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ob2ndforssaturday

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

If the cervix dilatation is 4-8, it means it is in what state?

a)

transition

b)

active

c)

latent

d)

vigilance

2.

The cervix is fully dilated if the measurement is

a)

7cm

b)

8cm

c)

9cm

d)

10cm

3.

8-10 cm is included in what phase?

a)

transition

b)

active

c)

latent

4.

If the client is hyperventilated, how will you reverse respiratory alkalosis?

a)

give Oxygen 2 liters per minute

b)

give Oxygen 10 liters per minute

c)

allow the client to re-breath the expelled CO2

d)

ask the client to inhale and exhale the right way..inhale ,stomach out,exhale,stomach in

5.

second stage of labor is

a)

stage of placental delivery

b)

stage of dilatation

c)

stage of vigilance

d)

stage of expulsion of the fetus

6.

placental delivery is in what stage

a)

1st stage of labor

b)

2nd stage of labor

c)

3rd stage of labor

d)

4th stage of labor

7.

for the first to second hour after placental delivery, you must palpate fundus at least

a)

every 10 minutes

b)

every 15 minutes

c)

every 20 minutes

d)

every 30 minutes

8.

6 weeks period after birth is term as

a)

postpartum

b)

involution

c)

puerperium

d)

postterm

9.

If the woman has more than one fetus, dysfunctional labor is likely for the following reasons except

a)

¨Abnormal presentation or position of one or more fetuses interferes with labor mechanisms

b)

¨Uterine overdistention contributes to poor contraction quality

c)

the fetus might be too large for the pelvic

d)

¨Often one fetus is delivered as cephalic and the second as breech unless version is done

10.

The following are related to a loop of the umbilical cord that slips down in front of the presenting part, but one

a)

prolapsed of the umbilical cord

b)

cord prolapse

c)

cord loops

11.

if there is cord prolapse,these are what you are going to do, except

a)

push the cord inside so that it will not be dried

b)

¨Cover the expose portion with a sterile saline, compress, to prevent drying

c)

Do not attempt to push back the exposed cord as this may add compression

12.

Less common tissue obstructions include , but one

a)

Pelvic tumors like benign fibroids

b)

Scarred cervix from previous delivery/infection/surgery

c)

full bladder

d)

none of the above

13.

defines as the narrowing of the transverse diameter at the lower part of the pelvis to less than 11cm. This is the distance between the ischial tuberosity, measurement that is easy to make during prenatal visits

a)

inlet contraction

b)

outlet contraction

c)

diagonal conjugate

d)

none of the above

14.

when does Hypertonic labor dysfunction ussualy occur?

a)

latent phase

b)

active phase

c)

transition phase

d)

none of the above

15.

These are the characteristics of hypertonic labor dysfunction

a)

Frequent, cramp-like and poorly coordinated

b)

¨Begins labor normally, but contractions diminish during the active phase

c)

Painful but not productive

d)

Uterus is tense even between contractions which reduces blood flow to the placenta

16.

the denominator of the face is

a)

sacrum

b)

mentum

c)

scapula

d)

acromion process

17.

These are the type of malposition in vertex position except

a)

LOP

b)

LOA

c)

ROT

d)

ROP

18.

¨Is the rarest presentation

¨It occurs in a multipara or a woman with relaxed abdominal muscles, leads to obstructed labor, can cause

¨Facial edema

a)

brow presentation

b)

face presentation

c)

occiput presentation

d)

mentum presentation

19.

occurs when the fetal hips are flexed but the legs are extended and resting on the chest, causing the buttocks to present first

a)

complete brech

b)

frank breech

c)

footling breech

20.

occurs when the thighs of the fetus are tightly flexed on the abdomen, causing the buttocks and flexed feet to present first

a)

complete breech

b)

footling breech

c)

frank breech

21.

A tocolytic, which is a beta adrenergic blocker and most commonly used

a)

propanolol

b)

terbutaline

c)

nifedipine

d)

indomethacin

22.

why is shoulder dystocia hazardous to the fetus?

a)

the fetus will deliver through mentum presentation

b)

the fetus might not able to be delivered

c)

if the cord is compressed between the fetal body and the bony pelvis

d)

the fetus might be distress

23.

