THAN 35 YEARS OLD
low levels of HCG
Which of the following symptoms occurs with a hydatidiform mole?
Heavy, bright red bleeding every 21 days
Benign tumors found in the smooth muscle of the uterus
Fetal cardiac motion after 6 weeks gestation
“Snowstorm” pattern on ultrasound with no fetus or gestational sac
Bleeding and cramping occur with the cervix closed and membranes intact.
complete
threatened
missed
inevitable
Some of the products are expelled, but the placenta remains attached. Heavy bleeding and cramping doesn’t subside until entire placenta is removed
complete
incomplete
threatened
missed
Refers to the loss of the products of conception that cannot be prevented
complete abortion
inevitable abortion
septic abortion
recurrent abortion
Is an unusually deep attachment of the placenta to the uterine myometrium.§The placenta will not loosen and deliver.Attempts to remove it manually may lead to extreme hemorrhage
placenta accreta
vasa previa
battledore placenta
placenta circumvallata
The fetal side of the placenta is covered to some extent with chorion.The umbilical cord enters the placenta at the usual midpoint and large vessel spread out from there
Battledore Placenta
Placenta Succenturiata
Placenta Circumvallata
Vasa Previa
§The umbilical vessels of a velamentous cord insertion cross the cervical os, so they would deliver before the fetus
§The vessel may tear with cervical dilatation
Vasa Previa
Placenta Accreta
Battledore Placenta
Placenta Circumvallata
Passive dependence is over and the woman begins to initiate action.She prefers to do things and make decisions on her own.Wants to be in control, strong desire to be independent
Taking-hold Phase
Letting-Go Phase
Taking-In Phase
1 to 3 days time of reflection, after delivery
§Woman is largely passive and assume a dependent role
§She prefers having a nurse do things for her and make decisions for her rather than do things herself.Sleep hunger,May have little interest in caring for her child
taking-hold phase
taking-in phase
letting go phase
antidote to warfarin
vit k
protamine sulfate
aspirin