If head appears on the perineum, it retracts instead of protruding with each contractions

a)

turtle sign

b)

mc roberts sign

c)

woods maneuver

d)

rubin maneuver

24.

the posterior shoulder is rotated 180 degrees in a corkscrew manner so that the anterior shoulder is released

a)

mc roberts maneuver

b)

woods maneuver

c)

rubin maneuver

d)

babinski maneuver

25.

prolonged labor means

a)

if it exceeds 48 hours in 12 hours of established labor

b)

if it exceeds 48 hours of established 10 hours of labor

c)

if it exceeds 24 hours in 10 hours of established labor

d)

if it exceeds 24 hours in 12 hours of established labor

26.

Prolonged latent phase is

a)

longer than 24 hours in nullipara and 12 hours in multipara

b)

longer than 20 hours in nullipara and 14 hours in multipara

c)

longer than 16 hours in nullipara and 12 hours in multipara

27.

Protracted active phase is

a)

longer than 12hrs in primigravida and 6hrs in multigravida

b)

longer than 24 hours in primigravida and 12 hours in multipara

c)

longer than 16 hours in primigravida and 8 hours in multipara

28.

if cpd is present,this emdicine is givent o augment labor

a)

terbutaline

b)

indomethacin

c)

oxytocin

d)

tocolytic

29.

retraction rings or bandls ring usually occurs in

a)

1st stage of labor

b)

2nd stage of labor

c)

3rd stage of labor

d)

4th stage of labor

30.

antidote for terbutaline

a)

tocolytic

b)

propanolol

c)

nifedipine

d)

indometahcin

31.

A condition in which the placenta separates from the endometrium before delivery.

a)

Placenta Previa

b)

Placenta Accreta

c)

Placental Abruption

d)

Sheehan's Syndrome

32.

A condition in which the trophoblast cells dig to deep into the decidua (endometrium) attaching to the myometrium of the uterus.

a)

Placenta Previa

b)

Placenta Accreta

c)

Placental Abruption

d)

Preeclampsia/Eclampsia

33.

A condition in which a woman develops high blood pressure after 20 weeks of pregnancy.

a)

Placenta Previa

b)

Preeclampsia

c)

Eclampsia

d)

Placenta Accreta

34.

A condition in which a woman develops high blood pressure after 20 weeks of pregnancy accompanied by seizures.

a)

Preeclampsia

b)

Sheehan's Syndrome

c)

Placenta Accreta

d)

Eclampsia

35.

A condition in which the placenta implants itself at the opening of the cervix.

a)

Placenta Previa

b)

Placental Abruption

c)

Placenta Accreta

d)

Placenta Succintiriata

36.

Occurs when placenta rips from uterine wall causing damage of blood vessels.

a)

Placental Abruption

b)

Placenta Previa

c)

Placenta Vera

d)

placenta Succinturiata

37.

Result from irregular development of blood vessels that connect placenta to uterus (blood vessels are narrow) cause the mother’s heart to do more work

a)

Placenta Previa

b)

Placenta Accreta

c)

Preeclampsia/Eclampsia

d)

Placental Abruption

38.

Results from partial or complete damage of pituitary gland.Symptoms include lack of pubic hair, reduced breast size, lack milk production.Caused by severe low blood pressure caused by blood loss

a)

Placenta Previa

b)

Sheehan's Syndrome

c)

Placenta Accreta

d)

Placental Abruption

39.

The most common abnormal blood test in preeclampsia is:

a)

Anaemia

b)

Low fibrinogen

c)

Elevated bilirubin

d)

Thrombocytopaenia

40.

Side effects of MgSO4 infusion include except

a)

Respiratory depression and apnoea

b)

Hyperreflexia

c)

ECG changes

d)

ECG changes

e)

Sinus pauses

41.

The midwife knows that preeclampsia tends to occur during what time in a pregnancy?

a)

before 20weeks

b)

after 20 weeks

c)

in the 3rd trimester and postpartum

d)

in the 1st and 2nd trimester

42.

A patient is currently 34 weeks pregnant with her first baby. Which findings below could indicate the development of preeclampsia in this patient that would need to be reported to the physician? Select all that apply:(pick 2 answers)

a)

4:00pm: blood pressure 144/100, 5:00pm: blood pressure 120/80

b)

8:00am: blood pressure 142/92, 12:30pm: blood pressure 144/98

c)

<300 mg/dL 24-hour urine protein

d)

1 hour glucose tolerance test 90 mg/dL

e)

3+ dipstick urine protein

43.

You're providing an in-service to a group of new labor and midwifery graduating students about the pathophysiology of preeclampsia. Which statement by one of the group participants demonstrates they understood how this condition develops?

a)

The placenta experiences ischemia because the spiral arteries of the uterus fail to reshape and increase in diameter

b)

The basal arteries of the myometrium fail to widen to support blood flow to the placenta."

c)

The cardiovascular system of the mother fails to compensate for the increased blood flow from the fetus and placental ischemia occurs

d)

"If the mother experience uncontrolled hypertension and proteinuria, it compromises blood flow to the placenta and leads to preeclampsia."

44.

These are the the risk factors that increases a woman’s risk for developing preeclampsia, except:

a)

primigravida

b)

history of lupus and diabetes

c)

Age 25 years old

d)

maternal history of preeclampsia

e)

pregnant with twins

45.

Your patient with preeclampsia is started on Magnesium Sulfate. The midwife knows to have what medication on standby?

a)

calcium gluconate

b)

terbutaline

c)

oxytocin

d)

acetylceistein

46.

A 39 week pregnant patient is in labor. The patient has preeclampsia. The patient is receiving IV Magnesium Sulfate. Which finding below indicates Magnesium Sulfate toxicity and requires you to notify the physician?

a)

Deep tendon reflex 4+

b)

Clonus presenting in the lower extremities

c)

patient reports flushing and feeling hot

d)

Urinary output of 600 mL over 12 hours

e)

Respiratory rate of 13 breaths per minute

47.

A 37 week pregnant patient is admitted with severe preeclampsia. The patient begins to experience a tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the following would the midwife AVOID during the seizure?

a)

Timing the seizure

b)

place the patient in a supine position

c)

Staying with the patient and activating the emergency response tea

d)

roviding 8 to 10 L of oxygen

48.

A 36 year old woman, who is 38 weeks pregnant, reports having dark red bleeding. The patient experienced abruptio placentae with her last pregnancy at 29 weeks. Theseare the signs and symptoms that can be present with abruptio placentae except

a)

fetal distress

b)

decrease in fundal height

c)

hard abdomen

d)

tender uterus

49.

You're performing a head-to-toe assessment on a patient admitted with abruptio placentae. Which of the following assessment findings would you immediately report to the physician?

a)

vaginal bleeding

b)

tender uterus

c)

hard abdomen

d)

oozing around the IV site

50.

A pregnant woman arrives at the emergency department (ED) with abruptio placentae at 34 weeks’ gestation. She’s at risk for which of the following blood dyscrasias?

a)

thrombocytopenia

b)

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

c)

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

d)

Heparin-associated thrombosis and thrombocytopenia (HATT).

51.

A midwife is caring for a client with abruptio placentae and is monitoring the client for disseminated intravascular coagulopathy. Which assessment finding is least likely to be associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation?

a)

swelling of the calf in one leg

b)

decreased platelet count

c)

prolonged clotting times

d)

Petechiae, oozing from injection sites, and hematuria

52.

A midwife is assessing a pregnant client in the 2nd trimester of pregnancy who was admitted to the maternity unit with a suspected diagnosis of abruptio placentae. Which of the following assessment findings would the midwife expect to note if this condition is present?

a)

Absence of abdominal pain

b)

Uterine tenderness/pain

c)

A soft abdomen

d)

Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding

53.

Which of the following is described as premature separation of a normally implanted placenta during the second half of pregnancy, usually with severe hemorrhage?

a)

placenta previa

b)

incompetent cervix

c)

abruptio placenta

d)

ectopic pregnancy

54.

Which of the following is not true about Type II DM?

a)

Cause unknown may be due to genetics

b)

May take a drug that sensitize cells or increase insulin release

c)

Require insulin 80% of cases

d)

Considered adult onset diabetes

55.

Which of the following clinical characteristics is associated with Type 1 diabetes (previously referred to as insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus [IDDM])?

a)

Presence of islet cell antibodies

b)

Obesity

c)

Requirement for oral hypoglycemic agents

d)

Rare ketosis

56.

Clients with diabetes mellitus require frequent vision assessment. Midwife should instruct the client about which of the following eye problems most likely to be associated with diabetes mellitus?

a)

cataracts

b)

retinopathy

c)

astigmatism

d)

glaucoma

57.

two days after ceasarian section, patient with a diabetes mellitus has complained of nausea and isn't able to eat solid foods. Midwife enters the room to find the patient confused and shaky. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient's symptoms?

a)

hypoglycemia

b)

anesthesia reaction

c)

hyperglycemia

d)

diabetic ketoacidos

58.

Midwife enters a patient's room and sees the patient breathing rapidly with a fruity breath smell. This is known as...

a)

Trousseau's

b)

Kaussmaul's

c)

Cullne's

d)

Bitot's

59.

Formerly called juvenile-onset ; characterized by the presence of autoantibodies that destroy the insulin producer beta cells of the pancreas leading to absence of insulin production.

a)

Type 1 diabetes

b)

Type 2 diabetes

c)

Type 3 diabetes

d)

Type 4 diabetes

60.

formerly called gestational diabetes; onset during pregnancy; reversal after the termination of pregnancy. Develops during pregnancy and spontaneously resolves after delivery. Results from inadequate insulin response to carbohydrate or from excessive resistance to insulin.

a)

Type 1 diabetes

b)

Type 3 diabetes

c)

Type 2 diabetes

d)

Type 4 diabetes

61.

Midwife is educating her pregnant patient, who has been recently diagnosed with GDM or gestational diabetes mellitus, about the various signs of hyperglycemia. These are thee following signs of hyperglycemia that the midwife would discuss with her patient except

a)

cool,clammy skin

b)

polyuria or increased urine output

c)

hot, flushed skin

d)

polydipsia

62.

An excessive amount of glucose in the maternal blood that is transported to the fetus through the placenta causes:

a)

macrosomia of the fetus and possible damage to arterial walls

b)

macrosomia of the fetus and no possible damage to arterial walls

c)

hypoglycemia of the fetus and possible damage to arterial walls

63.

When do most patients tend to develop gestational diabetes during pregnancy?

a)

usually during the 1-3 month of pregnancy

b)

usually during the 1-2 trimester of pregnancy

c)

usually during the 2-3 month of pregnancy

d)

usually during the 2-3 trimester pregnancy

64.

The underlying causes of maternal deaths are delays in critical actions except

a)

delay in assisting the client

b)

delay in seeking care

c)

delay in providing of appropriate medical management.

d)

delay in making referral

65.

As a midwife, you want to know the past illnesses/reproductive history of the client.Your request for VDRL.This test will determine if the client has

a)

syphilis

b)

gonorrhea

c)

leprosy

d)

candidiasis

66.

Proven to be a potent teratogen to unborn children because of the high proportion of rapidly growing cells present.

a)

radiation

b)

cytotoxic agent

c)

prohibited drugs

d)

cancer drugs

67.

Fetuses cannot remove the breakdown products of alcohol from their body and the large build-up can lead to vitamin deficiency.What vitamin deficiency ?

a)

Vit B

b)

vit A

c)

Vit D

d)

Vit C

68.

A woman with this category of heart disease can complete pregnancy by maintaining almost complete bed rest

a)

class I

b)

class II

c)

class III

d)

class IV

69.

A woman with this category of heart disease are poor candidates for pregnancy because they are in cardiac failure even at rest and when they are not pregnant; and they are usually advised to avoid pregnancy

a)

class I

b)

class II

c)

class III

d)

class IV

70.

Adolescents younger than age 15 are at risk of the following except

a)

low birth weight

b)

CPD

c)

down syndrome

d)

preterm neonates

71.

Smoking during pregnancy results in which of the following outcome

a)

premature and small for gestational age infants

b)

uterine atony and postpartum hemorrhage

c)

hyperglycemia and post maturity

d)

large for gestation age infants and polyhydramnios

72.

Higher levels of HCG are found in all the following except

a)

multifetal pregnancy

b)

hydatidiform mole

c)

hydrocepahlic pregnnacy

d)

erythroblastosis fetalis

73.

A "sickle cell crisis" means a sudden onset of pain throughout the body.

a)

true

b)

false

74.

A client comes into your clinic and you have inspected and observed that that the umbilicus has a bluish tinge referred to as Cullen's sign which is due to the blood that is slowly seeping into the peritoneal cavity.If you assess this one, what possible pregnancy disease she may be experiencing

a)

hmole

b)

placenta previa

c)

ectopic pregnancy

d)

hyperemesis gravidarum

75.

You assess your client who is in her 12th week AOG. if you suspected her with ectopic pregnancy ,how should your client describe her pain since blood accumulates in the abdominal cavity and irritates the phrenic nerve in the diaphragm??

a)

pain is radiating to the neck and shoulder

b)

pain is radiating to the right arm

c)

pain is radiating to the umbilical part then to the right hip

d)

pain is radiating to the shoulder then to the right arm

76.

Restriction of activities and cervical cerclage are the treatments for

a)

ectopic pregnancy

b)

trophoblastic disease

c)

H-mole

d)

incompetent cervix

77.

It is the most frequent cause of bleeding in early pregnancy

a)

ectopic pregnancy

b)

complete abortion

c)

sickle cell anemia

d)

postpartum hemorrhage

78.

This is described as an "Hour glass sign” – highly vascularized, bleeding and enlarged cervix, tight internal os and dilated external os.Thin walled cervix.Painless vaginal bleeding.Seldom goes beyond 20 weeks gestation.This means patient is having

a)

ovarian pregnancy

b)

tubal pregnancy

c)

abdominal pregnancy

d)

cervical pregnancy

79.

A 21-year old client, 6 weeks’ pregnant is diagnosed with hyperemesis gravidarum. This excessive vomiting during pregnancy will often result in which of the following conditions?

a)

bowel perforation

b)

miscarriage

c)

electrolyte imbalance

d)

Pregnancy induced hypertension (PIH)

80.

A client is being admitted to the antepartum unit for hypovolemia secondary to hyperemesis gravidarum. Which of the following factors predisposes a client to the development of this?

a)

trophoblastic disease

b)

malnourished or underweight clients

c)

MATERNAL AGE MORE THAN 35 YEARS OLD

d)

low levels of HCG

81.

Which of the following symptoms occurs with a hydatidiform mole?

a)

Heavy, bright red bleeding every 21 days

b)

Benign tumors found in the smooth muscle of the uterus

c)

Fetal cardiac motion after 6 weeks gestation

d)

“Snowstorm” pattern on ultrasound with no fetus or gestational sac

82.

Bleeding and cramping occur with the cervix closed and membranes intact.

a)

complete

b)

threatened

c)

missed

d)

inevitable

83.

Some of the products are expelled, but the placenta remains attached. Heavy bleeding and cramping doesn’t subside until entire placenta is removed

a)

complete

b)

incomplete

c)

threatened

d)

missed

84.

Refers to the loss of the products of conception that cannot be prevented

a)

complete abortion

b)

inevitable abortion

c)

septic abortion

d)

recurrent abortion

85.

Is an unusually deep attachment of the placenta to the uterine myometrium.§The placenta will not loosen and deliver.Attempts to remove it manually may lead to extreme hemorrhage

a)

placenta accreta

b)

vasa previa

c)

battledore placenta

d)

placenta circumvallata

86.

The fetal side of the placenta is covered to some extent with chorion.The umbilical cord enters the placenta at the usual midpoint and large vessel spread out from there

a)

Battledore Placenta

b)

Placenta Succenturiata

c)

Placenta Circumvallata

d)

Vasa Previa

87.

§The umbilical vessels of a velamentous cord insertion cross the cervical os, so they would deliver before the fetus

§The vessel may tear with cervical dilatation

a)

Vasa Previa

b)

Placenta Accreta

c)

Battledore Placenta

d)

Placenta Circumvallata

88.

Passive dependence is over and the woman begins to initiate action.She prefers to do things and make decisions on her own.Wants to be in control, strong desire to be independent

a)

Taking-hold Phase

b)

Letting-Go Phase

c)

Taking-In Phase

89.

1 to 3 days time of reflection, after delivery

§Woman is largely passive and assume a dependent role

§She prefers having a nurse do things for her and make decisions for her rather than do things herself.Sleep hunger,May have little interest in caring for her child

a)

taking-hold phase

b)

taking-in phase

c)

letting go phase

90.

antidote to warfarin

a)

vit k

b)

protamine sulfate

c)

aspirin